Misc.

Question 1

Name 3 HIV drugs that target reverse transcriptase.

Answer 1

Zidovudine (AZT)
Didanosine (ddl)
Zalcitabine (ddC)

Question 2

Treponema pallidum:

Is this an intracellular or extracellular parasite?
What shape is it?

Answer 2

Extracellular spirochete

Question 3

Describe how Neisseria gonorrhea would look under the microscope.

Answer 3

diplococcus

Question 4

Trichomonas vaginalis:
Is this an intracellular or extracellular parasite?
What sub-category of the Protista kingdom would this be?

Answer 4

Extracellular

Protozoa

Question 5

Which is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) that involves an intracellular parasite of epithelial cells of the urogenital tract?


Answer 5

Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 6

Diphtheria:
Gram?
Shape?
Mechanism of action?

Answer 6

Gram positive rods (bacilli)
Inhibits 80s ribosome protein synthesis
Can affect heart and nervous system

Question 7

Legionella:
Gram?
Shape?

Answer 7

Gram negative rods (bacilli)

Question 8

Pneumococci:
Gram?
Shape?

Answer 8

Gram positive ovoid

Question 9

Which group of viruses cause warts?

Answer 9

Papovaviruses

Question 10

What is the DPT vaccine for?

Answer 10

D: diphtheria
P: pertussis (whooping cough)
T: tetanus

Question 11

Streptococcus:
Gram?
Defining feature of cell envelope?

Answer 11

Positive

Cell wall associated carbohydrate layer (antigenic - produces antibodies useful for diagnosis)

Question 12

What is the system for identifying different types of streptococci based on the antibody reaction to the cell wall associated carbohydrate layer?

Answer 12

Lancefield system (Rebecca Lancefield)

Question 13

Streptococcus pyogenes:
Common diseases caused by S. pyrogenes?
What type of hemolytic reaction?
What group of strep?

Answer 13

Acute Pharyngitis, Strep Throat, scarlet fever,
Beta hemolytic
Group A strep

Question 14

This HIV drug targets the HIV envelope glycoprotein.

Answer 14

GP 120

Question 15

What type of infection gonorrhea?

Answer 15

Bacterial

Question 16

What type of infection is trichomoniasis?

Answer 16

Protozoan

Question 17

What does the VDRL test test for?

Answer 17

Syphilis

Question 18

What is a typical symptom of primary syphilis?

Secondary syphilis?

Answer 18

Primary: chancre
Secondary: skin rash

Question 19

What disease is the “Dane particle” associated with?

Answer 19

Hepatitis B

Question 20

The cocksackle and ECHO viruses are both what kind of virus?

Answer 20

Enterovirus

Question 21

Which chemotherapeutic agent is helpful in alleviating symptoms of genital herpes?


Answer 21

acyclovir (Zovirax)


Question 22

Which chemical agent is widely used to disinfect drinking water and is used on spills involving bodily fluids?


Answer 22

Halogens (such as chlorine)

Question 23

What is the drug zidovudine used to treat?

How does it work?

Answer 23

HIV

Inhibits reverse transcriptase, thereby inhibiting the synthesis of DNA.

Question 24

Control of Microorganisms
A germicidal lamp, commonly used in hospital rooms and the food preparation industry, is effective against microorganisms because it emits what type of radiation?


Answer 24

Non-ionizing ultraviolet light

Question 25

How are virus particles commonly quantitated in a bacteriophage suspension?


Answer 25

Determining the number of plaques formed.

Question 26

How does interferon work after a cell has been infected by a virus?

Answer 26

Interferon inhibits the replication of the virus.

Question 27

Which is the first product of synthesis during replication of a retrovirus?


Answer 27

ssDNA (single strand)

Question 28

What is the process in which bacteria both generate energy and utilize energy?


Answer 28

amphibolism

Question 29

What would most likely happen to an organism if it were exposed to a chemical or physical agent that causes a base deletion in the DNA?


Answer 29

A frameshift mutation would occur and the gene would no longer code for a functional protein.


Question 30

Which specific type of mutation results from a single base pair substitution within a bacterial reading frame causing the MRNA codon, UAC, to be changed to UAG?

Answer 30

nonsense A nonsense mutation changes a normal codon to a stop codon. UAG stops the synthesis of a protein.


Question 31

What is the difference between an aerotolerant anaerobe and a facultative anaerobe?


Answer 31

A facultative anaerobe uses O2 if it is present and an aerotolerant anaerobe does not.


Question 32

Studies of which subject have been most important in providing relevant information about gene linkage and chromosome mapping?


Answer 32

phage transduction


Question 33

Which molecule contains anticodons?


Answer 33

tRNA

Question 34

In which energy-producing reaction is pyruvate the primary electron acceptor, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) the primary electron donor, and lactate an end product?


Answer 34

fermentation

Question 35

Which is added to a medium to culture bacteria within the Clostridium genus?


Answer 35

thioglycollate Clostridium is an anaerobe and thioglycollate absorbs oxygen from the medium.


Question 36

Which type of hypersensitivity could occur in a patient with agammaglobulinemia?


Answer 36

type IV cell-mediated In the absence of all immunoglobulins, a type IV or T cell-mediated reaction (such as contact dermatitis) can still occur.



Question 37

Which phagocytes would predominate in a local inflammatory response?


Answer 37

Neutrophils Neutrophils are highly phagocytic.


Question 38

What is vertical transmission?

Answer 38

Vertical transmission is transfer of genes from an organism to its offspring.


Question 39

In an AIDS test, which substance is used on the ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) to coat the microtiter wells?


Answer 39

HIV antigens

Question 40

Which are the major antigen-presenting cells in the primary humoral and cell-mediated immune responses?


Answer 40

macrophages

Question 41

Which structures contain the nitrogenase produced by the symbiotic relationship between Rhizobium and legumes?


Answer 41

bacterioids

Question 42

Which organism is a free-living bacterium that fixes nitrogen?


Answer 42

Azotobacter

Question 43

Which microbial pathogen causes the majority of foodborne infections in the US?


Answer 43

Campylobacter pylori


Question 44

What is the role of plasmids in genetic engineering?


Answer 44

R factor plasmids are used in cloning to ensure that all cut pieces of DNA will have the same sticky ends.


Question 45

Specimens must be sectioned into extremely thin slices and coated with metals for which type of microscopy?


Answer 45

Transmission electron