Miscellaneous

Question 1

Under The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001, what schedule does testosterone for HSDD in women come under?

Answer 1

Schedule 4

Question 2

What does Section 136 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 2

A police officer to remove a person who appears to be suffering from a mental disorder from a public place to a place of safety for assessment if they believe the person is in immediate need of care or control.

Question 3

What does Section 2 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 3

Admission for assessment - up to 28 days, cannot be renewed
Made by 2 doctors and an AMHP

Question 4

What does Section 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 4

Admission for treatment - up to 6 months, can be renewed
Made by 2 doctors and an AMHP

Question 5

What does Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 5

Doctor holding power - voluntary admission for 72 hours

Question 6

What does Section 4 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 6

An emergency order
Lasts up to 72 hours Implemented by just one doctor and an AMHP, in an emergency in which there is not time to summon a second suitable doctor in order to implement a Section 2/3

Question 7

What does Section 135 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 7

An AMHP can apply to court (magistrates) or a warrant if a patient refuses to let them in to their home
A warrant lets the police enter the patients home to take them somewhere safe

Question 8

What does Section 131 of the Mental Health Act 1983 allow?

Answer 8

Allows for patients to be voluntarily admitted as an inpatient, and voluntarily remain after other sections cease to apply

Question 9

What is the difference between PROFESSIONAL duty of candour and STATUATORY duty of candour?

Answer 9

Professional duty of candour - set out by the Health and Social Care Act 2008 - must be open and honest with patients and people in their care when something that goes wrong with their treatment or care causes, or has the potential to cause, harm or distress

Statutory duty of candour, also set out by teh Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 - specific actions providers must take when ‘notifiable safety incident’ occurs e.g. injury to baby requiring admission, 3rd/4th degree tear, delay in diagnosing ectopic because of mis-interpretation of bHCG, incorrect reporting of an early pregnancy US. If this doesn’t take place the CQC can prosecute for a breach of parts 20(2)a and 20(3) of This regulation

Question 10

Chlorine-releasing solution (10,000 ppm available chlorine) should be used to clean what?

Answer 10

Blood

Question 11

Chlorine-releasing solution (1,000 ppm available chlorine)
should be used to clean what?

Answer 11

Bodily fluids on hard surfaces, e.g. urine (ensure dry first to prevent chlorine gas), vomit, small volumes of blood-stained fluid

Question 12

What should a spill kit with absorbent granules and PPE be used for?

Answer 12

Large pool of bodily fluid e.g. vomit and urine

• Should be followed by disinfection with chlorine-releasing solution (1,000 ppm available chlorine)

Question 13

What colour is the offensive waste bag?
What can go in it?

Answer 13

Yellow with black stripes - non-infectious offensive waste e.g. nappies

Question 14

What are the two different types of infectious waste bag?

Answer 14

Orange - infectious waste only

Yellow - infectious waste contaminated with mediciane/chemicals- e.g. IV bags, swabs with meds on etc.

Question 15

Who does the Mental Capacity Act 2005 (MCA) apply to?

Answer 15

Individuals in England and Wales aged 16 and over

Question 16

What is Level 4 evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 16

Expert opinions

Question 17

What is Level 3 evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 17

Non-analytical studies - e.g. case series

Question 18

What is Level 2- evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 18

Case control or cohort studies with a high risk of confounding

Question 19

What is Level 2+ evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 19

Well-conducted case control or cohort studies with a low risk of confounding

Question 20

What is Level 2++ evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 20

High quality systematic reviewed of case control or cohort studies or high quality case control or cohort studies with a very low risk of confounding

Question 21

What is Level 1- evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 21

Systematic reviews or meta-analysis of RCTs, or RCTs with a high risk of bias

Question 22

What is Level 1+ evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 22

Well-conducted systematic reviews or meta-analysis of RCTs, or RCTs with a low risk of bias

Question 23

What is Level 1++ evidence in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 23

High quality systematic reviews or meta-analysis of RCTs, or RCTs with a very low risk of bias

Question 24

What are the ‘Good Practice Points’ in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 24

Based on clinical experience of the guidelines development group

Question 25

What is a Grade D recommendation in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 25

Evidence Level 3 or 4, or extrapolated from Level 2+ studies

Question 26

What is a Grade C recommendation in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 26

Body of evidence graded at 2+, or extrapolated from 2++ studies

Question 27

What is a Grade B recommendation in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 27

Body of evidence graded at 2++, or extrapolated from 1++ or 1+ studies

Question 28

What is a Grade A recommendation in the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 28

At least 1 SR/MA or RCT graded at 1++ or A SR or RCTs, or a body of evidence graded at 1+

Question 29

What is Miller's pyramid of clinical competence?

Answer 29

Does - top Shows Knows how Knows - bottom

Question 30

What is Bloom's Taxonomy?

Answer 30

Create - top Evaluate Analyse Apply Understand Remember - bottom

Question 31

What is the SBI model for feedback?

Answer 31

Situation - "When I listened to your presentation..." Behaviour"...you spoke clearly and asked others' opinions..." Impact "...this demonstrated you willingness to consider the views of others..."

Question 32

What is a script concordance test?

Answer 32

A Script Concordance Test (SCT) is a method used in health professions education to evaluate clinical reasoning. It assesses how well learners organize and use their knowledge to make clinical decisions in uncertain situations I.e. the SJT is a SCT

Question 33

The guideline development group has how many lay members?

Answer 33

2

Question 34

What method is used to develop the FSRH guidelines?

Answer 34

GRADE

Question 35

How often are the FSRH guidelines updated?

Answer 35

5-yearly

Question 36

What are the 4 values of CQC assessment?

Answer 36

1. Excellence 2. Caring 3. Integrity 4. Team-working

Question 37

What are the 6 domains of healthcare quality?

Answer 37

1. Safe 2. Effective 3. Patient-centered 4. Timely 5. Efficient 6. Equitable