Missed Questions From Study Guides Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:

A

External rotation of the feet

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2
Q

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?

A

Heart rate response

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3
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?

A

Your client fails at 3-5 reps

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4
Q

A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?

A

Circuit system

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?

A

The goal should be consistent with the clients own goals and ambitions

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6
Q

Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?

A

Medical physician

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7
Q

Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?

A

20 seconds

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8
Q

Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?

A

External rotation

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9
Q

Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?

A

Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.

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10
Q

A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?

A

Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

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11
Q

Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?

A

Loss of water

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12
Q

Which of the following statements indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal?

A

I want to run a 5k in 45 days.”

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?

A

Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

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14
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client’s feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?

A

Standing calf

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15
Q

A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders?

A

Metabolic syndrome

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16
Q

Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?

A

150 minutes

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17
Q

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?

A

Synergistic dominance

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18
Q

Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?

A

Transverse abdominis

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19
Q

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?

A

Seeking a client’s perspective.

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?

A

12:13

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21
Q

1) According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70% of the 1RM

A

12-20

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22
Q

Connectivetissue,suchastendonsandligaments,donotrepaireasilybecause?

A

They’re avascular

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23
Q

Exercise Imagery is a process created to?

A

produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation?

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24
Q

Decreasing resting heart rate is a Beneficial adaptation to

A

Cardiorespiratory exercise

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25
Length tension relationship is
The length at which a muscle can produce greatest force
26
The reverse crunch is considered what type of core exercise?
Core strength
27
A Single-leg Squat Touchdown is what type of balance exercise?
Balance strength
28
PhysicalActivityGuidelinesrecommendsadultsshouldaccumulate150minutesofmoderate-intensityaerobic activity every week or
75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week
29
A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores?
50 percent
30
Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following?
Myofibril
31
Which of the following is a strategy within a fitness professionals’ scope of practice that focuses on the ability to recognize and regulate one’s behavior?
Intervention
32
which muscles work as a force couple to upwardly rotate the scapulae during military press?
Upper Trap, Serratus Anterior, Lower Trap
33
A turn-key product is one that is
Ready for immediate use
34
progression of the multiplanar jump with stabilization in the frontal plane?
transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing
35
What is the following effect of an ankle sprain?
decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
36
Problem focused coping vs emotion focused coping
problem-focused coping means we try to do things to address the problem. Emotion-focused coping, in contrast, consists of efforts to change or reduce the negative emotions associated with stress
37
master” gland of the endocrine system because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands
Pituitary gland
38
How many ounces of water should your male clients be consuming per day?
125
39
Dyspnea is
Shortness of breath
40
Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?
Pituitary gland
41
What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
A decrease in glycogen stores
42
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin
Calcium
43
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Bicycling
44
Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client's predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?
Heart rate reserve
45
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
Hydrostatic weighing
46
Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint for the overhead squat assessment, when assessing from the lateral view?
Shoulder complex
47
Acute variables determine which of the following?
The amount of stress placed on the body
48
Where do you put roller during SMR for Lats
Under arm
49
What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?
Instrumental support
50
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?
Emotion
51
Gas what is the Gastrocnemius responsible for
Plantarflexion
52
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?
Contralateral
53
What refers to a position on the same side of the body?
Ipsilateral
54
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?
Scalenes
55
During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive?
Medial gastrocnemius
56
During an overhead squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client’s underactive musculature?
Tube walking : side to side
57
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?
Plyometric-stabilization training
58
When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?
5 minutes
59
Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?
30 minutes
60
Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?
Strength level client
61
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
The groin region inside the upper thigh
62
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
Single leg Romanian deadlift
63
James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?
Pushing off the front foot through the heel
64
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
65
What are influences that involves cohesion in an exercise setting?
Exercise group
66
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
Association and Dissociation
67
A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
Contemplation
68
According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
69
What are "profit centers" in a commercial fitness facility?
Personal training services
70
A client tells the personal trainer that she wants to increase lean body mass. Which of the following nutritional strategies should the trainer recommend?
Spread protein intake throughout the day.
71
Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following?
Calcification of arteries
72
How many calories does one gram of carbohydrate yield?
4
73
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?
Internal obliques
74
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Static stretching
75
Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Balance strength
76
For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed?
To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
77
When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate
Single set
78
For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate?
Ball squat
79
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
80
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided?
Treadmill
81
Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?
Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.
82
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
Vibration training
83
If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?
Foam roll calves
84
Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?
Plyometric-power training
85
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client's thoughts and attitudes?
Cognitive strategies
86
What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence?
. Performance accomplishments
87
Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program?
Registered dietician
88
Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle?
It is a voluntary muscle
89
What is a basic nutritional recommendation for clients who want to gain lean body mass?
Eat 4-6 meals a day
90
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
91
What are the two types of fitness goals?
Process and product