Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Disease and Ther. Final > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a monoamine

Serotonin
Dopamine
Histamine
Acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List of monoamines

A

Serotonin
Dopamine
Histamine
Catecholamines: Epi, Norepi, Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Effect of Dopamine beta hydroxylase insufficiency

A

Severe orthostatic hypotension

Need it to make Epi and Norepi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitor

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Weight gain
Autonomic activity altered
(dopamine beta hydroxylase insufficiency?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Function of tryptophan hydroxylase

A

tryptophan to 5HTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Tumor of adrenal gland, medulla
Hypertension
Treatment of pheochromocytoma causes hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Propranolol administration
what is it
effects

A

Non selective beta antagonist
decreased HR and contractility
Increase TPR (baroreceptor?)
Inhibits renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is responsible for the degradation of dopamine

A

Monoamine oxidase

degrades serotonin, epi, norepi, and histamine - NOT ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Function of tyrosine hydroxylase

A

tyrosine to DOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A farm worker is poisoned by a pesticide, presents in emergency room with blurred vision, excess salivation, twitching, and decreased heart rate.
What was the poison
Treat with what category and examples

A

Muscarinic agonist

Treat with Muscarinic antagonist: Atropine, scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nicotinic antagonists

A

Succinylcholine - depolarizer/desensitizer, not blocked by acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
d-Tubocurarine - competes with ACh, reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

No transmitter pathways from week one

A

pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are where

A

Thoracolumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons act upon what receptors where

A

nicotinic receptors in adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All preganglionics act on what receptors with what neurotransmitter

A

nicotinic receptors, ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle act via what receptors

A

Nicotinic

Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons can release what transmitters

A

Dopamine (D1) - Renal vascular smooth muscle
ACh - (M) Sweat glands
NE (alpha and beta) - cardiac and smooth muscle, glands nerve terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All parasympathetic post ganglionic neurons release what on what receptor

A

ACh

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

Receptors that take catecholamines

NE, Epi, Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bethanechol administration causes

A

increased gastric acid secretion
Cholinomimetic
acts on muscarinic receptor
Rest and digest effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Other than rest and digest, muscarinic receptors can activate what

A

Sympathetic sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes increased heart rate

A

Beta 1 agonists
isoproterenol
Epi or NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes urinary retention

A

Alpha 1 agonists contracts sphincters - phenylephrine, Phentolamine (non selective)
Beta 2 agonists relaxes bladder wall - Isoproterenol, Albuterol, Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dry mouth from

A

Anti-cholinergics/Muscarinic antagonist
Atropine
Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The cardiovascular effects of epinephrine in a person treated with propranolol and prazosin will most likely resemble the response of what drug

Pilocarpine
Phenylephrine
Clonidine
Isoproterenol

A

Propranolol - Beta 1 and 2 blocker
Prazosine - Alpha 1 antagonist
Answer: Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist
Decreases B.P. by shutting down NE release in brainstem (auto-receptor)
Can constrict vasculature

other alpha 2: guanfacine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor
Cholinomimetic
Muscarinic receptor agonist
Rest and digest effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Phenylephrine
what
uses/effects

A 
Alpha 1 agonist
vasoconstriction
Nasal decongestant
Cause mydriasis for eye exams
Radial muscle contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Isoproterenol
what
uses/effects

A

Beta (non selective) AGONIST
treat asthma - airway relaxation
treat bronchospasms, COPD
Relaxes uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which is most likely used to treat chronic asthma

epinephrine
albuterol
phentolamine
atenolol

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Albuterol

A

Beta 2 agonist

The relaxer: ciliary muscle (far vision), vasculature in muscle, uterus and bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Epinephrine effects

A 
Constricts radial muscle - mydriasis
constricts sphincters
constricts vasculature
can relax airways
increase outflow of aqueous humor
relax bladder - B2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

phentolamine

A

alpha antagonist (non selective)
vasodilator
increased HR - baroreceptors
Treats pheochromocytoma/hypertensive emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

atenolol

A

B1 blocker

Turns the heart down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following would be the most effective decongestant

alpha-1 agonist
alpha-1 antagonist
beta-1 agonist
muscarinic agonist

A

alpha - 1 agonist - vasoconstrictors

muscarinic - increase secretions - not good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following are most likely to be used by an ophthalmologist for a retinal exam

beta-1 agonist or a muscarinic antagonist
alpha-1 antagonist or a muscarinic agonist
alpha-1 agonist or a muscarinic agonist
alpha-1 agonist or a muscarinic antagonist

A

alpha-1 agonist or a muscarinic antagonist

alpha 1 agonist - radial muscle
muscarinic antagonist - opens circular muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which antiseizure drug is FDA-approved as a monotherapy for generalized tonic-clonic seizures but also has indications for uncomplicated absence seizures, atypical absence seizures, simple and complex partial seizures

Ethosuximide
Perampanel
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid

A

Valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ethosuximide

A

treats absence only - a generalized seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Carbamazepine

A

treats all partial seizures (simple complex, secondarily generalized) and Tonic-clonic generalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Valproic acid

A

broad spectrum, all seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This type of seizure is characterized by a localized focus, minimal spread, short duration and maintenance of awareness, consciousness, and memory of seizure event

complex partial
Generalized Absence
Generalized tonic-clonic
Simple partial

A

Simple partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Complex partial seizure

A

localized onset, can spread bilaterally

loss of awareness, memory, or conciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Generalized tonic-clonic

A

tonic - stiff
clonic - jerking
Postictal - lethargy after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Generalized absence seizure

A

vacant stare
good before and after
spike wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Simple partial

A

retain awareness, consciousness, and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Common seizure precipitants

A 
Sedative or ethanol withdrawal
Metabolic and/or electrolyte imbalance
Lack of sleep
Concussion and/or head injury
Reduction of medication
Hormone variation
stress
Fever/systemic infection
Stimulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Carbamazepine
uses
side effects

A

all partial
tonic-clonic generalized

Steven-Johnson syndrome
blurred/double vision
CYP3A4
Grapefruit increases drug amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Phenytoin
uses
side effects

A

all partial
tonic-clonic generalized

Gingival hyperplasia
zero-order kinetics at higher doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ethosuximide

uses
side effects

A

absence only

anorexia
blood dyscrasia
SLE-like reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following processes is least likely to cause a degenerative CNS disorder

enhanced GABA receptor activity
Enhanced NMDA receptor activity
Abnormal intracellular protein aggregation
Excessive calcium influxes into the neuron

A

Enhanced GABA receptor activity

inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Processes that cause degenerative CNS disorder

A 
Enhanced NMDA receptor activity - glutamate , excitatory
Abnormal intracellular protein aggregation
Excessive calcium influxes into neuron
Hypoxia
Ree radicals
Immune response
Infections
Apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following drugs is least likely to be prescribed to treat the symptoms associated with parkinson’s disease

L-dopa + carbidopa
Selegiline
Haloperidol
Pramipexole

A

Haloperidol - Butyrophenone, treats schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

L-dopa and carbidopa

A

L-dopa crosses BBB
Carbidopa blocks metabolism
Treats Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Selegiline

A

blocks MAO from breaking down dopamine

Treats Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Haloperidol

A

a butyrophenone

treats schiz

56
Q

Pramipexole

A

Dopamine agonist
D2 agonist
treats Parkinson’s

57
Q

Which of the following disorders is mostly likely to be associated with excessive dopamine and diminished GABA activity in the striatum

Multiple sclerosis
Huntington’s disease
Bipolar disorder
Major anxiety disorder

A

Huntington’s disease

excessive DA, decreased GABA

58
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A 
Inflammation
auto-immune
Oligodendrocytes
lose myelin sheath
virus trigger
59
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

excessive DA

decreased GABA

60
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Manic-depression

imbalance of catecholamines, DA, NE, Epi, 5HT

61
Q

Major anxiety disorder

A

possibly adrenal gland problem or sympathetic excess

constant fight/flight response

62
Q

Parkinsons

A

not enough dopamine

63
Q

Which of the following is not associated with Alzheimer’s disease

Abnormal amyloid precursor protein
Beta amyloid plaques/APP plaques
Neurofibrillary tangles - tao proteins
Alpha synuclein Lewy bodies

A

Alpha synuclein Lewy bodies

64
Q

alpha synuclein lewy bodies

A

Parkinson’s

inside nerve cells

65
Q

Which of the psychiatric conditions is least likely to have a significant impact on dental care/management

schizophrenia
bipolar disorder
cyclothymia
autism spectrum disorder

A

cyclothymia

66
Q

cyclothymia

A

minor bipolar

cycles from depression/dysthymia to manic

67
Q

A patient experiencing major psychosis caused by an automobile accident is most likely to be classified in which psychiatric dimensional axis

Axis I
II
III
IV

A

Axis III

68
Q

Axis I

A

Everything but mental retardation and personality disorders and injuries

depression, anxiety, bipolar, autism, anorexia and bulimia, schiz, drug dependence?

69
Q

Axis II

A

Personality disorders

70
Q

Axis III

A

Brain injuries

Other medical/physical disorders which may aggravate existing conditions

71
Q

Axis IV

A

Psychosocial and environmental factors contributing to disorder

72
Q

Best prognosis for Schizophrenia

A 
Temporary
cause related
positive symptoms
later onset
female
no family history
73
Q

Bad prognosis for Schiz

A 
Institutionalized
Longer in residual state
Negative symptoms
worse in men
Family history
74
Q

Entacapone
treats what
mech

A

treats parkinson’s

COMT inhibitor - prevents L-dopa from breaking down in G.I. tract

75
Q

Prednisone
treats what
mech

A

Multiple sclerosis

anti-inflammatory steroid

76
Q

Bupropion (Buspar)
treats what
used as what

A

Severe anxiety

non-addicting substitute for sedatives

77
Q

chlorpromazine
treats what
category and mech

A

treats schizophrenia
Phenothiazine
D2 antagonist

78
Q

Donepezil
Treats what
mech

A

Alzheimer’s disease

cholinesterase inhibitor

79
Q

Fluoxetine
treats what
type of drug

A

treats bulimia

an SSRI drug

80
Q

Clozapine
treats what
mech

A

treats schiz

Atypical D2 and 5HT2A antagonist

81
Q

Modafinil
treats what
Mech

A

Treats ADHD

DAT and/or NET blocker but mostly a non-stimulant

82
Q

Carbamazepine
treats what
mech

A

treats bipolar mania

antiseizure medication

83
Q

Lithium carbonate
treats what
mech

A

treats bipolar mania

an element that laters G proteins

84
Q

Alprazolam
treats what
mech

A

treats severe anxiety

agonist at benzodiazepine receptor

85
Q

Of the following issue with the woman with Alzheimer’s, which is least likely to cause significant problems for dental management of this patient

Xerostomia
Patient’s endurance
Stage of disease
Use of Sertraline

A

Use of Sertraline - selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor for depression and anxiety (SSRI)

86
Q

Side effect of Benztropine

A

xerostomia

used to treat excess salivation

87
Q

Which of the following is most likely responsible for a worsening of the patient’s memory

Sertraline
Benztropine
Ibuprofen
Vitamins

A

Benztropine

88
Q

How does benztropine worsen memory loss for Alzheimer’s

A

Alzheimers is a lack of ACh action
benztropine causes low ACh (anticholinergic)
usually used to treat Parkinson’s tremors

89
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to be neurotoxic b/c of its ability to dramatically alter the intracellular and extracellular release patterns of dopamine

heroin
nicotine
methylphenidate
methamphetamine

A

methamphetamine

90
Q

Mech of meth

A

Released DA from vesicles and reverses re-uptake transporter of DA

91
Q

Mech of nicotine

A

activates nicotinic receptors, DA release, not intra/extra cellular pattern

92
Q

Mech of methylphenidate

A

Ritalin
Stimulant
blocks re-uptake of DA

93
Q

Which behavioral therapies for treating drug addiction most likely affects the frontal cortex

Motivational enhancement
adverse therapy
urine drug checks
Cognitive therapy

A

Cognitive therapy - frontal cortex

94
Q

motivational enhancement therapy

A

orbital frontal cortex

priority list changes

95
Q

Contingency Management

A

Cortex to amygdala

rewards for good behavior towards addictions

96
Q

Which of the following has been shown to most likely be a genetic explanation for elevated risk of becoming addicted to cocaine

elevated activity of GABA receptors
diminished activity of D2 receptors
diminished activity of D1 receptors
elevated activity of NMDA receptors

A

diminished activity of D2 receptors

97
Q

action of diminished D2 receptors

A

D2 deactivates other euphoric processes

diminished D2 means more action is required to get to the same euphoric state?

98
Q

Side effects of Aspirin

A

G.I. irritation (acetylsalicylic acid)
Anti-clotting
Tinnitus
Reye’s syndrome

99
Q

How to treat neuropathic pain (diabetic foot)

A

Lyrica - GABApentin

anticonvulsant

100
Q

Anacin

A

Aspirin and caffeine

101
Q

Side effects of ibuprofen

A

G.I. and anti-clotting

102
Q

Indomethacin

A

non-selective NSAID

bad side effects

103
Q

Celecoxib (Celebrex)

A

Cox 2 inhibitor

Cardo effects but no G.I. problems and no anti-clotting

104
Q

Pathway of pain sensation

A

Transduction (nerve endings)
Transmission (DRG)
Modulation (dorsal horn of spinal cord)
Perception (cortex)

105
Q

which of the following is considered to be a modulating receptor on the free endings of sensory nerve terminals

Prostaglandin receptors
Thermo-nociceptors
Chemo-nociceptors
Mechanical-nociceptors

A

Prostaglandin receptors

106
Q

Thermo-nociceptors

A

transduction receptor

107
Q

Chemo-nociceptors

A

pH - transduction

108
Q

Mechanical-nociceptors

A

ATP related - transduction

109
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

occurs without activation of receptors on the free endings of sensory nerve terminals

110
Q

Somatic pain typically responds to

A

NSAID analgesics

111
Q

Visceral pain typically responds to

A

opioid narcotic analgesics

112
Q

Allodynia

A

Pain evoked by not normally painful stimuli

113
Q

Allogesia

A

super pain from a normally painful stimuli

114
Q

Nerves associated with dental pulp

A

Plexus of Raschkow

115
Q

A delta fibers

A

small and myelinated and associated with sharp localized pain

116
Q

C fibers

A

small and non-myelinated and associated with dull diffuse pain

117
Q

What molecules alter Modulation

A

Prostaglandins
Bradykinins?
Substance P.
glutomate

118
Q

Sensitization

A

doesn’t need as big an action potential to get response

119
Q

Differences in Cox 1 and Cox 2 side effects

A 
Cox 1
Prostaglandins
G.I.
Renal function
Anti-clotting
Vasoconstriction
Cox 2
Prostaglandins
Renal function
Vasodilation
cardiovascular side effects
120
Q

Salicylates (aspirin)

A

Cox 1 and 2

121
Q

Ibuprofen

A

Cox 1 and 2

122
Q

Acetaminophen (tylenol)

A

not cox 1 or 2

123
Q

Opioid peptide that primarily activates kappa receptors

A

Dynorphins

124
Q

Encephaline

A

mu and delta receptors

125
Q

b-endorphins

A

mu and delta receptors

126
Q

Substance P

A

causes sensitization

127
Q

Which of the following is not an NSAID

Indomethacin
Diflunisal
Naprosyn
Meperidine

A

Meperidine - opioid narcotic

128
Q

Meperidine

A

opioid narcotic

129
Q

Indomethacin

A

non-selective NSAID with bad side effects

130
Q

Diflunisal

A

NSAID for bone pain

131
Q

Naprosyn

A

Aleve, long lasting NSAID

132
Q

Most potent narcotic analgesic

A

Fentanyl

133
Q

Morphine

A

least potent of ‘phines, phones’

134
Q

Hydrocodone

A

Order from least to most potent of ‘codones’

Codein, hydrocodone, oxycodone

135
Q

Tramadol

A

Opioid narcotic

non addictive

136
Q

Which is least likely a side effect of potent narcotic analgesic

diarrhea
reduced pulmonary reflex
additive/synergic interaction with other CNS depressants
euphoria

A

diarrhea

usually causes constipation

Disease and Ther. Final (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions