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Flashcards in Mixed path cards Deck (118):
1

What feature is similar about Warthin's tumor, pleomorphic adenoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

all commonly localize to the parotid gland

2

papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum and adenolymphoma other names for what? Why is it helpful to remember this?

Warthin's tumor - useful because cystic glandular benign tumor (cystadenoma) with lymph node-like stroma consisting of abundant lymphocytes and germinal centers (lymphomatosum ). Cystic spaces are surrounded by two uniform rows of cells with centrally placed pyknotic nuclei papillary - b/c epithelium surrounding cystic spaces exhibits "papillary infolding" adenolymphoma - useful to remember because neoplasm of glandular tissue (adenoma) with lymph-node like structures (lymphoma) *only type of salivary gland tumor more common in men than women, 15% of cases are bilateral

3

Rough whitish patch on the lateral tongue, usually arising in immunocompromised Pts, cannot be scraped off. What is it? What causes it? Is it cancerous?

Hairy leukoplakia Caused by EBV which induces squamous cell hyperplasia (not dysplasia!) not pre-malignant

4

Painful superficial ulceration of the oral mucosa that is characterized a greyish base surrounded by erythema What condition is this? What causes it?

Aphthous ulceration arises in relation to stress, spontaneously resolves

5

vesicles in the oral mucosa that rupture and result in shallow painful red ulcers. Usually seen in children. What is this? What causes it?

Primary HSV-1 infection Lesions heal but virus remains dormant in trigeminal nerve ganglion

6

Vesicles that rupture and result in shallow painful red ulcers - often occurring on the lips. What is it what causes it?

Reactivation of HSV-1 inefection that caused by stress or exposure to sunlight

7

How can you differentiate aphthous ulcers from primary HSV-1 infections?

primary HSV-1 doesn't have grey base of lesion and usually occurs in childhoord. HSV-1 reactivations don't have grey base and also occur on the lips

8

syndrome marked by recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers and uveitis What is it? What causes symptoms?

Bechet syndrome small vessel immune-complex vasculitis

9

easily scraped away white deposit on tongue seen in immunocompromised states

Oral candidiasis aka thrush

10

reddish plaque on tongue that cannot be scraped away . What is this? What is it a strong indicator of? Is it cancerous, pre-cancerous or benign?

Erythroplakia squamous cell dysplasia of the oral mucosa per-cancerous ==> can lead to squamous cell carcinoma Alcohol and tobacco are biggest risk factors

11

Protrusion of edematous, inflammed mucosa that usually arises secondary to repeated bouts of rhinitis but also occurs in cystic fibrosis and aspirin-intolerant asthma.

Nasal polyp

12

Protrusion of edematous, inflammed mucosa in a child should be checked for what? In adults?

cystic fibrosis Aspirin intolerant asthma

13

What is the most common cause of a malignant turmor of the nasopharyngeal epithelium? Who is most susceptible?

Nasopharyngeal carcinom - caused by EBV infection African CHILDREN or Chinese ADULTS

14

Pt. 16 YO male presents with recurrent epistaxis - what could be the cause?

Nasopharyngeal angioblastoma benign but locally aggressive vascular tumor that grows in the back of the nasal cavity (consists of large blood vessels and fibrous CT). Most commonly affects adolescent males. Usually presents with one-sided nasal obstruction and recurrent bleeding.

15

45 YO chinese pt. presents with swollen cervical lymph node, blood in saliva, bloody discharge from the nose, nasal congestion, hearing loss, frequent ear infections, headaches. What is a likely diagnosis? What might have caused this?

nasopharyngeal carcinoma secondary to EBV infection

16

biopsy of a nasopharyngeal carcinoma would likely show what two histological features?

pleomorphic keratin-positive (poorly differentiated) epithelial cells Background of lymphocytes

17

Most common cause of acute epiglottitis?

H influenza type B (especially among non-immunized)

18

inflamation of the epiglottis that results in high fever, sore throat, drooping with dysphagia, muffled voice, inspiratory stridow, and risk of airway obstruction

acute epiglottitis

19

What is croup? What is the most common cause?

inflammation of the upper airway (aka laryngotracheaobronchitis) parainfluenza virus

20

Pt. is a singer who presents with hoarseness that resolves with resting of voice - what might they have?

vocal cord nodule - nodules on true vocal cords that develop from overuse, usually bilaterally, composed of degenerative(mixoid) CT. not a laryngeal papilloma (also has hoarseness) because resolves with non-use

21

what causes benign tumors on the vocal cords that present with hoarseness and does not get better with resting voice?

HPV 6 or 11 laryngeal papilloma

22

T/F layngeal papillomas are usually multiple in children and single in adults

true

23

T/F laryngeal papillomas are typically associated with epithelial dysplasia

False - not typically, only rarely pre-cancerous! But does occur - HPV 6 , 11 "Low risk" for cancer -- though can lead to laryngeal carcinoma in rare cases

24

Most common causes of epithelial dysplasia on true vocal cords that transisions to squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx (laryngeal carcinoma)?

Alcohol and tobacco

25

benign mobile painless and circumscribed mass in the parotid gland with high recurrence rate after surgical excision

pleomorphic adenoma

26

in rare cases pleomorphic adenomas can become malignant resulting in parotid adenocarcinoma. What clinical symptom would be indicative of possible malignancy and why?

diffuse unilateral upper and lower facial pain -- facial nerve runs through parotid gland

27

Pt presents with bilaterally inflammed parotid glands, testicular pain, feeling of bloating after eating with diffuse left upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back, painful headache, fever, sensitivity to light, nausea and vomiting. Labs show high serum amylase. What do they have? What is the greatest risk of complications in teenagers?

Mumps virus infection with orchitis, pancreatitis and aseptic meningitis sterility

28

How are neural tube defects usually detected during pregnancy?

elevated AFP levels in amniotic fluid or maternal blood

29

Congenital failure of cerebellar vermis to develop resulting in massively dilated 4th ventricle very diminished or absent cerebellum; often accompanied by hydrocephalus.

Dandy-Walker malformation

30

Congenital downward displacement of cerebellar vermis and tonsils through the foramen magnum that can obstruct CSF flow and cause hydrocephalus - very commonly associated with meningomyelocele

Arnold-Chiari malformation Type II meningomyelocele is protrusion of meninges and spinal cord in spinal bifida

31

cystic degeneration of the spinal cord caused by the presence of a fluid filled cavity that usually occurs between C8-T1 and results in sensory loss of pain and temperature with sparing of fine touch and position sense in the upper exremities that follows a "cape-like" distribution. As fluid cavity expands, progresses to involve muscle atrophy and weakness with decreased muscle tone and impaired reflexes, ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis

Syringomyelia

32

T/F polio virus damages the anterior horn of the spinal cord producing lower motor neuron lesion symptoms

true - syndrome called poliomyelitis flaccid paralysis, muscle atrophy, fasciculations, weakness, decreased muscle tone, impaired reflexes, negative babinski sign

33

What are symptoms of a lower motor neuron lesion?

flaccid paralysis, muscle atrophy, fasciculations, weakness, decreased muscle tone, impaired reflexes, negative babinski sign

34

What are symptoms of an upper motor neuron lesion?

result from damage to descending motor systems; include paralysis, spasticity, and a positive Babinski sign.

35

Inherited degeneration of the anterior motor horn; autosomal recessive, presents as "floppy baby", usually fatal within several years of life

Werdnig-Hoffman disease

36

Degenerative disorder of upper and lower motor neurons of the corticospinal tract that typically appears in middle age adults, marked by early atrophy and weakness of the hands and overall lack of sensory impairment.

ALS familial cases have SOD1 mutation

37

What differentiates ALS from Syringomyelia?

lack of sensory impairment in ALS

38

Autosomal recessive degenerative disorder of the spinal cord and cerebellum that presents in early childhood and leads to loss of vibratory sense and proprioception, muscle weakness in the lower extremities, loss of deep tendon reflexes and ataxia

Friedreich's ataxia

39

What is the genetic defect responsible for Freidrich Ataxia

autosomal recessive mutation of the frataxin gene due to the expansion of an unstable trinucleotide repeat (GAA)

40

What is frataxin?

protein essential for mitochondrial regulation of iron; loss results in iron buildup and free radical damage

41

What serious associated medical condition accompanies friedrich ataxia?

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

42

T/F ALS usually appears in mid-adulthood and is typically not caused a genetically inherited mutation

True -- SOD1 mutation is present in a fraction of familial cases but these are a vast minority of total ALS cases

43

What is most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults and elderly?

Strep pneumoniae

44

What is most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children and teenagers?

Niseria meningitidis - enters through nasopharynx and then gets to blood then from blood gets to the meninges

45

What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

Group B strep, E coli, Listeria monocytogenes

46

What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in infants?

H influenza (particularly in non-vaccinated instants)

47

What is a viral cause of meningitis?

Enteroviruses (e.g. coxsackievirus) are most common causes (fecal oral transmission, particularly affects children)

48

What is the most common source of group B strep and E coli infection that leads to meningitis in neonates

exposure in vaginal canal during delivery group B strep is tested in 3rd trimester for prophylaxis

49

How do children and teenagers get meningitis from n minigititis?

enters through nasopharynx and then gets to blood then from blood gets to the meninges

50

Common cause of meningitis in immunocompromised patients?

fungal infections of criptoccocus and aspergillus

51

What is the classic triad of symptoms in meningitis?

Headache, nuchal rigidity and fever -- other common symptoms are photo-phobia, vomiting, and altered mental status

52

rapidly progressive gangrenous cellulitis of the soft tissues of the neck and floor of the mouth that results in swelling of the tongue, neck pain, and breathing problems - commonly associated with dental procedures - culture produces mixoid aeorobic and non-aerobic bacterial flora

Ludwig's angina (cellulitis = spreading bacterial infection under skin; angina = strangling)

53

What is Gottron's sign? What disease is it used to detect?

Descrete erythematous, scaly eruptions occurring in symmetric fashion overlying the metacarpal and interphalangeal joints Dermatomyositis

54

What is xerostomia? keratoconjunctivitis sicca? What disease are both of these found in?

dry mouth, dry eyes Sjogren syndrome

55

Chronic inflammatory disease of the salivary and lacrimal glands that may be restricted there or be part of a systemic collagen vascular disease

Sjogren syndrome

56

What happens to salivary and lacrimal glands as dissease course progresses?

Become atrophic with fibrosis and fatty prarenchymal infiltrates

57

Differential for bilateral parotid gland swelling includes?

Sjogren syndrome; Mumps virus infection; Warthin cysts (15% of cases bilateral)

58

focally ulcerated reddish lesion ~2mm - 1cm located on the gingiva of the mouth with highly vascularized granulation tissue

pyogenic granuloma

59

CSF findings from bacterial meningitis?

neutrophils with decreased CSF glucose

60

CSF findings from viral meningitis?

lymphocytes with normal CSF glucose

61

CSF findings from fungal meningitis?

lymphocytes with decreased CSF glucose

62

Most common cause of post-natal unilateral deafness from viral infection?

Mumps

63

Labarynthitis

same as otitis interna - infection of inner ear and vestibular system commonly caused by viruses (e.g. mumps, rubella

64

Prenatal viral infection that causes bilateral deafness and permanant damage to the choclea and vestibular system

rubella

65

postnatal viral infection that causes unilateral deafness

mumps

66

Inflammation of the salivary gland usually due to an obstructing stone and subsequent staph aureus infection; usually unilateral

sialadenitis

67

Tumor in the nasal cavity that can cause "sinus pressure". Marked by epithelial nests protruding into the submucosa with uniform proliferation and no evidence of cellular atypia.

sinonasal/nasolaryngeal inverted papilloma - caused by HPV 6,11 Inverted papilomas feature inversion of the epithelium into the underlying stroma encased by intact basement membane (so tumor can protrude into the nasal sinuses - think opposite of a polyp).

68

Most common infectious agent in acute suppurative tonsilitis?

strep pyogenes

69

consequence of chonric suppurative otidis media with rupture of typanic membrane

cholesteatoma

70

mass of accumulated keratin and squamous mucosa that can cause hearing loss and results from growth of squamous epithelium from the external ear through the ruptured ear drum into the middle ear

cholesteatoma

71

most clinically significant odontogenic tumor that benign tumor of odontogenic epithelium more commonly appearing in the lower jaw than the upper jaw. Rarely metastatic but progress slowly, resulting in lesions can cause severe abnormalities of the face and jaw

Ameloblastoma

72

Hydrocephalus in a neonate associated with seizures and periventricular calcifications. Histology shows pink intranuclear/intracellular inclusions. What was the cause?

Vertical transmission of Cytomegalovirus accross the placenta in utero. TORCH = Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex

73

"opportunistic" virus that causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in immunocompromised states (e.g. AIDS or organ transplant).

JC virus

74

Most susceptible brain regions (and cells) to damage from ischemia

perkinje neurons of cerebellum and pryimidal neurons of Sommner's sector in hippocampus

75

can cause death secondary to truama resulting in diffuse lesions/petechia in white matter

fat emboli - primarily affect capillaries - high density of capillaries at white matter/grey matter interface

76

Favored sites of aneurysms and most common consequence

internal corotid, vertibral, basilar arteries thrombosis > hemorrhage /dissection

77

Watershed zone most commonly affected by deminished cerebral blood flow (e.g. prolonged hypotension)

overlap zone between terminal branches of middle cerebral and anterior cerebral (watershed zone) - results in parasaggital infarcts

78

most common cause of decline in mental status following TBI - produces "spheroids", parasagital white matter damage accompanied by multiple infarcts - due to sheer forces from anchoring to arachnoid villi

diffuse axonal injury

79

Durret hemorrhage

result of uncle transtentorial herniation

80

Most common cause of death from ALS

respiratory insufficiency ALS is a degenerative disease of motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord (atrophy of ventral roots, motor cortex, and motor nuclei in brainstem) that results in weakness and wasting of the muscles of the hands (can be unilateral) accompanied by fasciculations and pain from muscle wasting, rapid decline and death, usually in 6 years or less

81

Defining histological change in the brain from ALS

loss of motor neurons, atrophy of motor cortex, gliosis

82

inborn error of metabolism/lysosomal storage disorder caused by autosomal recessive mutation in lysosomal enzyme arylsulphatase. Causes accumulation of the cerebroside galactosyl sulphatide in white matter leading to astrogliosis, failure to thrive and death (~6 months) from respiratory insufficiency

multichromatic leukodistrophy - most common leukodystrophy accumulation of sufatides (breakdown product of myelin-sulfatides) in lysosomes and "metachromatic material" in white matter

83

x-linked inborn error of metabolism high levels of long-chain fatty acids in tissues and body fluids dysfunctional adrenal glands and bilaterally symetric demyelination, gliosis, and perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates Disease is _____ caused by ____

Adrenoleukodystrophy caused by defective peroxisomes

84

Fatal infantile disease associated with autosomal recessive diffeciency in galactocerebrocide beta-galactosidases

Krabbe disease

85

Krabbe disease is associated with what histological findings?

White matter disease, associated with perivascular accumulation of mononuclear and and multinucleated "globoid cells" containing undigested galactosylcerimide

86

Defective GFAP Rosenthal fibers

Alexanders disease

87

Accumulation of mucopolysaccarides

Hurler disease

88

Cause of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

reactivation of latent measles virus

89

Histologic features of subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy

patchy loss of myelin, prominant intranuclear inclusions in neurons and oligodendrocytes, marked gliosis affecting grey and white matter, perivascular lymphocytes and macrophages

90

What causes subacute slclerosing panencephalopathy? How is disease different in children vs adults?

reactivated measles virus In children time course is protracted and primarily affects cerebral grey matter in adults time course is more rapid

91

Fatal familial insomnia and spongiform encephalopathy are caused by ________

prion disease

92

First signs of medulloblastoma

symptoms of hydrocephalus, truncal ataxia and wide based gate rapid and regionally infiltrative tumor of the cerebellum

93

symptoms of hydrocephalus in children

vomiting, sleepiness/lethargy, irritability, downward deviation of the eyes (also called "sunsetting"), and seizures

94

Midline cerebellar tumor characterized histologically by small hyperchromatic cells with neuroblastic rosettes

medulloblastoma

95

cell-markers (suggestive of meduloblastomas, ependoma or pineal parenchymal tumors) that rule out lymphoma, metastatic epithelial tumor or neuroectodermal malignancy

synaptophysin or nestin

96

hereditary disorder in which cerebellar hemangioblastomas are associated with retinal angiomas and other turmors like renal cell carcinoma

von-hippel lindau syndrome

97

Cause of von-hippel lindau syndrome

mutated VHL tumor suppressor gene

98

Clincal signs of Von-Hippel Lindau syndrome

headache, unsteadiness in walking (wide based gait), unilateral impaired coordinated movements in arm and leg (disdiodokinesia), intentional tremor

99

non-familial congenital disorder featuring facial "port wine stain" (nevus flammeus) and leptominingeal angiomas

Sturge-Weber syndrome

100

Associated disease: highly vascularized cerebellar tumor that features endothelium lined cannals interspersed with "plump cells" that may secrete eyrethropoin and induce polycythemia

Von-Hippel Lindau syndrome

101

Relative likelihood of intracranial metastasis Colon cancer Breast cancer Lung cancer Melanoma Renal cancer

Melanoma>breast/lun>renal/colon

102

HMB-45

marker for melanoma used to diagnose brain metastasis

103

invasive brain tumor that exhibits vascular changes ("arteric obliterateration"), pallasading pleiomorphic, multinuclear tumor cells around patches of yellow necrosis, and redzones of hemorrhage

glioblastoma multiforme tumor cells comprised of astroyctes can present with "butterfly lesion", large tumor extending bridge of malignant cells across corpus collosum** **can result in ipsilateral symptoms to large tumor.

104

tumor with characteristic "epithelial appearance" may feature "perivascular pseudorosettes" of tumor cells surrounding blood vessels typically associated with central canal of spinal cord, walls of 4th ventricle, and often results in hydrocephalus

ependoma

105

slow growing benign tumor that may displace brain tissue and erode contiguous bone of the skull. Does not infiltrate the brain.

meningeoma

106

Histologic presentation of a miningeoma

well circumscribed, firm, "bossylated" masses of variable size with whirled pattern of meningothelial cells

107

Solid cystic lesion displacing the region of the hypotalamus (located above stella turcica) that arises from the Rathke pouch and compresses the medial aspect of the optic chiasm resulting in bitemporal hemianopsia, headaches, and sometimes pituitary failure that can result in diabetes insipidus

Cranialpharyngioma Rathke pouch = part of embyronic nasopharynx that migrates cephalad to give rise to the anterior lobe of the hypothalamus

108

Most likely type of brain tumor in AIDS patient

primary deep cerebral (B-cell) lymphoma with bilateral perivascular distribution

109

Kayser-Feischer rings

ocular lesions from deposition of copper in the Descemet membrane of the iris

110

Disease marked by degeneration of corpus striatum resulting in extrapyramidal symptoms (lack of coordination, tremor), chronic hepatitis/cirrhosis, deposition of copper in the iris causing Keyser-Feischer ocular lesions

Wilson disease

111

slow growing tumor arising in the white matter marked by a dense patterning of neoplastic cells with small rounded nuclei, pleomorphic features, and randomly distributed (radiographically observable) "Calcospherites"

Oligodendroglioma

112

Cause of syndrome defined by bilateral benign tumors of the 8th cranial nerve (acustic neuromas), which are commonly associated with meningeioms and gliomas

Neurofibromatosis type II deletion of NF2 gene

113

What differentiates neurofibromatosis type I vs type II?

Both have neurofibromas but only type 2 has acustic neuromas - intracranial shwannoma of the 8th cranial nerve

114

What is pseudotumor cerebri?

ideopathic intracranial hypertension (increased pressure without evidence of tumor/obstruction) [+] papilloedema [-] mental status changes [-] focal neurologic findings

115

Cause of compression of midbrain, CNIII, PCA, parasympathetic fibers that results in Duret hemorrhages, down and out dilation (mydriatic) with hemmoragic infarction of occipital lobe

Uncal herniation (medial temporal lobe pushes through tentorium cerebelli)

116

Coning of cerebellar tonsils that produces cardiorespiratory arrest

tonsilar herniation

117

Duret hemorrhage and causes

small midbrain bleeds cause by downward movement of brainstem or compression of midbrain

118

most common cause of laryngotracheobronchitis in children

parainfluenza virus ==> causes a type of laryngotracheobronchitis called "Croup"

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