MISC. Flashcards
(193 cards)
1
Q
How much Fluoride for 0-6 mos.
<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm
A
0 for all
2
Q
How much Fluoride for 6mos-3 years
<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm
A
0 for all
3
Q
How much Fluoride for 3yrs-6yrs
<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm
A
<0.3ppm= 0.5mg of fluoride
0.3-00.6ppm= 0.25 mg
>0.6ppm = 0 mg
4
Q
How much Fluoride for 6yr-16yrs
<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm
A
<0.3ppm = 1 mg
0.3-0.6ppm = 0.5mg
>0.06 PPm= 0 mg
5
Q
If the odds ratio equals 1, the exposure …..?
A
Does not affect the odds of the outcome
6
Q
If the odds ratio is greater than 1, the exposure ……?
A
Is associated with increased odds of the outcome
7
Q
If the odds ratio is less than 1, the exposure ……?
A
is associated with decreased odds of the outcome
8
Q
______ are numeric variables that are obtained by counting and taking a value based on a count from a set of distinct whole values. These variables cannot take the value of a fraction between one value and the next closest value. Since the presence or absence of oral cancer is not measured on a numerical score.
A
Dsicrete Variables
9
Q
_______ are numeric variables that are obtained by measuring and can therefore take any value between a certain set of real numbers. The value given for a continuous variable can be as small as the instrument of measurement allows. Since the presence or absence of oral cancer is not measured on a numerical score.
A
COntinuous Variables
10
Q
________ are organized by ordering or ranking of groups. In the case of oral cancer screening, the presence or absence of the disease is not affected by rank. Since there is no clear order of the outcome.
A
Ordinal Variables
11
Q
_______ also known as dichotomous variables, are variables that can only take on two possible values or categories. Examples include yes/no outcomes, heads/tails in a coin flips, and win/loss in a competition. In this case, oral cancer can either be present or absent during the screening process and can only take on those two distinct categories.
A
Binary
12
Q
What is the ideal upper limit for fluoride concentration in community water as determined by research?
A
0.7ppm
13
Q
Nitroglycerin is a prodrug that is converted to nitric oxide (NO) which then activates the enzyme ______ ______ leading to relaxation of vascular smooth muscles, and subsequently arteriolar and venous dilation.
A
guanylyl cyclase
14
Q
A corelationCoefficient of 1=
A
1: a strong positive association exists
15
Q
A corelationCoefficient of 0=
A
no association exists
16
Q
A corelationCoefficient of -1=
A
a strong negative association exists
17
Q
What is Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS),
A
a severe skin reaction caused by a reaction to medications or an illness.
18
Q
_______ is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction to a medication or illness and is a lesser form of toxic epidermal necrolysis.
A
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)
19
Q
_______ is most commonly caused by coxsackievirus and is self-limiting, resolving on its own over a short period of time.
A
Hand foot mouth
20
Q
___________ can cause a viral infection of herpes simplex, resulting in small blisters called cold sores or fever blisters or sore throat that resolves over time. Herpes infections are categorized based on the body part infected (i.e. oral, hands, etc).
A
Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)
21
Q
__________ is a highly contagious disease that includes symptoms of fever, cough, runny nose, and inflamed eyes. It is caused by the measles virus.
A
Rubeola, otherwise known as measles
22
Q
_______________ can cause infections, most of which are asymptomatic and resolve over a few years. However, in some cases, HPV infections may lead to warts or precancerous lesions. Depending on the location of the lesion, these infections may increase the risk of cancers, such as cervical and oropharyngeal cancers.
A
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
23
Q
What two drugs are prescribed to multiple myeloma patients?
A
Dexamethasone and Bisphos
Dexamethasone stops white blood cells from traveling to areas that are damaged by cancerous myeloma cells and can even kill them in higher dosages.
Bisphosphonates inhibit the progression of osteoclastic activity thus reducing skeletal complications related to multiple myeloma.
24
Q
______ = in a statistical study is one that proposes that there is no significant difference in the outcomes of the study groups.
A
Null Hypothesis
25
When taking methodiazonale what should be avoided?
Ehtanol
26
Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone.
This patient presents with hyperparathyroidism,
The elevated levels of hyperparathyroid hormone lead to increased osteoclast activity and bone turnover, which is seen by increased alkaline phosphatase levels.
27
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
is a rare disease of bone marrow-derived Langerhans cells. These cells build up and form lesions that can be seen solely in the maxillofacial bones or systemically. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in this disease as well, as in most diseases that affect bone.
in the oral cavity, this disease can present with localized pain, swelling, and severe periodontal disease with "floating teeth". The lesions can appear radiographically similar to the "brown tumors" of hyperparathyroidism. However, the "salt and pepper" trabeculae noted in the description of this patient is a ‘buzzword’ used to specifically describe hyperparathyroidism.
28
________ is a chronic disease of altered bone turnover that ultimately results in sclerosis and deformation of the bone, as opposed to the bone loss seen in this patient. Initially, bone is resorbed at a faster rate than it is replaced, though over time bone is deposited at a faster rate than it is resorbed.
cotton wool
Paget’s disease
29
is a gram positive facultative anaerobe that is commonly associated with post treatment apical periodontitis. The patient’s periapical radiolucency has worsened since treatment, likely indicating a failed root canal treatment.
Enterococcus faecalis
30
is an orange complex gram negative rod associated with pregnancy gingivitis.
Prevotella intermedia
31
is a red complex gram negative spirochete associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).
Treponema denticola
32
The order for the most common congenitally missing permanent teeth is:
Third molars
Mandibular second premolars
Maxillary laterals
Maxillary second premolars
33
This condition is associated with severe inflammation of the periodontium, usually leading to the loss of primary dentition by the age of 5 and the loss of permanent dentition by the age of 17. It also presents with dry, scaly lesions on the fingers, trunk, knees, and elbows, and palmoplantar hyperkeratosis, which is a scaly thickening of the skin of the bottom of the feet and palms of the hands.
Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome
34
____________________clinical symptoms include severe periodontitis of the primary and permanent dentitions, scaly skin lesions, and palmoplantar hyperkeratosis.
Papillion-Lefèrve syndrome
35
_______ structure is defined by data that is being compared from different individuals. One group is usually the control group or gold standard, and the other groups are divided into different interventions. In this case, since the subjects are divided into different soda groups, the outcomes will be compared between the individuals. This is an example of unpaired data.
UNpaired
36
_____ structure is defined by data that is being compared from the same individual in different time points. For this case, subjects are divided into different soda groups, so this is not an example of paired data.
Paired
37
________ `also known as dichotomous variables, are variables that can only take on two possible values. Examples include yes/no outcomes, heads/tails in a coin flips, and win/loss in a competition. Salivary glucose concentration evaluates continuous data.
Binary
38
consists of qualitative data that has a specific order and is ranked. Salivary glucose concentration consists of quantitative data.
Ordinal
39
what is the variable that is manipulated by the researcher.
Explanatory variable/ independent variable
40
_______ describes the phenomenon where participants in a study alter their behavior since they are aware they are being observed.
Hawthorne
41
_______ is the degree to which a measurement represents the true value of an outcome. In other words, it is a measure of how close the final results of an experiment are to the correct or accepted value.
accuracy
42
is a measure of the agreement of a set of results among themselves, or in other words, how close the results are to one another. An experiment that yields data with a low standard deviation is said to be highly precise. However, the precision of a data set does not describe how correct the results actually are. Precision is a term best used to describe quantitative outcomes.
precision
43
_______ is a measure of how well an experiment will produce the same results when repeated. This can be improved by increasing its sample size.
reliability
44
________ is the extent to which the study effectively measures what it is designed to measure, or how well a data set represents the phenomenon being assessed.
validity
45
Patients with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are protected under the ___________
Americans with Disabilities Act.
46
Lymph nodes of the abdomen are the most common metastatic site for testicular cancer.
true
47
This patient has poorly controlled diabetes, which has been shown to be associated with________,
osteomyelitis
48
Implant placement is an invasive surgery that can lead to serious complications, including_________ .
osteomyelitis
49
A removable partial denture can have precision attachments, which replace the denture rests and clasps. These attachments are incorporated into the partial denture and serve as the “male” portion that fits into a “female” portion placed onto the abutment teeth. The main indication for these precision attachments is _______
esthetics
50
Albuterol is an adrenergic agonist, specifically a _________. Albuterol activates beta-2 receptors in order to relax bronchial smooth muscle, opening the airway to the lungs, and effectively increasing air flow to the lungs.
beta-2 agonist
51
Common characteristics of _________ include flattened facial profile, delayed tooth eruption, macroglossia, hypodontia.
down syndrome
52
Patients with ______ commonly present with cardiac defects.
It is critical to ask the parent for a cardiac and surgical history to determine if antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary prior to dental procedures given the increased risk of infective endocarditis.
Down syndrome
53
localized aggressive periodontitis. The bacteria that is most commonly associated with this condition is ________ _______ , a nonmotile, gram-negative rod.
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
54
_______ is a gram-negative, obligate anaerobe and is part of the orange complex of bacteria. It is associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG/ANUG), a condition characterized by “punched-out” papilla, painful bleeding gums, ulceration, and fetid odor.
P Intermedia
55
Treatment of localized aggressive periodontitis includes _______
prescription of systemic antibiotics coupled with scaling and root planing (SRP).
56
Primary risk factors of oral cancer include _______
tobacco and alcohol consumption.
57
The most well-known side effects of ________are cough, angioedema, and swelling secondary to fluid retention.
lisinopril
58
_________ is an HIV-associated cancer caused by human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) that forms inside blood vessels and lymphatic tissues. It initially presents as purple, red, or brown spots often on the hard palate, gingiva, or tongue that can resemble bruises and later develops a nodular appearance with or without secondary ulceration.
Kaposi's sarcoma
59
The patient has rheumatoid arthritis, which can often be managed with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as_______.
aspirin
60
_________ works by irreversibly blocking the activity of cyclooxygenase (COX) 1 and 2.
Aspirin
61
t/f: Some bacteria are able to secrete polysaccharides that form sticky biofilms and impair the ability for irrigants to clean the canals.
true
62
_______is a chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drug that is known to cause poor wound healing and hemostasis after tooth extraction.
Methotrexate
63
For any adults without contraindications to ibuprofen, the FDA suggests a daily maximum dose of_______ a day. In addition, it should not be taken more than every 4 hours.
3,200mg
64
Third trimester of pregnancy, should avoid using all_____
NSAIDs
65
The following are contraindications to use of NSAIDS
Hypersensitivity or allergic reaction to ibuprofen or other NSAIDs
Third trimester of pregnancy, should avoid using all NSAIDs
Advanced renal disease or heart failure patients, unless determined that benefits outweigh risks
Advanced chronic liver disease or cirrhosis
History of gastric ulcers
66
What is the max amount of aceto?
4000mg
67
What is the max amount of ibu?
3200mg
68
t/f: The amount of vertical bone loss ranges between 10-20% and horizontal bone loss ranges from 30-60% after 6 months.
true
69
The best choice for cementing a zirconia crown when a significant amount of tooth structure has been removed is a ____
self-adhesive resin cement.
70
What cement is used for zirconia with conservative prep
RMGI
71
Patients with factor ________ are hypercoagulable due to diminished breakdown of factor V by activated protein C resulting in an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).
V Leiden
72
Those with factor V Leiden are prescribed_______ to prevent blood clot formation.
anticoagulants
73
Splinting: avulsed tooth
flexible for 2 weeks
74
Splinting: extrusive luxation
flexible for 2 weeks
75
Splinting: subluxation
flexible for 2 weeks
76
Splinting a lateral luxation
4 weeks
77
Splinting intrusive luxation
4 weeks
78
Splinting alveolar fracture
4 weeks
79
Splinting root fracture
4 weeks
80
Splinting root fracture in the cervical third.
4 months
81
For rheumatoid arth:_______ blocks DNA and RNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells such as immune or cancer cells.
Methotrexate
82
Methotrexate, even in low doses, can impair kidney function. It would be advisable to evaluate proper kidney function prior to surgery through a ________ test to ensure a low risk of perioperative or postoperative complications.
creatinine clearance
83
sutures: absorbed by acid hydrolysis within 4 weeks. Water penetrates the strands of the suture and causes breakdown of the filaments.
vicryl
84
Sutures: absorbed by proteolysis after 3 weeks. Enzymes in the body carry out phagocytosis to break down the sutures.
chromic gut
85
If the amalgam feels dry and crumbly, it is a sign of _______
under-trituration
86
________produces an amalgam mixture that is warm, wet, and soft.
Over-trituration
87
________ makes up the greatest proportion of metals in amalgam alloys.
Silver
88
_____ of an amalgam restoration can cause a bluish hue around the amalgam-enamel margin.
Corrosion
89
_______in dental amalgams refers to the gradual change in the shape of the restoration from compression by opposing dentition during chewing, or by pressure from adjacent teeth.
Creep
90
Diabetes can be considered well-controlled if the patient's HbA1c levels are between _______
6.5-7%.
91
Insulin glargine (Lantus®) and detemir (Levemir®) are forms of ________that are generally taken once daily.
long-acting insulin
92
________is a form of rapid-acting insulin taken prior to meals.
Lispro
93
Glargine (Lantus®) and detemir (Levemir®) are forms of long-acting insulin taken _______
once daily.
94
What is the RASS Pathway?
the pathway is renin → angiotensin I → (ACE) → angiotensin II → aldosterone.
95
________ is a water based cream that is supplied in tubes resembling those of toothpaste. The paste is placed on the teeth and is able to release both calcium and phosphate to the tooth structure and increase its concentration in the saliva. This allows for increased remineralization of demineralized lesions and can help fight against decay and erosion.
MI paste
96
What are medications used to help stop smoking:
Varenicline (Chantix®)
Bupropion (Zyban®) is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), used to treat major depressive disorder. It also has the additional action of reducing smoking cravings, a great adjunct for smoking cessation therapy.
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is used to provide slowly decreasing dosages of nicotine (via lozenge, patch, gum, etc) over a period of a few weeks to decrease withdrawal symptoms experienced during smoking cessation.
97
T/F: Buspirone (Buspar®) is an anxiolytic medication, which does not assist in smoking cessation.
true
98
Buccal furcation cysts are rare radiolucent lesions generally _______
associated with the buccal aspect of the mandibular 1st molar in children aged 6-8 years old.
99
________ is a 5HT1a partial agonist allowing for anxiolysis.
Buspirone
100
_________such as midazolam are medications known to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect at the GABA-A receptors.
Benzodiazepines
101
________ inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake and binds weakly to μ-opioid receptors.
Tramadol
102
_________ are characteristics that are unchangeable and increase the likelihood of periodontal disease.
risk determinants
103
_______ are metrics that have a quantitative association with the disease.
risk markers
104
t/f: Trauma leading to hemolysis of red blood cells releases hemoglobin and hematin derivatives, potentially causing tooth discoloration.
true
105
MOA of which drug? It works by binding ergosterol which is a major component of fungal cell membranes. This causes pores to form in the fungal cell membrane and ultimately causes the death of the fungus
Mystatin
106
Glucagon increases blood sugar by breaking down gylcogen in the liver
true
107
t/f: Teeth can be lightened using internal bleaching with 10% carbamide peroxide.
true
108
When doing internal bleaching, what is the thickness of barrier between gutta percha and the pulp chamber?
2mm
109
Composite resin restorations should be performed at least _______after an internal bleaching procedure due to the effect of hydrogen peroxide on composite bonding to the tooth.
2-3 weeks
Studies have shown that the saturation of the tooth with oxygen from hydrogen peroxide directly reduces free radical polymerization and bond strength.
110
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can affect parts of the body such as the heart, joints and central nervous system.
Possible sequelae to rheumatic heart disease include endocarditis, arthritis, and chorea.
true
111
_______is a bacterium responsible for multiple mild and severe infections. Mild infections include sore throat from pharyngitis and tonsillitis, whereas severe infections include scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, necrotizing fasciitis, and toxic shock syndrome.
Streptococcus pyogenes
112
Methotrexate is used to treat Chron's disease.
Methotrexate depresses the immune response and is known to cause gastrointestinal disturbances, hepatotoxicity, and oral ulcerations.
true
113
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is a painful gum infection associated with an oral spirochete bacterium, ________ ________.
Treponema denticola
114
A. actinomycetemcomitans is more commonly associated with _______
localized aggressive periodontitis.
115
________ is used as a smoking cessation and antidepressant medication that can cause neurological side effects.
Bupropion (Wellbutrin®)
116
What is the order of teeth that are most likely to get CTS (cracked tooth syndrome)
Mand 2 molar
mand 1 molar
max premolar
117
When determining which compositie takes longest to cure look at the -------
value number the higher the number the longer to cure
118
if shade doesnt match in different light then what?
mETAMERISM
119
wHICH DENTIN MUST BE ETCHED THE LONGEST?
tertiary
120
does composite have high compressive strength
nope
121
which of the following are not true of class one amalgam preps:
butt joint margin
requires depth of 1mm
flat pulpal floor
converging buccal and lingual walls
requires depth of 1 mm
it is at least 1.5 mm
122
What is the weakest phase of amalgam?
gamma two
123
how do you reduce the gamma two phase?
increasing copper
124
does glass ionomer or RMGI have more fluoride release?
GI
125
Spill of the dental primer can cause what?
delayed type IV hypersensitivity
126
Which metal in amalgam has the highest allergic rates?
mercury
127
What margin for gingival margin of a veneer?
feather edge
128
what margin for the incisal edge of veneer?
butt join
129
What type of compsite filler has the most wear resistances?
nanofill because it is the smallest particles.
130
what type of pain is not associated with 3rd molar eruption
not sensitivity to cold but rather aching or soreness.
131
what is the strongest phase of amalgam
gamma
gamma one is slightly weaker - reacting with silver
gamma 2 is the weakest and is reacting with tin
132
for infrabony defects greater than 3mm you must do what?
Guided tissue regeneration
for
133
what about 3mm or less infrabony defect?
osseous surgery
134
what is doxycycline? and where does it aggregate the most
it is a tetracycline and aggregates in the GCF`
135
is the accuracy of a diagnostic test in determining disease. It is measured by this equation: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN)
sensitvity
136
what is the equation for sensitivity
Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN)
137
= TN/(TN+FP)
specifictiy
138
causes symptoms such as sweating, tremors, nervousness, anxiety, unintentional weight loss, sensitivity to heat, increased heart rate and goiter.
hyperthyroidism
139
can cause symptoms such as dry and cold skin, weight gain, fatigue, constipation, sensitivity to cold, slowed heart rate, and thinning hair.
hypothyroidism
140
Patients who take_____ can expect weight gain, hypertension, hyperglycemia, and altered mood.
prednisone
141
Carbamazepine (Tegretol®) is a _______
sodium channel blocker.
142
________syndrome can result in midface hypoplasia, which is characterized by bulging eyes, frontal bossing, hypertelorism, and maxillary retrognathism.
Crouzon
143
__________reactivates acetylcholinesterase by reversing the phosphorylation.
Pralidoxime (Protopam®)
144
_____are one of the first responders of acute inflammation and aggregate at the site and are the dominant phagocytic cell at this stage of injury and healing.
Neutrophils
145
Hepatitis B viruses can live on a surface for ____
up to one week.
146
the injection technique anesthetizes the most number of nerves.
Gow-Gates
147
Digoxin and other cardiac glycosides are prescribed to help a heart suffering from congestive heart failure. They work by blocking ______ in order to increase the influx of calcium ions into cardiac muscle cells and promote positive inotropy.
the Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme
148
Meckel's cartilage gives rise to the :
malleus, incus, sphenomandibular ligament, and anterior mandible.
149
Orthodontic movement may be slowed in patients taking ________
long-term nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
150
The order of maxillary and mandibular primary teeth eruption is in the order of
ABDCE.
151
______ can be confirmed with a biopsy that has Verocay bodies in the Antoni-A areas.
A schwannoma
152
The maximum daily dosage of acetaminophen is
4,000 mg.
153
The maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen is
3,200 mg.
154
The minimum oxygen concentration delivered with nitrous oxide is
30%.
155
What is the MOA of Denusomab?
RANKL inhibitor
156
What is the MOA of fosamax?
osteoclast inhibition
157
_________ is a loop diuretic that acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle to block Na/K/2Cl transporters.
Furosemide (Lasix®)
158
Furosemide (Lasix®) is associated with what?
hypokalemia, hearing loss, hypocalcemia , interstitial nephritis
159
_________ is the most resistant to calcium hydroxide.
Enterococcus faecalis
160
T. Denticola is associated with what?
ANUG
161
A actinomyces is associateed with what?
localized agressive periodontitis
162
What is the MOA of doxycylcine?
it inhibits collengase, and therefore is only used in adult periodontis, not any necrotizing perio disorders
163
Factors such as human immunodeficiency virus, malnutrition, and smoking can contribute to the development of ________
necrotizing gingivitis.
164
which local anesth is digested in the liver
amides
165
which LA is digested in the plasma
esthers
166
WHat is the MOA of Nystatin
binds ergostol which is needed for fungal cell memerane
167
are mesiodens more common on the buccal or the palatal surface?
palatal
168
______is a 5HT1a partial agonist allowing for anxiolysis.
Buspirone
169
_________ are medications known to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect at the GABA-A receptors.
Benzodiazepines such as midazolam
170
________ inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake and binds weakly to μ-opioid receptors.
Tramadol
171
Common side effects of buspirone include _________
headaches, nervousness, excitement, nausea, diarrhea, insomnia, xerostomia and confusion.
172
________ blocks DNA and RNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells such as immune or cancer cells.
Methotrexate
173
________can impair kidney function which should be evaluated prior to surgical procedures.
methotrexate
174
The amount of vertical bone loss ranges between ______and horizontal bone loss ranges from _______ after 6 months.
VBL: 10-20%
HBL: 30-60%
175
Kaposi's sarcoma is a malignant proliferation of endothelial cells caused by _______
human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8).
176
continuing education is what
non-malfecnes
177
reporting abuse is
benefincence
178
______ can be done at least 2-3 weeks after an internal bleaching procedure.
Resin composite fillings
179
_______ are associated with hyperkalemia
Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone,
180
Side effects of_______ may include dizziness, headaches, xerostomia, arrhythmias, and hypokalemia.
hydrochlorothiazide
181
________is effective in reversing benzodiazepine activit
Flumazenil
182
Histologically ________ examination reveals myxoid stroma with myoepithelial cells.
pleomorphic adenoma
183
How does dentingogensis imperfecta present? what is the difference between the two types?
they have obliterated pulp canals and bulbous crowns
Type I is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
Type II is independent
184
statins and Firbtates can cause what
rhabdomyolysis which can result in the break down of muscle and cause red urine
185
Beginning with file size #15, the color of files in ascending order is White-Yellow-Red-Blue-Green-Black, then it repeats itself.
The file size is indicated by its color and represents the diameter at the file tip.
know this bs
186
granular cell tumor is a type of benign or malignant tumor of Schwann cell origin.
anterior tongue
187
risperdone can cause what
tardive dyskinesia
188
Direct inhibition of thrombin describes the mechanism of action of
dabigatran (Pradaxa®).
189
Acceleration of antithrombin III activity describes the mechanism of action of
heparin.
190
Inhibition of vitamin K reductase describes the mechanism of action of
warfarin (Coumadin®).
191
are both inhibitors of clotting factor Xa.
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto®) and apixaban (Eliquis®)
192
is a sodium channel blocker.
Carbamazepine (Tegretol®)
193
x is a gram negative, aerobic bacteria that has been found in up to 68% of dental water lines.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram negative, aerobic bacteria that has been found in up to 68% of dental water lines.
