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Path + Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

Which syndrome? Clefts + Lip Pits

A

VAN DE WOUDE SYNDROME

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2
Q

What is lingual thryoid?

A

embryonic path of thryoid desecnd,,, but seen on the base of the tongue `

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3
Q

fissured
tongue + granulomatous cheilitis + facial
paralysis

A

Melkersson- Rosenthal Syndrome

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4
Q

What is Sturge - Weber Syndrome

A

angioms of Leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia mater) + skin along the distr of the tri gem Nerve

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5
Q

Doughy consistancy, mass in the floor of the mouth if above mylohyoid, mass in the upper nexk if below the mylohyoid

contains adnexal structures like hair and sebaceous glands

A

dermoid cyst

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6
Q

distinguish oral lymphoepithelal cyst and the branchial cyst

A

branchial cyst is a lymp node of the neck

Oral lymphoepithelial cyst is lymphoid tissue of oral mucosa

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7
Q

what is a globulomaxillary lesiion?

A

radiolucency between the maxillary canine and the lateral incisor

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8
Q

idopathic bone cavity, radioluc scallops roots, no epithelial lining

A

traumatic bone cyst

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9
Q

SMoking associated melanosis

A

smoking stims melanocytes
reverisble if quit smoking

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10
Q

which syndrome has melanotic macules + intestinal polyps

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

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11
Q

Where does Primary herpes occur?

A

Pan-oral,

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12
Q

Where does recurrent Herpes occur?

A

keratinized tissues and the vermillion border of the tongue

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13
Q

How do you treat herpes?

A

Acyclovir

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14
Q

Where does the Varicella Zoster Virus lie dormant?

A

trigeminal ganglion

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15
Q

What is associated with Varicella Zoster Virus?

A

chicken pox and shingles

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16
Q

chicken pox, self-limiting, lay dormant in the TGNG

A

Primary varicella zoster virus

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17
Q

Shingles,

A

recurrent varicella zoster virus

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18
Q

What is ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

herpes zoster reactivation in the geniculate ganglion affecting the cranial nerves 7, 8

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19
Q

How do you treat ramsay hunt?

A

acyclovir

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20
Q

What is coxsackie virus?

A

hand foot mouth disease

seen with herpangina in the posterior oral cavity

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21
Q

What is Koplik’s spots and what is it associated with ??

A

buccal mucosa dot ulcers, which procede the skin rash

MMR

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22
Q

WHat is a Condyloma Acuminatum?

A

genital wart

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23
Q

Which strains of HPV cause Condyloma Acuminatum?

A

HPV 6 adn 11

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24
Q

What is heck’s disease?

A

multiple small dome-shaped warts on the oral mucosa,,

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25
Q

What strain of HPV causes hecks disease?

A

HPV 13 and 32

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26
Q

What causes oral hairy luekoplakia?

A

Epstien barr virus

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27
Q

What is hutchingson’s triad associated with?

A

congential syphillis

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28
Q

What is hutchinson’s triad?

A

notched incisors, mulberry molars, deafness, and ocular keratitis

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29
Q

what causes syphillia?

A

Treponema Pallidum

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30
Q

What is the primary lesion of syphyllis?

A

chancre

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31
Q

What is the 2ndary lesions of syphillis

A

oral mucous patch, condyloma lactum, maculopapular rash

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32
Q

what is the 3rdiiary lesion of syphillis?

A

gumma, cns involvement, CV involvement

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33
Q

What are the three stages of tuberculosis?

A

primary: ghon complex: inhaled bacteria that is a granuloma, and undergoes caseating necrosis + infected hilar lymph node draining the first lesion

2ndary: lung infection with cavitation

MIlary: systmeic spread

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34
Q

What bacterial causes Actinomycosis?

A

Actinomyces Israeli

this has periapical jaw infections and cervicofacial head and neck infections

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35
Q

How do you treat a white coated tongue with red inflamed fungiform papilaw and what is it CALLED????

A

penicillin

strawberry tongue/ scarlet fever

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36
Q

Where would you find an apthous ulcer?

A

on NON-KERATINIZED TISSUEW

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37
Q

What is another name for major aphtous ulcer, and how does it heal?

A

heals via scarring, and it called SUTTONDisease

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38
Q

What syndrome is associated with erythemia Multiforme

A

Steven’s Johnson’s Syndrome

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39
Q

What is wegener’s Granulomatosis?

A

allergic reaction to inhaled antigen

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40
Q

What is associated with sawtooth rete pegs?

A

lichen planus

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41
Q

How do you tx lichen planus?

A

with corticosteroids

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42
Q

How do you treat lupus Erythematosus?

A

through corticosteroids

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43
Q

What is associated with proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia?

A

HPV 16 and 18

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44
Q

What HPV is considered to be most cancerous

A

16 and 18 they can cause verrucous carcinoma

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45
Q

what cancer is associated with HPV 16 and 18

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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46
Q

what has: mucosal atrophy + dysphagia + iron deficiency anemia + increased risk of oral cancer

A

Plummer-vinson Syndrome

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47
Q

What has: multiple neuromas + medullary thyroid cancer
+ pheochromocytoma of the adrenal gland

A

multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN 2B)

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48
Q

What cell type demonstrates neoplasistic tendencies in Nodular Fasciities

A

firboblasts

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49
Q

a granular cell tumor is a neoplasm of what>

A

schwann cells

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50
Q

Where is a granular cell tumor most common?

A

dorsal tongue

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51
Q

what neoplasm of schwann cells has acellular verocay bodies and Antonia A tissue

A

schwannoma (neurilemmonma

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52
Q

multiple
neurofibromas + multiple skin freckles (café au
lait spots) + axillary freckles (Crowe’s sign) +
iris freckles (Lisch spots);

A

Neurofibromatosis Type I/ Von Reckinghausen’s disease

53
Q

What is a leiomyoma

A

beging neoplams of smooth muscle cells

54
Q

What is a rhabdomyoma

A

neoplasm of skeletal muscle cells

55
Q

what is a lipoma

A

neoplasm of fat cells

56
Q

What purple lesion is a malignancy of endothelial cells, caused by HHV8, and is most commonly seen as a complication of AIDS

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

57
Q

What is the most common benign slaviary gland tumor

A

pleomorphic adenoma

it is a mixture of cell types

58
Q

what is Warthin’s tumor?

A

composed of oncocytes (eptih cell with ++++ mitochondira)

usually found in the parotid of older men

59
Q

What is the most common salviary gland malignancy that is composed of mucous and epithelia cells?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

60
Q

What contains the malignant B cells, and is very rare in the oral cavity

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

61
Q

_____ is a neoplasm of B or T cells

A

Non- hidgkins lymphoma

62
Q

What is Burkitt’s Lymphoma

A

a type of b cell NHL with bone marrow involvement, swelling, pain, tooth mobility, lip paresthesia, and halts root development

63
Q

What cell type is commonly see in multiple myeloma?

A

plasma caells,

64
Q

What is the radipgraphic finding of multiple myeloma?

A

punch out radiolucencies

65
Q

what neoplasm of bone marrow cells, has the three clinical signs of bleeding (platelets), fatigue (RBCs) and infection (WBCs)

A

Leukemia

66
Q

List the types of leukemia from most common to least

A

ALL> CML> AML> CLL

67
Q

A radicular cyst are always assoc. with which type of tooth

A

non-viotal tooth

68
Q

What is a histological finding of radicular cyst? q

A

Epithelail rests of malassez

69
Q

What are the names of the two types of rests of dental lamina that are gingival cyst of newborn

A

Bohn’s nodule– lateral palate

Epstien’s pearls midline palate

70
Q

What is multiple KCOTs, multiple BCCs,
calcified falx cerebri, fatal,

A

Gorlin Syndrome

71
Q

What is another name for gorlin syndrome

A

also called nevoid basal cell
carcinoma

72
Q

What radiographically evident tumor has driven snow appearance, liesegang rings

A

Pindborg tumor aka Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor

73
Q

Where is an adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT) most commonly occuring

A

ant max and around impacted canine

74
Q

Cementoblastoma

A

well circumscribed radiopague mass , ball of cementum and cementoblasts replacing tooth root

75
Q

What has multiple odontoma, and intestinal polymps

A

gardner syndromw

76
Q

What has ground glass appearance

A

fibrous dysplasia

77
Q

polyostotic (more
than one bone) fibrous dysplasia + cutaneous
café au lait spots + endocrine abnormalities like
precocious puberty

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome

78
Q

describe the patient with Periapical Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia

A

middle aged black femals with vital mand ant teeth

79
Q

Central giant cell granuloma looks like radiographically???

A

composed of fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells

bone, radiolucency with thin wispy spetations

80
Q

What is a pseudocyst composed of blood filled spaces, it is multilocular, expansile, and most common in the posterior mandible

A

Aneurysmal Bone cyst

81
Q

How would hyperPARATHYROIDISM affect the bone

A

excess parathyroid hormone removed calcium from bone and into the plasma

82
Q

What is the cause of hyperparathyroidism

A

brown tumor due to excessive ostoclast activity

83
Q

Brown tumor presents with what elevated in the blood

A

increased alkaline phosphatace due to breakdown of bone from hyper parathyroidism

84
Q

What does hyperparathyroidism result in?

A

VON reckinhausen’s disease of bone

look up von recklinghausned disease aka neurofibromatosis

85
Q
  • Discrete punched out “ice cream scoop” radiolucencies that lead to floating teeth
A

Langerhans Cell disease

86
Q

Progressive metabolic disturbance of many bones (spine, femur, skull, jaws) causing symmetrical enlargement

  • Usually adults older than 50 * Elevated alkaline phosphatase due to breakdown of bone
  • Cotton wool appearance
  • Dentures (and hats) become too tight
  • Tx: bisphosphonates, calcitonin
A

Paget’s disease

87
Q

Where does infection begin in acute osteomyekutus

A

medullar space in the jaw

88
Q

What is Garre’s Osteomyelitis:

A

chronic osteomyyelitis with proliferative periosteitis

89
Q

Bone sclerosis resulting from low-grade
inflammation like chronic pulpitis

A

condensing osteitis

90
Q

Sarcoma of jaws where new bone is produced by tumor cells

  • Sunburst pattern
A

osteosarcoma

91
Q

Sarcoma of jaws where new cartilage is
produced by tumor cells

A

chondrosarcoma

92
Q

What is Ewings’ sarcoma

A

sarcoma of long bones involving “round cells”

93
Q

What metastatic carcinoma

A

started elsewhere and then moved to the jaws

94
Q

What is the most common sites of metasttic carcinoma

A

move to jaws from Breast> Lung > kidney > colon > prostate

95
Q

white sponge nevus

A

autosomal dominant

96
Q

epidermolysis bullosa

A

auto dom or recess

causes skin and mucosa to be fragile and blister easily

97
Q

red macule or papule, dilated or broken
capillary

A

Telangiectasia

98
Q

cleidocranial dysplasia

A

automsomal dominal

99
Q

ectodermal dysplasia

A

x linked recessive

100
Q

What is osteopetrosis

A

auto dom or recessive

called albers-schonberg disease and marble bone diesase

leads to stone bone because of lack of remodeling

101
Q

What is dentinogensis imperfecta

A

autosomal dom

both sets of teeth affected

short roots, bell shaped crowns and obliterated pulps

BULBOUS crowns in radiographs due to sonstricted DEJ

Blue sclera

102
Q

all teeth from both sets are affected

chevron pulps and short roots

A

Dentin dysplasia

103
Q

facial paralysis, fissured tongue, and granulomatous cheilitis

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome

104
Q

There are 3 “C’s” of the prodrome of measles and include coryza (runny nose), cough, and conjunctivitis. +++ Koplik spots (pinp

A

rubeola (measles) virus.

105
Q

if patient had a previous dx of streptococcal pharygnitis and after bx the pt has pain in joints + rash on the patient trunk

A

rash and joint pain is rhematic fever

106
Q

Methotrexate, even in low doses, can impair kidney function. What lab value needs to be assessed?

A

creatine clearance

107
Q

Factor V Leiden is associated with_________,

A

osteonecrosis

108
Q

what is the genome of HIV

A

two identical single stranded RNA

109
Q

autoimmne is what type of senstivity

A

type III

110
Q

where would you find peptidoglycan?

A

in the bacterial cell well. gives it rigidity

111
Q

what embryonic stucutre gives rise to the pulp?

A

dental papilla

112
Q

“undetectable viral load”. Numerically, this status coincides with fewer than ____copies/mL of blood.

A

less than 50

113
Q

“Viral suppression” describes a viral load that is very low and _______opies/mL of blood.

A

less than 200 c

114
Q

Pierre Robin sequence is most commonly associated with _______, a condition that affects connective tissues, specifically collagen

A

Stickler syndrome

115
Q

Mucosal pallor, delayed eruption of permanent dentition, and swelling of extremitits

A

sickle cell anemia

116
Q

post exposure to hep b what is the longest to wait to begin prophylaxis

A

do it immediately, but canbe done up to 1-3 days to iniaiteq

117
Q

______is a condition that affects the face and eyes on one side of the body. I

A

Horner syndrome

118
Q

What does this descfibe and what casues this : often presents clinically with a sore throat, trouble swallowing, and occasionally a fever. Small red macules that progress to ulcers are often present on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars. The virus is transmitted by a fecal-oral route or by respiratory droplets.

A

Coxsackie causes herpangia

119
Q

is a congenital condition classified by vascular malformations along the distribution of the trigeminal nerve.

A

Sturge- weber angiomatosis

120
Q

What is barrett’s esophagous associated with and what kind of chnages take plase

A

GERd

intestinal metaplasia: the esophagus chnages from strat squam to simple columnar

121
Q

What does CRAB stand for with mutliple myeloma?

A

Calcium elevation
Renal failure
anemia
Bence Jones Protenuria

122
Q

What is hep c

A

single stranded RNA virus

123
Q

The most common bacterial agent involved in subacute bacterial endocarditis from a dental origin is _______.

A

Viridans streptococci

124
Q

What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis over all

A

staph aureus

125
Q

After the resolution of infectious mononucleosis, the virus lays dormant in resting ________

A

memory B-cells.

126
Q

i________s the predominant bacteria in dental plaque.

A

–Streptococcus mutans

127
Q

______ can present with altered function of the facial nerve leading to facial muscle paralysis, loss of taste, dry eyes, xerostomia, and ear pain.

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

128
Q

What is associated with Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

recurrent varicella zoster

129
Q

________is characterized by the presence of lower lip pits and either cleft lip with/without cleft palate or isolated cleft palate.

A

Van der Woude syndrome

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