Misc EM Topics Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

Define TIA

A

Transient episode of neuro dysfunction WITHOUT evidence of infarct (return to baseline in less than 24 hrs)

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2
Q

Define stroke

A

Neuro dysfunction 2/2 cerebral infarct (as evidenced by neuroimaging or signs of permanent injury)

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3
Q

Define penumbra stroke

A

Ischemic but not infarcted tissue (potentially viable if circulation restored promptly)

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4
Q

Etiology of ischemic stroke

A

Cerebral artery blockage

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5
Q

Types of ischemic stroke

A
  • Thrombotic (clot forms in brain)

- Embolic (clot forms away from brain and swept through to brain)

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6
Q

Etiology of hemorrhagic stroke

A

Arterial leakage or rupture 2/2 HTN, AVM, anticoagulants, aneurysm

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7
Q

Types of hemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Intracerebral hemorrhage (vessel within the brain)

- Subarachnoid hemorrhage (vessel on brain surface)

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8
Q

How should onset of stroke be described if unable to determine specifically?

A

“Last known well”

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9
Q

Diagnostics of stroke

A
  • NIH stroke scale calculation

- HINTS testing (Head Impulse, Nystagmus, Test of Skew)

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10
Q

What is HINTS testing?

A

To determine if vertigo is peripheral or central (cerebellar)

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11
Q

Which patients will present with abnormal (positive) head impulse testing?

A

Peripheral vertigo

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12
Q

Which patients will present with unidirectional, horizontal nystagmus?

A

Peripheral vertigo

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13
Q

Which patients may reveal skew deviation with alternate eye cover testing?

A

Central vertigo

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14
Q

How will peripheral vertigo patients perform on HINTS testing?

A
  • Head impulse: abnormal (positive)
  • Nystagmus: unidirectional, horizontal
  • Skew: absent
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15
Q

How will central vertigo patients perform on HINTS testing?

A
  • Head impulse: normal (negative)
  • Nystagmus: rotatory, vertical, or direction changing horizontal
  • Skew: deviation with alternate eye cover testing
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16
Q

Most ischemic strokes will be evident on head CT within:

A

6 hours

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17
Q

When is head/neck CTA obtained in stroke evaluation?

A

If onset was less than 3 hours ago

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18
Q

When is MRI ordered for stroke evaluation?

A

Confirming diagnosis in TIAs OR if not giving tPA

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19
Q

Treatment of stroke

A
  • If less than 3 hrs onset, give tPA unless contraindicated
  • Intra-arterial fibrinolysis
  • Mechanical thrombectomy
  • Aspirin if out of tPA window
  • BP reduction (labetalol, nicardipine)
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20
Q

BP reduction in stroke treatment

A
  • Ischemic: reduce BP if SBP is over 185

- Hemorrhagic: reduce BP if SBP is over 140

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21
Q

How to treat hemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • Reverse anticoagulants
  • Hematoma evacuation
  • Aneurysm clipping or embolization
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22
Q

What is EMTALA?

A
  • Protects medically indigent pt from being refused care

- Mandates a minimum of “medical screening exam” and treatment if emergent

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23
Q

Why are pediatric patients more susceptible to CT radiation than adults?

A

Children’s cells proliferate more rapidly

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24
Q

Define priapism

A

Pathologic erection involving corpora cavernosa but NOT glans or corpus spongiosum

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25
Treatment of priapism
- Urology consult but don't wait to treat - Terbutaline SC deltoid, repeat in 30 min prn - Pseudoephedrine - Corporal aspiration of blood then injection of phenylephrine (local pressure then compression dressing)
26
Define phimosis
- Inability to retract foreskin (rarely emergent) - Generally from poor hygiene leading to infection or scarring - Treat w/topical steroids, dilation or circumcision
27
Define paraphimosis
- Inability to reduce retracted foreskin back over glans - Venous engorgement can lead to gangrene - Emergency reduction necessary! Manual compression or wrapping distal penis w/phlebotomy tourniquet
28
Define Fournier gangrene
- Polymicrobial necrotizing fasciitis of perineal, perianal or genital areas - Infection tracks along fascial planes and may spare deep muscular structures or even overlying skin
29
Pathophys of Fournier gangrene
- Microorganisms produce enzymes which cause coagulation of local nutrient vessels - Allows for proliferation of anaerobes which release enzymes responsible for degradation of fascial barriers
30
Risk factors for Fournier gangrene
- DM - PVD - Immunocompromise - Obesity - Alcoholism
31
Treatment of Fournier gangrene
- Management of shock if present - Emergent surgical consult - Abx (cipro and clindamycin)
32
Methods of ring removal
- Ring cutter: can be painful, ring must be bent open - String technique: painful, may be difficult to pass string under ring - Tourniquet
33
Describe tourniquet method of ring removal
- Elevate above heart - Apply tightly distal to proximal - Quickly remove after a few min and apply lubrication - Retract skin proximally with one hand while pulling ring distally
34
Options for fish hook removal
- Push through (push it) - String technique (yank it) - Needle over barb (cover it)
35
Treatment of plantar puncture wound
- Core out, irrigate, pack x 24 hrs - Ensure tetanus is UTD - Consider abx proph (but limited evidence)
36
Plantar puncture wound infections
- Within first 72 hrs is MC staph/strep (use Keflex) | - After 72 hrs is MC pseudomonas (use Cipro)
37
Treatment of AV fistula bleeding
- Apply direct, localized pressure - BP cuff above and below fistula may help - Very superficial suture followed by pressure bandage (temporary measure, best to consult vascular surgery first) - Address BP, correct any coagulopathies
38
Treatment of fistula aneurysm
Emergent vascular consult to avoid rupture
39
Describe Ottawa knee rules
If 1 or more, x-ray indicated: - Patella tenderness - Fibula head tenderness - Inability to flex 90 degrees - Inability to bear weight - Age over 55
40
Describe Ottawa ankle/foot rules
If 1 or more, x-ray indicated: - Malleolar, navicular OR base 5th MT pain on palpation - Inability to bear weight
41
Describe Salter-Harris
Classification of pediatric fractures 1: through growth plate 2: through growth plate and metaphysis 3: through growth plate and epiphysis 4: through all 3 elements 5: crush injury of growth plate
42
Prescription writing guidelines
- Use leading zeros (0.1 mg) but not ending zeros (1.0 mg) - Use correct formulations - Adjust for renal or hepatic dysfunction - Verify correct drug when using EMR
43
Every prescription requires:
- Name and DOB - Drug name, dosage, frequency - Duration, quantity, refills - How to administer
44
Every order requires:
- Date and time - Initials or ID stamp - Drug name - Dosage - Route - Frequency (if more than 1 dose)
45
Examples of bio-equivalent IV and oral meds?
- Fluoroquinolones - Azithro, clarithromycin - Bactrim - Metronidazole - Cephalosporins
46
Amoxicillin and Augmentin uses
- OM - Sinusitis - Pneumonia - Tonsillitis (Pen Vee K 1st line) - UTI
47
Adult dosing of amoxicillin
500 mg PO TID OR 875 mg PO BID
48
Peds dosing of amoxicillin/augmentin
45 mg/kg/day PO (divide into 2-3 doses) | 90 mg/kg/day PO (divide into 2-3 doses) for otitis media
49
Duration of amoxicillin use
7-10 days | 5-7 days for high dose otitis media
50
Uses of cephalexin (keflex)
- Skin infections - OM - Tonsillitis - UTI - Bronchitis
51
Adult dosing of cephalexin (keflex)
250-500 mg PO QID
52
Duration of cephalexin (keflex)
7-10 days
53
Describe PCN allergy cross-reactivity rate
Approximately 1% | Lower for 3rd-4th generation cephalosporins
54
Uses of ceftriaxone (rocephin)
- PNA - Cellulitis - Meningitis - Pyelonephritis - Chlamydia
55
Adult dosing of ceftriaxone
1 gm QD (IM or IV)
56
Duration of ceftriaxone
Generally transitioned to PO alternative after few days; single dose for chlamydia
57
Bactrim uses
- UTI/pyelonephritis - PCP PNA - Bronchitis - MRSA skin
58
Adult dosing of Bactrim
- 1 DS (double strength) BID | - PCP rx is weight based
59
Duration of Bactrim
7-10 days | 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
60
Bactrim drug interations
Known to inhibit warfarin clearance (results in high INR)
61
Uses of Ciprofloxacin
- UTI/pyelonephritis - Diverticulitis - Infectious diarrhea
62
Adult dosing of Ciprofloxacin
250-500 mg BID OR 400 mg IV q12h
63
Duration of Cipro
- 3 days for UTI - 5-7 days for diarrhea - 10-14 days for diverticulitis
64
Cipro drug interactions
Known to inhibit warfarin clearance
65
Azithromycin uses
- Bronchitis/PNA - Sinusitis - Tonsillitis - Chancroid/chlamydia
66
Adult dosing of Azithromycin
- "Z pack" (500 mg day 1, then 250 QD x 4d) for respiratory - 1 gm PO single dose for chancroid/chlamydia - IV usually 500 mg QD x 2d then PO transition
67
Doxycycline uses
- Lyme/Anaplasmosis/RMSF - PNA/bronchitis - Cellulitis including MRSA
68
Adult dosing of Doxy
100 mg PO BID
69
Duration of Doxy
- 7-10 days | - 21 days for Lyme/tick
70
Side effect of Doxy?
Photosensitivity
71
Uses of acetaminophen (tylenol)
Pain, fever
72
Adult dosing of acetaminophen (tylenol)
325-1000 mg q4-6h prn (325 or 500 mg tablets)
73
Peds dosing of acetaminophen (tylenol)
15 mg/kg q4h | 160 mg/5 mL elixir, 120 mg or 325 mg suppository
74
Uses of ibuprofen (motrin/advil)
Pain, fever
75
Adult dosing of ibuprofen (motrin/advil)
400-800 mg q6-8h prn (200 mg tablets)
76
Peds dosing of ibuprofen (motrin/advil)
10 mg/kg q6h prn | 100 mg/5mL elixir
77
Adult dosing of hydrocodone/tylenol (Vicodin)
1-2 tab q4h prn | 5, 7.5, or 10 mg/300 mg; Norco Tylenol is 325 mg
78
Adult dosing of oxycodone/tylenol (Percocet)
1-2 tab q4h prn | 5, 7.5, or 10 mg/325 mg
79
Adult dosing of morphine sulfate
2-6 mg IV/IM/SQ q 15mins - 4hrs | shorter intervals for IV routes
80
Adult dosing of hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
0.5 - 2 mg IV/IM/SQ q 30 mins - 4 hrs
81
Adult dosing of Fentanyl
25-100 mcg IV/IM q 30-60 mins
82
Describe Fentanyl
Shorter duration than morphine/dilaudid Less hypotension Consider Duragesic patch for home pain management
83
Adult dosing of Ketorolac (Toradol)
30 mg IV or 60 mg IM q6h prn
84
Describe Ketorolac
- NSAID side effects/contraindications | - Good for renal/gallbladder pains
85
Describe Tramadol (Ultram)
Non-narcotic, non-NSAID pain med
86
What is a non-narcotic and non-NSAID pain med?
Tramadol (Ultram)
87
What is Ultracet?
Tramadol with 325 mg Tylenol
88
Adult dosing of Tramadol
25-100 mg PO q6h prn
89
What does "mindful medicine" utilize?
Thorough DDX and bias elimination
90
Types of bias
- Availability - Anchoring - Framing - Confirmation - Premature closure
91
Define availability bias
- Favors the common diagnosis w/o proving its validity | - Providers tend to be influenced by recent events or info
92
Define anchoring bias
- Prior diagnosis/opinion is favored and misleads provider from correct current diagnosis - Provider relies on established diagnosis/opinion which impacts subsequent judgments
93
Define framing bias
- Failure to recognize that the data available does not fit diagnostic presumptions - Provider connects data in a manner that suggests a diagnosis but all relevant data has not been gathered
94
Define confirmation bias
- Info is selectively interpreted to confirm a belief - Provider has a preferential diagnosis and a finding, or lack of specific finding, during the hx/PE/workup used to support that diagnosis
95
Define premature closure bias
- Rushed diagnostic conclusion | - Provider jumps to a conclusion but fails to see additional relevant info