missed stuff round 2

Question 1

where in the skin does vitamin D synthesis occur

Answer 1

stratum basale

Question 2

which mechanoreceptor is prone to damage due to second degree burns

Answer 2

meissner’s corpuscles

Question 3

which prostaglandin induces fever

Answer 3

PGE2

Question 4

which drug blocks transcription of COX-2

Answer 4

sodium salicylate

Question 5

which gout drug treats acute gout and prevents microtubule polymerization

Answer 5

colchicine

Question 6

stevens-johnson syndrome is associated with…

Answer 6

allopurinol

Question 7

between allopurinol and febuxostat, which has higher mortality

Answer 7

febuxostat

Question 8

DNA damage increases which tumor suppressing pathway

Answer 8

p53 > p21; this can occur at G1>S to S>G2!!

Question 9

label each part of the graph

Answer 9

2n: G1
2n-4n: S
4n: G2/M

Question 10

what is the normal function of BRCA1/2

Answer 10

they’re part of the recombinatorial repair machinery for DNA strand breaks

Question 10

MAP kinase increases cyclin __

Answer 10

D

Question 11

what do proteins E6 and E7 do in HPV

Answer 11

E6: recruits ubiquitin ligase to tag p53 for degradation

E7: promotes degradation of Rb

Question 12

Based on family history, the parents of a 8-year-old female patient are concerned that their daughter is genetically predisposed to developing cancer even though she has been healthy her entire life. DNA sequence analysis confirms that the daughter has a germline mutation in one copy of a tumor suppressor gene. Why is this patient more likely to develop cancer at an early age?

Answer 12

according to the two-hit hypothesis, she is more likely because a somatic mutation in the normal copy of the gene can initiate an oncogenic transformation due to the pre-existing mutated copy.

Question 13

where in the cell cycle would we see MLH1

Answer 13

S phase! it is involved in mismatch repair

Question 14

which two things does ATM phosphorylate in response to double strand breaks?

Answer 14

p53 and CHK2

Question 15

___ phosphorylates CHK1, while ___ phosphorylates CHK2

Answer 15

ATR; ATM

Question 16

CHK1 primarily acts on __, while CHK2 acts on ___

Answer 16

G2/M; G1/S or G2/M

Question 17

Mature atherosclerotic plaque is distinguished from a fatty streak by inclusion of which of the following features

Answer 17

a necrotic core

Question 18

A 61-year-old woman with a history of overactive bladder is prescribed oxybutynin for symptom management. Which of the following adverse effects would this patient most likely experience

a) hypokalemia
b) bradycardia
c) constipation
d) hypertension

Answer 18

constipation; it is a muscarinic antagonist

Question 19

what medication can cause acute liver failure

Answer 19

acetaminophen

Question 20

what can lead to reduced fungal recovery of dermatophytes

Answer 20

fine maceration

Question 21

what fungi is most likely to cause fungemia in immunocompromised patients

Answer 21

candida

Question 22

what are common symptoms of toxic shock

Answer 22

cold and damp skin, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, low BP

Question 23

what is mecA

Answer 23

it encodes an altered PBP that confers resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics

Question 24

what is bla

Answer 24

encodes for beta lactamase

Question 25

In the picture below, a CD8+ effector T-cell (CTL) is killing a much larger virus infected cell above it. Which of the following must have been displayed on the virus-infected cell's surface in order for this to occur?

Answer 25

MHC displaying viral peptide

Question 26

what is PVL

Answer 26

a virulence factor of staph aureus that attract neutrophils just to murder them. it is associated with MRSA

Question 27

A baby is born with a genetic mutation that prevents signal transduction by the B-cell receptor. T-cell receptor signaling is not affected. What will the immune phenotype be?

Answer 27

few or no mature naive B cells, no effector B cells

Question 28

what do IgG and IgM tell you about an infection?

Answer 28

IgM indicates a recent or current infection, while IgG indicates prior infection. someone with only IgM is probably having the infection for the first time, someone with only IgG has been infected before but is not currently infected, and someone with both has been infected previously and has the infection again.

Question 29

which B cell processes rely on AID

Answer 29

somatic hypermutation and class switching

Question 30

A 59-year-old woman with lung cancer receives adoptive CD8+T-cell therapy to fight her tumor. The T-cells kill her tumor cells in vitro, and tracers show they enter the tumor in high numbers, but their effector mechanisms are inhibited in vivo. What molecule could the tumor be expressing that is inhibiting the CTL-response

Answer 30

PDL-1; highly associated with tumors!

Question 31

which NSAID is associated with stevens-johnson syndrome?

Answer 31

allopurinol

Question 32

what are the main treatments for chronic gout

Answer 32

allopurinol and fexubostat

Question 33

what two things do quorum factors do

Answer 33

increase biofilm production and virulence genes

Question 34

how do quorum factors get across bacterial membranes?

Answer 34

they diffuse freely! no active transport needed

Question 35

What benefit do hemolytic exotoxins provide to pathogenic bacteria that utilize them?

Answer 35

they'll increase the availability of iron by lysing the RBC

Question 36

you see an increase in DBP. what is the receptor action

Answer 36

stimulating alpha-1

Question 37

you see a decrease in SBP. what is the receptor action?

Answer 37

blocking beta-1

Question 38

you see a decrease in DBP. what is the receptor action

Answer 38

blocking alpha-1

Question 39

you see an increase in SBP. what is the receptor action?

Answer 39

stimulating beta-1

Question 40

which receptors can lower MAP

Answer 40

b2 and a2

Question 41

which receptors can increase MAP

Answer 41

b1 and a1

Question 42

which anti-histamine is super anticholinergic and contraindicated in glaucoma

Answer 42

diphenhydramine

Question 43

what does meloxicam treat

Answer 43

chronic arthritis pain

Question 44

24-48 hours after infection onset, which cells are predominant?

Answer 44

neutrophils

Question 45

when do we see macrophages in inflammation?

Answer 45

day 4-7

Question 46

An obese patient reports they are not prepared to take action at present to make necessary dietary changes but says they will in the next 2 months. Which of the following stages of change is the patient currently in

Answer 46

contemplation

Question 47

at what point in a medical interview do we ask about associated symptoms?

Answer 47

in the ROS

Question 48

if you haven't already, what do you do at the start of the physical exam

Answer 48

vitals

Question 49

where is HEV found?

Answer 49

paracortex of the lymph node

Question 50

epithelial reticular cells are involved in what process

Answer 50

positive selection and negative selection

Question 51

where are hassalls corpuscles found

Answer 51

the medulla of the thymus

Question 52

what is thrombocytopenia

Answer 52

platelet deficiency

Question 53

what is vWF

Answer 53

produced by endothelial cells to help platelets adhere