Path + Syndromes Flashcards
(129 cards)
1
Q
Which syndrome? Clefts + Lip Pits
A
VAN DE WOUDE SYNDROME
2
Q
What is lingual thryoid?
A
embryonic path of thryoid desecnd,,, but seen on the base of the tongue `
3
Q
fissured
tongue + granulomatous cheilitis + facial
paralysis
A
Melkersson- Rosenthal Syndrome
4
Q
What is Sturge - Weber Syndrome
A
angioms of Leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia mater) + skin along the distr of the tri gem Nerve
5
Q
Doughy consistancy, mass in the floor of the mouth if above mylohyoid, mass in the upper nexk if below the mylohyoid
contains adnexal structures like hair and sebaceous glands
A
dermoid cyst
6
Q
distinguish oral lymphoepithelal cyst and the branchial cyst
A
branchial cyst is a lymp node of the neck
Oral lymphoepithelial cyst is lymphoid tissue of oral mucosa
7
Q
what is a globulomaxillary lesiion?
A
radiolucency between the maxillary canine and the lateral incisor
8
Q
idopathic bone cavity, radioluc scallops roots, no epithelial lining
A
traumatic bone cyst
9
Q
SMoking associated melanosis
A
smoking stims melanocytes
reverisble if quit smoking
10
Q
which syndrome has melanotic macules + intestinal polyps
A
Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
11
Q
Where does Primary herpes occur?
A
Pan-oral,
12
Q
Where does recurrent Herpes occur?
A
keratinized tissues and the vermillion border of the tongue
13
Q
How do you treat herpes?
A
Acyclovir
14
Q
Where does the Varicella Zoster Virus lie dormant?
A
trigeminal ganglion
15
Q
What is associated with Varicella Zoster Virus?
A
chicken pox and shingles
16
Q
chicken pox, self-limiting, lay dormant in the TGNG
A
Primary varicella zoster virus
17
Q
Shingles,
A
recurrent varicella zoster virus
18
Q
What is ramsay Hunt syndrome?
A
herpes zoster reactivation in the geniculate ganglion affecting the cranial nerves 7, 8
19
Q
How do you treat ramsay hunt?
A
acyclovir
20
Q
What is coxsackie virus?
A
hand foot mouth disease
seen with herpangina in the posterior oral cavity
21
Q
What is Koplik’s spots and what is it associated with ??
A
buccal mucosa dot ulcers, which procede the skin rash
MMR
22
Q
WHat is a Condyloma Acuminatum?
A
genital wart
23
Q
Which strains of HPV cause Condyloma Acuminatum?
A
HPV 6 adn 11
24
Q
What is heck’s disease?
A
multiple small dome-shaped warts on the oral mucosa,,
25
What strain of HPV causes hecks disease?
HPV 13 and 32
26
What causes oral hairy luekoplakia?
Epstien barr virus
27
What is hutchingson's triad associated with?
congential syphillis
28
What is hutchinson's triad?
notched incisors, mulberry molars, deafness, and ocular keratitis
29
what causes syphillia?
Treponema Pallidum
30
What is the primary lesion of syphyllis?
chancre
31
What is the 2ndary lesions of syphillis
oral mucous patch, condyloma lactum, maculopapular rash
32
what is the 3rdiiary lesion of syphillis?
gumma, cns involvement, CV involvement
33
What are the three stages of tuberculosis?
primary: ghon complex: inhaled bacteria that is a granuloma, and undergoes caseating necrosis + infected hilar lymph node draining the first lesion
2ndary: lung infection with cavitation
MIlary: systmeic spread
34
What bacterial causes Actinomycosis?
Actinomyces Israeli
this has periapical jaw infections and cervicofacial head and neck infections
35
How do you treat a white coated tongue with red inflamed fungiform papilaw and what is it CALLED????
penicillin
strawberry tongue/ scarlet fever
36
Where would you find an apthous ulcer?
on NON-KERATINIZED TISSUEW
37
What is another name for major aphtous ulcer, and how does it heal?
heals via scarring, and it called SUTTONDisease
38
What syndrome is associated with erythemia Multiforme
Steven's Johnson's Syndrome
39
What is wegener's Granulomatosis?
allergic reaction to inhaled antigen
40
What is associated with sawtooth rete pegs?
lichen planus
41
How do you tx lichen planus?
with corticosteroids
42
How do you treat lupus Erythematosus?
through corticosteroids
43
What is associated with proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia?
HPV 16 and 18
44
What HPV is considered to be most cancerous
16 and 18 they can cause verrucous carcinoma
45
what cancer is associated with HPV 16 and 18
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
46
what has: mucosal atrophy + dysphagia + iron deficiency anemia + increased risk of oral cancer
Plummer-vinson Syndrome
47
What has: multiple neuromas + medullary thyroid cancer
+ pheochromocytoma of the adrenal gland
multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN 2B)
48
What cell type demonstrates neoplasistic tendencies in Nodular Fasciities
firboblasts
49
a granular cell tumor is a neoplasm of what>
schwann cells
50
Where is a granular cell tumor most common?
dorsal tongue
51
what neoplasm of schwann cells has acellular verocay bodies and Antonia A tissue
schwannoma (neurilemmonma
52
multiple
neurofibromas + multiple skin freckles (café au
lait spots) + axillary freckles (Crowe’s sign) +
iris freckles (Lisch spots);
Neurofibromatosis Type I/ Von Reckinghausen's disease
53
What is a leiomyoma
beging neoplams of smooth muscle cells
54
What is a rhabdomyoma
neoplasm of skeletal muscle cells
55
what is a lipoma
neoplasm of fat cells
56
What purple lesion is a malignancy of endothelial cells, caused by HHV8, and is most commonly seen as a complication of AIDS
Kaposi's sarcoma
57
What is the most common benign slaviary gland tumor
pleomorphic adenoma
it is a mixture of cell types
58
what is Warthin's tumor?
composed of oncocytes (eptih cell with ++++ mitochondira)
usually found in the parotid of older men
59
What is the most common salviary gland malignancy that is composed of mucous and epithelia cells?
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
60
What contains the malignant B cells, and is very rare in the oral cavity
Hodgkin's lymphoma
61
_____ is a neoplasm of B or T cells
Non- hidgkins lymphoma
62
What is Burkitt's Lymphoma
a type of b cell NHL with bone marrow involvement, swelling, pain, tooth mobility, lip paresthesia, and halts root development
63
What cell type is commonly see in multiple myeloma?
plasma caells,
64
What is the radipgraphic finding of multiple myeloma?
punch out radiolucencies
65
what neoplasm of bone marrow cells, has the three clinical signs of bleeding (platelets), fatigue (RBCs) and infection (WBCs)
Leukemia
66
List the types of leukemia from most common to least
ALL> CML> AML> CLL
67
A radicular cyst are always assoc. with which type of tooth
non-viotal tooth
68
What is a histological finding of radicular cyst? q
Epithelail rests of malassez
69
What are the names of the two types of rests of dental lamina that are gingival cyst of newborn
Bohn's nodule-- lateral palate
Epstien's pearls midline palate
70
What is multiple KCOTs, multiple BCCs,
calcified falx cerebri, fatal,
Gorlin Syndrome
71
What is another name for gorlin syndrome
also called nevoid basal cell
carcinoma
72
What radiographically evident tumor has driven snow appearance, liesegang rings
Pindborg tumor aka Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor
73
Where is an adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT) most commonly occuring
ant max and around impacted canine
74
Cementoblastoma
well circumscribed radiopague mass , ball of cementum and cementoblasts replacing tooth root
75
What has multiple odontoma, and intestinal polymps
gardner syndromw
76
What has ground glass appearance
fibrous dysplasia
77
polyostotic (more
than one bone) fibrous dysplasia + cutaneous
café au lait spots + endocrine abnormalities like
precocious puberty
McCune-Albright Syndrome
78
describe the patient with Periapical Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia
middle aged black femals with vital mand ant teeth
79
Central giant cell granuloma looks like radiographically???
composed of fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells
bone, radiolucency with thin wispy spetations
80
What is a pseudocyst composed of blood filled spaces, it is multilocular, expansile, and most common in the posterior mandible
Aneurysmal Bone cyst
81
How would hyperPARATHYROIDISM affect the bone
excess parathyroid hormone removed calcium from bone and into the plasma
82
What is the cause of hyperparathyroidism
brown tumor due to excessive ostoclast activity
83
Brown tumor presents with what elevated in the blood
increased alkaline phosphatace due to breakdown of bone from hyper parathyroidism
84
What does hyperparathyroidism result in?
VON reckinhausen's disease of bone
look up von recklinghausned disease aka neurofibromatosis
85
* Discrete punched out “ice cream scoop” radiolucencies that lead to floating teeth
Langerhans Cell disease
86
Progressive metabolic disturbance of many bones (spine, femur, skull, jaws) causing symmetrical enlargement
* Usually adults older than 50 * Elevated alkaline phosphatase due to breakdown of bone
* Cotton wool appearance
* Dentures (and hats) become too tight
* Tx: bisphosphonates, calcitonin
Paget's disease
87
Where does infection begin in acute osteomyekutus
medullar space in the jaw
88
What is Garre's Osteomyelitis:
chronic osteomyyelitis with proliferative periosteitis
89
Bone sclerosis resulting from low-grade
inflammation like chronic pulpitis
condensing osteitis
90
Sarcoma of jaws where new bone is produced by tumor cells
* Sunburst pattern
osteosarcoma
91
Sarcoma of jaws where new cartilage is
produced by tumor cells
chondrosarcoma
92
What is Ewings' sarcoma
sarcoma of long bones involving "round cells"
93
What metastatic carcinoma
started elsewhere and then moved to the jaws
94
What is the most common sites of metasttic carcinoma
move to jaws from Breast> Lung > kidney > colon > prostate
95
white sponge nevus
autosomal dominant
96
epidermolysis bullosa
auto dom or recess
causes skin and mucosa to be fragile and blister easily
97
red macule or papule, dilated or broken
capillary
Telangiectasia
98
cleidocranial dysplasia
automsomal dominal
99
ectodermal dysplasia
x linked recessive
100
What is osteopetrosis
auto dom or recessive
called albers-schonberg disease and marble bone diesase
leads to stone bone because of lack of remodeling
101
What is dentinogensis imperfecta
autosomal dom
both sets of teeth affected
short roots, bell shaped crowns and obliterated pulps
BULBOUS crowns in radiographs due to sonstricted DEJ
Blue sclera
102
all teeth from both sets are affected
chevron pulps and short roots
Dentin dysplasia
103
facial paralysis, fissured tongue, and granulomatous cheilitis
Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome
104
There are 3 “C’s” of the prodrome of measles and include coryza (runny nose), cough, and conjunctivitis. +++ Koplik spots (pinp
rubeola (measles) virus.
105
if patient had a previous dx of streptococcal pharygnitis and after bx the pt has pain in joints + rash on the patient trunk
rash and joint pain is rhematic fever
106
Methotrexate, even in low doses, can impair kidney function. What lab value needs to be assessed?
creatine clearance
107
Factor V Leiden is associated with_________,
osteonecrosis
108
what is the genome of HIV
two identical single stranded RNA
109
autoimmne is what type of senstivity
type III
110
where would you find peptidoglycan?
in the bacterial cell well. gives it rigidity
111
what embryonic stucutre gives rise to the pulp?
dental papilla
112
“undetectable viral load”. Numerically, this status coincides with fewer than ____copies/mL of blood.
less than 50
113
"Viral suppression" describes a viral load that is very low and _______opies/mL of blood.
less than 200 c
114
Pierre Robin sequence is most commonly associated with _______, a condition that affects connective tissues, specifically collagen
Stickler syndrome
115
Mucosal pallor, delayed eruption of permanent dentition, and swelling of extremitits
sickle cell anemia
116
post exposure to hep b what is the longest to wait to begin prophylaxis
do it immediately, but canbe done up to 1-3 days to iniaiteq
117
______is a condition that affects the face and eyes on one side of the body. I
Horner syndrome
118
What does this descfibe and what casues this : often presents clinically with a sore throat, trouble swallowing, and occasionally a fever. Small red macules that progress to ulcers are often present on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars. The virus is transmitted by a fecal-oral route or by respiratory droplets.
Coxsackie causes herpangia
119
is a congenital condition classified by vascular malformations along the distribution of the trigeminal nerve.
Sturge- weber angiomatosis
120
What is barrett's esophagous associated with and what kind of chnages take plase
GERd
intestinal metaplasia: the esophagus chnages from strat squam to simple columnar
121
What does CRAB stand for with mutliple myeloma?
Calcium elevation
Renal failure
anemia
Bence Jones Protenuria
122
What is hep c
single stranded RNA virus
123
The most common bacterial agent involved in subacute bacterial endocarditis from a dental origin is _______.
Viridans streptococci
124
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis over all
staph aureus
125
After the resolution of infectious mononucleosis, the virus lays dormant in resting ________
memory B-cells.
126
i________s the predominant bacteria in dental plaque.
--Streptococcus mutans
127
______ can present with altered function of the facial nerve leading to facial muscle paralysis, loss of taste, dry eyes, xerostomia, and ear pain.
Ramsay Hunt syndrome
128
What is associated with Ramsay Hunt syndrome
recurrent varicella zoster
129
________is characterized by the presence of lower lip pits and either cleft lip with/without cleft palate or isolated cleft palate.
Van der Woude syndrome
