MLS 314 (MYCOLOGY AND VIROLOGY) – WEEK 1 & WEEK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

the asexual form of a fungus

A

Anamorph:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a specialized conidiogenous cell from which a succession of spores is produced and which has a column of apical scars at its tip.

A

• Annellide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

: ability of a fungus to use a specific carbon or nitrogen source for growth.

A

•Assimilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

: without cross-walls or septa.

A

•Aseptate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

: the process of conidium formation.

A

•Conidiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[in which an existing hyphal cell is converted into one or more conidia]

A

thallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

[in which conidia are produced as a result of some form of budding process]

A

blastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An asexual (mitosis only) propagule that forms on the side or the end of the hypha or conidiophore.

A

Conidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It may consist of one or more cells.

A

Conidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is always borne externally, ie., not enclosed in a saclike structure such as sporangium.

A

Conidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a fungus produces two types of conidia, those that are small and usually singled cell are referred to as (?)

A

microconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

are usually segmented into two or more cells

A

macroconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

: darkly pigmented.

A

•Dematiaceous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

: ability of a fungus to utilize a specific carbohydrate in the presence of other organic compounds, resulting in the production of gas.

A

•Fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(color change) may simply indicate that the carbohydrate has been assimilated.

A

Acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All carbohydrates (?) by a fungus are also assimilated, but many compounds that are (?) are not necessarily fermented.

A

fermented
assimilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

: colonies with a cotton-like texture.

A

•Floccose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

: term used to describe spores with a spindle-like shape.

A

•Fusiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

: colonies with wax-like texture.

A

•Glabrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

: a self-sterile fungus; sexual reproduction cannot take place unless two compatible mating strains are present.

A

•Heterothallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

: a self-compatible fungus; sexual reproduction can take place within an individual strain.

A

•Homothallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

: colorless, transparent, transluscent.

A

•Hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

: one of the individual filaments that make up the mycelium of a fungus.

A

•Hypha (pl., hyphae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

: a filamentous fungus.

A

•Mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

: hyaline or lightly colored.

A

•Moniliaceous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

: a mass of branching filaments which make up the vegetative growth of a fungus.

A

•Mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

: a cell with several nuclei.

A

•Oligokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

: having few septa.

A

•Pauciseptate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

: a chain of yeast cells which have arisen as a result of budding and have elongated without becoming detached from each other, forming a hypha-like filament. No marked constriction.

A

•Pseudohypha (pl., pseudohyphae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

: a short branching hypha that resembles a root.

A

•Rhizoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

: having cross-walls or septa.

A

•Septate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

: a monophyletic clade of species with equivalent clinical relevance.

A

•Species complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

: a specialized hypha upon which a sporangium develops.

A

•Sporangiophore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

: term used to describe the development of a single conidium at successive sites along a lengthening conidiogenous cell.

A

•Sympodial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

: the sexual form of a fungus.

A

•Teleomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

: one of the two basic forms of conidiogenesis.

A

•Thallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

: the vegetative growth of a fungus.

A

•Thallus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

: a unicellular, budding fungus.

A

•Yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

named species

undescribed species

new species described each year

A

135,000

1 million to more than 10 million

1,000 to 1,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

human and zoonotic diseases

opportunistic infections

A

< 500
< 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Importance of
1.Increasing number of ubiquitous environmental molds implicated as (?) capable of producing serious diseases among debilitated or immunocompromised hosts.
2.One of the leading causes of (?)
3.Often mistaken for as (?) that produces fatal consequences.
4.Increase (?) (travel to an endemic area or a fungus that exists as part of indigenous flora of the local population)
5. (?) population.

A

opportunistic pathogens
nosocomial infections
bacterial infection
morbidity
Aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

: Fungi were used as an antiseptic and anesthesia due to the “magical & spiritual” properties.

A

•35,000 BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

: People were convinced that association with fungi will entail the formation of diseases. People believed that fungi were “the work of the devil”.

A

•Middle Ages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

: Fungi were plants with no fruit nor seed.

A

•Renaissance period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

: Birth of the 1st mycological studies. Pier Anton Micheli— founder of modern mycological studies. Mycology was separated from botany.

A

•18th Century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

: Fungi were recognized as a potential causative agents of diseases that are usually fatal in nature.

A

•Mid-20th Century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

: branch of science that deals with systemic biological classification of all living organisms and divided into three disciplines viz., classification, nomenclature, and identification.

A

•Taxonomy (Gk.: taxis = arrangement; anomia = method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

•Taxonomy (Gk.: (?) = arrangement; (?) = method)

A

taxis
anomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

•The scientific names of fungi are subject to the (?) that was adopted in 2011.

A

International Code of Nomenclature (ICN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

•In 2011, a breakthrough in the development of (?) concept recommended the discontinuation of the dual nomenclature system for fungi with anamorphic and teleomorphic forms.

A

“One Fungus, One Name”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Effective January 1, 2013 the system of permitting separate anamorph and teleomorph names ended; and assigned priority to the (?) independently of whether the organism was originally described as the anamorph or the teleomorph.

A

oldest genus (species) name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

•Eukaryotes are divided into five monophyletic lineages or supergroups as proposed by Adl et.al.1

A

1.SAR (one clade consists of three groups viz., Stramenopiles, Alveolata, and Rhizaria)
2.Archaeplastida
3.Excavata
4.Amoebozoa
5.Opisthokonta — True fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

— organisms that are not fungi sensu strictu (eg., Rhinosporidium seeberi) that share fungal-like morphological features with the true fungi.

A

Parafungi or pseudofungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fungi Imperfecti also termed (?)— fungi that reproduced asexual type only (sporogenesis), while perfect fungi are capable of both sexual (teleomorph) and asexual (anamorph) type of reproduction.

A

“form-division Deuteromycota”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Basic scheme of hierarchical organization of the Kingdom Fungi

A

Eukarya
Fungi (Mycetea)
- mycota (Basidiomycota), - mycotina
- mycetes (Agaricomycetes)
- ales (Agaricales)
- ace (Agaricaceae)
- Agaricus
- Agaricus bisporus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Seven phyla that constitute the true fungi

A

1.Ascomycota
2.Basidiomycota
3.Blastocladiomycota
4.Chytridiomycota
5.Glomeromycota (formerly Zygomycota)
6.Microsporidia
7.Neocallimastigomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

•Consists of four subphyla incertae sedis.

A

Glomeromycota (formerly Zygomycota)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

accommodates Mucorales that includes the genera Lichtheimia (formerly Absidia), Mucor, Rhizomucor, and Rhizopus.

A

Subphylum Mucormycotina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

has been created for the Entomophthorales that includes the genera Basidiobolus and Conidiobolus — agents of subcutaneous infections

A

Subphylum Entomophthoromycotina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Most members are septate, filamentous thallus, but some are atypical yeasts.

A

Phylum Basidiomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

produced via sexual reproduction of a generative cell (basidium).

A

Basidiospores (haploid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The most prominent are the basidiomycetous yeast with anamorphic stages belonging to the genera:

A

1.Cryptococcus
2.Malassezia
3.Trichosporon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Polyphyletic, belong to subphylum Agaricomycotina, class Tremellomycetes, and order Tremellales and(or) Filobasidiales1

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Asexual reproduction is variable; do not produce spores like those of the Ascomytoca.

A

Phylum Basidiomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most filamentous basidiomycetes are wood-rotting fungi or obligate plant pathogens.

A

Phylum Basidiomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Contains ~50% of all named fungal species and accounts for ~80% of fungi of medical importance.

A

Phylum Ascomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Sexual reproduction leads to the development of haploid spores, termed (?) which are produced in a sac like structure called (?). (?) contains numerous asci.

A

ascospores
ascus
Ascocarps or ascomata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Asexual reproduction leads to conidiation from a generative conidiogenous cell.

A

Phylum Ascomycota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Three medically important subphylum:

A

1.Taphrinomycotina
2.Saccharomycotina
3.Pezizomycotina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Taphrinomycotina contains the genus (?) formerly classified under kingdom Protozoa.

A

Pneumocystis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Saccharomycotina contains the class (?) belongs to order Saccharomycetales

A

Saccharomycetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pezizomycotina contains two classes: (1) and the (2).

A
  1. Eurotiomycetes
  2. Sordariomycetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Class Saccharomycetes

A

Phylum Ascomytoca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Characterized by vegetative yeast cells which proliferate by budding or fission.

A

Class Saccharomycetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Do not produce ascomata, the ascus being formed by direct transformation of a budding vegetative cell, by “mother-bud” conjugation, or by conjugation between two independent single cells.

A

Class Saccharomycetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Members include the anamorphic stage belonging to genus Candida containing ~200 anamorphic species and has teleomorphs in more than 10 genera.

A

Class Saccharomycetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Belonging to class Eurotiomycetes or Sordariomycetes Teleomorphs of melanized fungi:

A
  1. Capnodiales
  2. Chaetothyriales
  3. Microascales
  4. Pleosporales
  5. Ophiostomatales
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

basic structural unit consists of a chain of multinucleate, tubular, filament-like cells.

A

Hypha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most multicellular fungi in their vegetative state, consists of a mass of branching hyphae called (?).

A

mycelium or thallus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Each hypha has a rigid cell wall and increases in length as a result of apical growth with mitotic cell division.

A

Multicellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In a more primitive fungi, the hyphae remain aseptate (coenocytic).

A

Multicellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In a more advanced groups, the hyphae are divided into compartments or cells by the development of more or less frequent cross-walls, termed septa.— septate hyphae.

A

Multicellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Fungi that exists in the form of microscopic multicellular mycelium are commonly referred to as (?).

A

molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Exists in the form of independent single cells propagate by budding out similar cells from their surface.

A

Unicellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The bud may become detached from the parent cell or it may remain attached and itself produce another bud, leading to the production of a chain of cells or described as loosely arrangement of budding cells —

A

yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Under certain conditions, continued elongation of the parent cell before it buds out results in a chain of elongated cells, termed (?).

A

pseudohypha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Compare to true hypha, the connection between adjacent they shows a marked constriction.

A

pseudohyphal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Medically important fungi that change their growth form as a part of the process of tissue invasion.

A

Dimorphic fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Dimorphic pathogens change from a multicellular mold form (25-30C) in the natural environment to a budding, single-celled yeasts form (35-37C) in tissue under the influence of temperature— (?).

A

thermal dimorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Dimorphic fungi

A

1.Histoplasma capsulatum
2.Blastomyces dermatitidis
3.Coccidioides immitis
4.Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
5.Sporothrix schenckii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cell wall

Rigid, mostly composed of 90% polysaccharides eg., (?); 10% (?) in various combinations.

A

chitin, glucan, chitosan, galactosan, and mannan
proteins and glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

the major carbohydrate consist of repeating monomers of N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) which provides shape and protection from osmotic lysis (unaffected by some antibiotics).

A

Chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Barrier between fungal cell and its external environment.

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Binding site for some enzymes

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Possesses antigenic properties which allow interaction with other organisms

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Composed of structurally arranged phospholipids in two-layered configuration scattered randomly.

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

major component that regulates solute intake and secretion (transport system) through selective permeability and serves as the target of antifungal drugs like Nystatin.

A

Ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Facilitates biosynthesis of cell wall and capsular material.

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Protects the cytoplasm

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

External coating located outside or covering the cell wall and found only in certain fungi.

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Composed of amorphous polysaccharide.

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

May influence growth of fungus by preventing dissociation of buds and dispersion of yeast.

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Virulence factor

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Contains the following organelles:
1.Nucleus
2.Chromosomes
3.Ribosomes
4.Mitochondrion
5.Endoplasmic reticulum
6.Vacuoles

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

bounded by a nuclear membrane, may vary in size, shape, and number. Usually contains one nucleolus of mostly RNA.

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

described as linear.

A

Chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

present at all times for protein synthesis.

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

generation of energy.

A

Mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Require preformed organic carbon compounds for nutrition.

A

Nutritional type is chemoheterotrophic (lacks chlorophyll)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Obtain their nourishment by secreting enzymes into the external substrate and by absorbing the released nutrients through their cell wall.

A

Nutritional type is chemoheterotrophic (lacks chlorophyll)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Capable of growing on dead (saprophytic) and living organic matter.

A

Nutritional type is chemoheterotrophic (lacks chlorophyll)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Usually nonmotile except for the phylum Chytridiomycota and species of Rhizophidium.

A

Motility and atmospheric requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Mostly aerobic, some are facultative anaerobic.

A

Motility and atmospheric requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Lysine synthesis

A

Utilize -aminodiphate pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Lysine synthesis
Precursor for (?), also for the development of (?).

A

penicillin and lysine
antifungal drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

describes the propagules that result form an asexual process (mitosis only) and generally short-lived propagules.

A

Conidium (pl. conidia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Most fungi are capable of [?] reproduction (involving meiosis, preceded by fusion of the nuclei of two cells).

A

sexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Some species are [?] (self-fertile) and able to form sexual structures between different cells within an individual thallus.

A

homothallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Most are (?) that do not form their sexual structures unless two capable isolates come into contact

A

heterothallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

— once two compatible nuclei have fused, meiosis can occur leading to the production of sexual (?).

A

Spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

In some cases, spores are produced in millions in macroscopic “fruiting bodies” such as (?).

A

mushrooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Cell wall of Fungi

A

Polysaccharides (ie., Chitin, Glucan, Mannan, Galactosan, Chitosan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Cell wall of Bacteria

A

Polysaccharide
Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Cell membrane of Fungi

A

Ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Cell membrane of Bacteria

A

No sterols, EXCEPT: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Nucleus of Fungi

A

Small, bound by nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Nucleus of Bacteria

A

Nucleoid, no nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Chromosome of Fungi

A

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Chromosome of Bacteria

A

Circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Ribosomes of Fungi

A

80s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Ribosomes of Bacteria

A

70s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Lysine synthesis of Fungi

A

-aminodiphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Lysine synthesis of Bacteria

A

DAP (Diaminopimelate pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Identification of Yeasts

A

1.Morphological
2.Physiological, and
3.Biochemical characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Morphological includes:

A

a.color of colonies
b.size and shape of cells
c.presence of capsule around the cell
d.production of hyphae, pseudohyphae, arthroconidia, and(or) chlamydospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Biochemical characteristics

A

a.assimilation and fermentation of sugars
b.assimilation of nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

•Most commercial tests (eg., ID YST, bioMérieux) are based on sugar assimilation of isolates.
•DNA sequencing
•Matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization-time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF)

A

Identification of Yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Identification of Molds

A

Macroscopic characteristics viz. colonial form, surface color (obverse) pigmentation, reverse pigmentation, and growth rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Factors that influence the colonial form:

A

1.Culture medium
2.Incubation temperature
3.Age of culture
4.Amount of inoculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

is important in speciation, hence it is important to select culture conditions which favor sporulation.

A

Sporulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

promotes over production of mycelium which results in loss of sporulation, in such cases, subculture to a low-nutrient medium (stimulate sporulation)

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Compose of the basic unit of fungus (hyphae).

A

Mold cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

The septum, represents the cross walls (divisions) of a hyphae.

A

Mold cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Mass of hyphae will produce mycelium.

A

Mold cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Cells are mostly spherical to ellipsoidal of 3 to 15 microns in size.

A

Yeast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Multiply via asexual reproduction known as (?).

A

budding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Stages of budding:

A

1.Bud emergence >
2.Protuberance
3.Elongation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Growth can be observe through obverse (surface) or reverse (back). Obverse observation can be white to cream, bright or light gray to brown, reverse may be non pigmented, to yellow, orange, or red.

A

Mold cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

•As seen in culture, colonies may appear as white opaque, pasty to creamy to mucoid (encapsulated) with 0.5 to 3mm in diameter. •Colonies grow at 35-37C, optimum

A

Yeast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

are fungus with cross walls

A

Septate hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

are nearly parallel to one another with dichotomous branching at acute angles — Aspergillus spp.

A

Septate hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

are fungus without cross walls. Coenocytic hyphae results form nuclear division within a cell without division in the cytoplasm.

A

Aseptate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Multiple projections in a hypha resembling an old comb hyphae appearance

A

Pectinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Hypha with club-shaped cells, the layer end of one cell being attached to the smaller end of an adjacent

A

Racquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

•Hypha forming coiled or corkscrew like turns.
•Characteristics of Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A

Spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Terminal hyphae branches that are irregular, broad, and antler-like in appearance. Especially characteristics of T. schöenleinii.

A

Favic chandelier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Round knot-like structure formed by intertwined hyphae; seen especially among dermatophytes

A

Nodular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

•Root like structure along the vegetative hyphae
•Characteristics of certain Glomeromycota (formerly Zygomycota) (Rhizopus and Absidium)

A

Rhizoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Clear, transparent, and colorless hyphae

A

Hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Hyphae having structures that are brown to black, this is due to the melanotic pigment in the cell walls

A

Dematiaceous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Triggered by stems from the sub apical accumulation of wall precursors (presumable vesicles) reaching a critical concentrations.

A

Lateral Elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

i.Cell vesicles move towards the tip of the hyphae (towards the plasma membrane) where they release various enzymes and other compounds.
ii.Enzymes release by these particles involved in the lysis and synthesis of the cell wall
iii.Following lysis of the cell wall, cell division and growth allows for the hyphae to be elongated at the tip.
iv.Once the new cell has formed, enzymes at the tip start synthesizing a new cell wall around the new cell to protect it. Followed by strengthening of the actin cap. Then disappearance of Spitzenkörper.
v.Spitzenkörper, play an important role in organizing (regulating) hyphal growth. Found behind hyphal tip (apex).

A

Process of apical elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

(?) move towards the tip of the hyphae (towards the plasma membrane) where they release various enzymes and other compounds.

A

Cell vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

(?) release by these particles involved in the lysis and synthesis of the cell wall

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Following lysis of the (?), cell division and growth allows for the hyphae to be elongated at the tip.

A

cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Once the new cell has formed, enzymes at the tip start synthesizing a new (?) around the new cell to protect it. Followed by strengthening of the actin cap. Then disappearance of Spitzenkörper.

A

cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

(?), play an important role in organizing (regulating) hyphal growth. Found behind hyphal tip (apex).

A

Spitzenkörper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

leads to the formation of filamentous (fuzzy) colonies — mycelium

A

Apical elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Types of mycelium:

A

1.Vegetative
2.Aerial mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

filamentous (fuzzy) colonies

A

mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

buried down, for the water exchange and nutrient absorption.

A

Vegetative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

projects on the surface of the culture medium with reproductive structures known as spores which can be sexual or asexual.

A

Aerial mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Requires the formation of special clusters for fertilization and nuclear fission.

A

Sexual reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

sex organ, gametes (sex cells) and either monoecious or dioecious

A

Gametangium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Involves meiosis

A

Sexual reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

are developed as a result of a primary nuclear fusion with reduction in chromosome number during their formation.

A

Sexual spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Germinates and forms hyphae and mycelium

A

Sexual reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

2-8 ascospores within an ascus (sac), the shape of each aids in identification of fungus.

A

Ascospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q
A

Basidiospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

When two sporangiophores sexually fuse to form a large thick-walled bodies

A

Zygospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

contains zygospores along a nonseptate hyphae

A

Zygosporangium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Produced from a fusion of 2 non-identical hyphae

A

Oospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Sporulation and spores are preferred terms used when there is a merging of nuclear material or genes combined.

A

Asexual reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

spore formed by budding, no fusion of nuclei takes place in the formation of spore.

A

Asexual spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Do not form mycelium, produce pasty type of colony (yeast)

A

Unicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Form mycelium, produce filamentous colony (mold)

A

Multicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Spores contained in sporangia or sacs are produced terminally (at the end)

A

Sporangiospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

specialized stalk which bears the sporangia

A

Sporangiophore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Observed among, Zygomycetes, Rhizopus

A

Sporangiospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Results from the transformation of a vegetative yeast or specialized hypha called conidiophores. Often referred to as macro- (multicellular) and microconidia (unicellular)

A

Mitospores (Conidiospores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Freed by abstraction at the point of attachment

A

Mitospores (Conidiospores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Observed among Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes

A

Mitospores (Conidiospores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

produced on a thallus

A

Thallospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Formed by budding from a pseudohypha

A

Chlamydospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Thick-walled resting spores either within (intercallary) the segments; hyphal sides (sessile); or hyphal tip (terminal)

A

Chlamydospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

highly developed conidiophores

A

Phialospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Vesicle, enlarged swollen cell often at the end of a conidiophore or sporangiophore and it bears conidia.

A

Phialospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

The conidiospores are formed usually at the sides (tips) of a hyphae and are usually in chains.

A

Phialospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Outer skin layer (hair)

Do not penetrate tissues

Malassezia furfur

A

Superficial

200
Q

Skin, hair, nails (keratinized area)

Do not penetrate tissues, but can cause inflammation

Trichophyton species
Microsporum species

A

Cutaneous

201
Q

Connective tissues, Muscles, Bones

Penetrate tissues, transmitted via traumatic inoculation

Sporothrix schenkii
Rhinosporidium seeberi
Loboa loboi

A

Subcutaneous

202
Q

All body system

Thermal (dimorphic)

Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Systemic

203
Q

Any part

Infects immunocompromised host

Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida albicans

A

Opportunistic

204
Q

Similar to bacteriology, the goal of mycology laboratory is to accurately (?) fungi suspected of causing infection.

A

isolate and identify

205
Q

Important considerations on specimen collection, transport, and processing
1.Proper (?) (aseptic technique).
2.All specimens should be transported in (?) and processed ASAP.
3. (?) or anaerobic containers should never be used for fungi.
4. (?) is recommended for transport (some fungi can be affected by above 37C and below 10C— dermatophytes are sensitive to cold temperatures.
5.If delay is expected within 2h, specimen should be stored at (?).
6.Appropriate volume. Volume required for fungal culture is greater than in bacteriology, since fluids and respiratory secretions need to be (?) prior to plating.

A

collection
leakproof sterile containers
Anaerobic transport media
RT
4C
concentrated or pretreated

206
Q

the appropriate physicians should be notified.

A

•For rejected or unacceptable specimen

207
Q

requisition must accompany each specimen and must include the following demographics

A

1.Patient name
2.Age and sex
3.Location or address
4.Physician name
5.Specific culture site
6.Date and time of specimen collection
7.Clinical diagnosis
8.Any special culture request

208
Q

Specimen must have a firmly attached label indicating the

A

patient name, specimen type, date and time of collection

209
Q

Necessary to maximize recovery of fungi.

A

Pretreatment and optimum temperature for culture

210
Q

Importance of Pretreatment and optimum temperature for culture

A

1.Release fungi enclosed within cells.
2.Concentrate fungal material in the specimen.
3.Help to reduce or eliminate bacteria present in contaminated specimens because of the action of mucolytic agents viz.

211
Q

mucolytic agents

A

a.N-acetyl-L-cysteine
b.5% oxalic acid
c.Dithiothreitol (Sputolysin2)

212
Q

Temperature requirements for culture:

A

1.Blood, CSF: 30-37C
2.Dermatological (ie., skin, hair, nails): 15-30C

213
Q

Granules should be washed & crushed; other materials should be centrifuge at 2,000g for 10min.

A

Abscess, drainage, pus, granules

214
Q

Lysis in Isolator tubes and then centrifugation for 30min. at 3,000g, in a 35 fixed-angle rotor or swing bucket.

A

Blood, bone marrow

215
Q

Criteria for the detection of H. capsulatum and other dimorphic fungi.

A

Blood, bone marrow

216
Q

Centrifugation at 2,000g for 10min. or membrane filtration.

A

Body fluids

217
Q

Essential for best recovery with volumes 1mL; blood clots should be teased apart.

A

Body fluidsC

218
Q

Mince; gently pushed pieces down into agar.

A

Nails

219
Q

Essential for the recovery of dermatophytes.

A

Nails

220
Q

Lysis with mucolytic agents, followed by centrifugation at 2,000g for 10min.

A

Respiratory secretions (BAL, sputum)

221
Q

Critical for the recovery of Pneumocystis jirovecii as very difficult to isolate in culture; improves recovery of other mycoses.

A

Respiratory secretions (BAL, sputum)

222
Q

Mince or grind in a mortar; push pieces down into agar

A

Tissue

223
Q

Essential for best recovery; for zygomycetes and other molds, mincing is best; for H. capsulatum, grinding is best.

A

Tissue

224
Q

Centrifugation at 2,000g for 10min.

A

Urine

225
Q

Essential for best recovery, particularly deep mycoses.

A

Urine

226
Q

Essential for best recovery.

A

Abscess, drainage, pus, granules

227
Q

•All work in mycology should be carried out in a certified (?) especially when dealing with filamentous fungi.

A

type 2 laminar airflow BSC

228
Q

can be handled on the bench in the same manner that bacterial cultures are routinely handled.

A

Yeasts cultures

229
Q

are recommended for personnel working with clinical specimens that may contain dimorphic fungi.

A

•BSL 2 procedures

230
Q

should be worn for processing specimens and culture.

A

•Appropriate PPE

231
Q

of slanted media are safer to handle than petri plates.

A

•Screw-cap tubes

232
Q

should NEVER be used if Coccidioides immitis is suspected.

A

•Petri plates

233
Q

•Do not make slide cultures of isolates that may be:

A

1.Histoplasma capsulatum
2.Blastomyces dermatitidis
3.Coccidioides immitis
4.Coccidioides posadasii
5.Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
6.Talaromyces marneffei
7.Cladophialophora bantiana

234
Q

Clean surface with 70% alcohol. Collect from active peripheral edge with sterile needle and syringe. If open, use swab system or aspirate.

A

Abscess (Drainage, exudate, pus, wound)

235
Q

If thick, pretreatment similar to sputum specimen

A

Abscess (Drainage, exudate, pus, wound)

236
Q

If 2h, RT

A

Abscess (Drainage, exudate, pus, wound)

237
Q

Examine for grains or granules and note color if present

A

Abscess (Drainage, exudate, pus, wound)

238
Q

Disinfect skin with iodine tincture or chlorhexidine prior to obtaining. Use max. volume of blood recommended for the system used.

A

Blood

239
Q

Manual
Biphasic (Septi-Chek)
Automated (BacT/ALERT, bioMérieux)
Lysis-centrifugation

A

Blood

240
Q

If 2h, RT; if longer, RT but process in 16h (lysis- centrifugation)

A

Blood

241
Q

All systems for bacteria will recover all yeasts except for Malassezia spp. but will not recover molds.

A

Blood

242
Q

Lysis centrifugation systems are good for recovery of molds, especially the causing endemic mycoses.

Gives high contamination and false positive rates.

A

Blood

243
Q

Collect aseptically in a heparinized syringe or lysis-centrifugation tube.

A

Bone marrow

244
Q

Clotted bone marrow is an unacceptable specimen.

A

Bone marrow

245
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer RT

A

Bone marrow

246
Q

Pediatric isolator tubes are best.

A

Bone marrow

247
Q

Remove distal 3-5 cm of line tip and place in a sterile container.

A

Catheter tip (Intravascular)

248
Q

Method of Maki et. al.2; used for catheter tips but not validated for fungi.

A

Catheter tip (Intravascular)

249
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer,4C

A

Catheter tip (Intravascular)

250
Q

Avoid media containing Cycloheximide.

A

Catheter tip (Intravascular)

251
Q

Disinfect all types with 70% alcohol.

A

Cutaneous (Hair, skin, nails)

252
Q

is most important, plucking is best; submit 10-12 hairs in sterile dry container or envelope.

A

Hair
hair root

253
Q

scrape with dull edge of a scalpel or glass slide, or vigorously brush in a circular motion with soft-bristle brush.

A

skin

254
Q

material under nail should also be scraped. submit in sterile container or envelope.

A

nails clip or scrape with scalpel

255
Q

Only the leading edge of a lesion should be sampled, as centers are often nonviable.

A

Cutaneous (Hair, skin, nails)

256
Q

All specimens should be pressed gently into the agar with a sterile swab, do not streak agar plates. If used, toothbrushes should be pressed gently into agar as well

A

Cutaneous (Hair, skin, nails)

257
Q

If 72h., (very stable) Never refrigerate, as dermatophytes are sensitive to cold.

A

Cutaneous (Hair, skin, nails)

258
Q

Select hairs with fluoresce under a Wood’s light.

A

Cutaneous (Hair, skin, nails)

259
Q

can be collected with soft-bristle toothbrush.

A

Hair and skin

260
Q

olive oil or a paper disc saturated with olive oil should be placed on the first quadrant of agar plate.

A

For pityriasis versicolor (M. furfur)

261
Q

taken by physicians and media(slides) inoculated directly.

A

Corneal scraping

262
Q

needle aspiration.

A

Vitreous humor

263
Q

inoculate non-inhibitory media in X- or C-shape motion.

A

Corneal

264
Q

concentrate by centrifugation, use sediment for media and smears.

A

Vitreous humor

265
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer RT

A

Eye (corneal scraping, vitreous humor)

266
Q

Very little material usually available. Avoid media with cycloheximide

A

Eye (corneal scraping, vitreous humor)

267
Q

Collected surgically. Transport in sterile container.

A

Medical devices

268
Q

Use sterile scalpel to collect (by scraping) biofilm or vegetative growth.

A

Medical devices

269
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer, 4C

A

Medical devices

270
Q

Avoid media containing cycloheximide. Device material recovered best by using liquid medium.

A

Medical devices

271
Q

Have patient empty bladder and then massage prostate gland to yield fluid.

A

Prostate fluid

272
Q

Inoculate media directly or transport in sterile wide mouth container.

A

Prostate fluid

273
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer RT

A

Prostate fluid

274
Q

Fluid should always be examined microscopically. The first urine following massage has a high yield. This fluid is excellent for detection of endemic mycoses.

A

Prostate fluid

275
Q

Use first morning sputum collected after brushing teeth.

Collect brushing and BAL fluid surgically.

Place all samples in sterile containers.

Inoculate media containing antimicrobial agents with and without cycloheximide.

A

Respiratory tract, lower (sputum, bronchial aspirate, BAL fluid)

276
Q

Viscous lower respiratory specimens should be pretreated and centrifuged to concentrate their contents.

A

Respiratory tract, lower (sputum, bronchial aspirate, BAL fluid)

277
Q

If 2h., RT; if longer, 4C

A

Respiratory tract, lower (sputum, bronchial aspirate, BAL fluid)

278
Q

Saliva and 24h sputum are unacceptable specimens. Methods for mycobacterial decontamination are not acceptable.

A

Respiratory tract, lower (sputum, bronchial aspirate, BAL fluid)

279
Q

Swab oral lesions, avoiding tongue. Use thin wire or flexible swab or oropharynx. Collect sinus contents surgically.

A

Respiratory tract, upper (Oral, oropharyngeal, and sinus samples)

280
Q

Use swab transport system for oral and oropharyngeal samples. Place sinus contents in sterile container

A

Respiratory tract, upper (Oral, oropharyngeal, and sinus samples)

281
Q

Oral: if 2h, RT; if longer, RT
Sinus: if 15min. RT; if longer, RT

A

Respiratory tract, upper (Oral, oropharyngeal, and sinus samples)

282
Q

Selective and chromogenic media are best for recovery of Candida spp.

A

Respiratory tract, upper (Oral, oropharyngeal, and sinus samples)

283
Q

Collect as for bacteriology. Concentrate by centrifugation, and use sediment for inoculation. Clots should be grounded.

A

Sterile body fluids (CSF and pericardial, peritoneal, and synovial fluids)

284
Q

Except CSF, put sterile body fluids in sterile Vacutainer tubes with heparin or lysis- centrifugation tube to prevent blood clotting.

Except for CSF, blood culture bottles can be used for recovery of yeast.

A

Sterile body fluids (CSF and pericardial, peritoneal, and synovial fluids)

285
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer, RT; never refrigerate.

A

Sterile body fluids (CSF and pericardial, peritoneal, and synovial fluids)

286
Q

should always be examined microscopically. With specimen volumes 2ml, fluid should be plated directly using as much fluid on each plate as possible.

A

Sterile fluid sediment

287
Q

Specimen use should be discourage.

A

Stool

288
Q

Collected surgically. A larger volume is needed than for Bacteriology.

A

Tissue

289
Q

Use sterile container, keep moist (saline drops) to prevent drying.

Except with H. capsulatum, mincing (not grinding) is critical.

pieces should be pressed into the agar so they are partially embedded.

Grind tissue for recovery of H. capsulatum.

A

Tissue

290
Q

If 15min., RT; if longer, RT

A

Tissue

291
Q

recommended for invasive disease.

Examine subcutaneous portion for granules (see abscesses)

A

Tissue biopsy

292
Q

First morning clean catch, suprapubic, or catheterized specimens; 24-h specimens are unacceptable.

A

Urine

293
Q

Use a sterile container or urine transport system.

Concentrate specimens by centrifugation, and use sediment for inoculation.

A

Urine

294
Q

If 2h, RT; if longer, 4C; urine transport systems can stay at RT for up to 72h.

A

Urine

295
Q

Chromogenic media best for Candida. Use sediment for microscopic examination.

A

Urine

296
Q

Collect as for bacteriology.

A

Vaginal

297
Q

Swab transport system or sterile container for washings.

A

Vaginal

298
Q

If 2h, RT; if longer, RT

A

Vaginal

299
Q

Antibacterial media or chromogenic agars are best for recovery of Candida.

A

Vaginal

300
Q

Common clinical sites for laboratory recovery of pathogenic fungi

A
301
Q

General approaches for direct detection and identification of fungi

A

1.Culture based
2.Non-culture-based

302
Q

2.Non-culture-based

A

a.Direct microscopic examination
b.Antibody and antigen detection
c.Detection of 1,3–D-glucan and other fungal metabolites
d.Mass spectrometry
e.Nucleic acid detection

303
Q

Stains and methods used directly on unfixed tissue or samples

A

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) (5-30 min.)
Calcofluor white, CW (1-2 min.)
Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik) (2-3 min.)
Colloidal carbon wet mounts (India ink, nigrosin) (1 min.)
Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB)

304
Q

•Wet mount prepared in (?), used to distinguished fungi in thick mucoid specimens or in samples that contain keratinous material such as skin, hair, and nails.

A

10%

305
Q

•Nails may require stronger concentration of up to (?) to digest the nail prior to microscopy.

A

25%

306
Q

•The fungi remain unaffected while the (?) of the host cells are partially digested2.

A

proteinaceous components

307
Q

•Solutions of NaOH (?) may be used as an alternative to KOH.

A

10% or 25% with added glycerin

308
Q

•Visualization of fungal elements may be enhanced by the addition of (?) or glucan-binding fluorescent brighteners such as (?), which bind to chitin.

A

lactophenol cotton blue (LCB)
calcofluor white (CW)

309
Q

KOH, basic procedure

  1. Addition of (?)
  2. Specimen covered in (?)
  3. Wet house for (?)
  4. Observe under the (?)
A

10% KOH
coverslips
5 to 30 minutes
microscope

310
Q

•Nonspecific, nonimmunological fluorochromes (along with Uvitex 2B and Blankophor) that bind to β-1,3 and β-1,4 polysaccharides specifically cellulose and chitin of fungal cell walls and fluoresces when exposed to long-wave UV light

A

Calcofluor white, CW

311
Q

•More rapid than auramine-rhodamine stain.

A

Calcofluor white, CW

312
Q

•Fungal elements appear bluish white to green fluorescence against a dark background when excited with UV or blue-violet radiation

A

Calcofluor white, CW

313
Q

are 5-8 m [], round, and uniform in size and exhibit a characteristic peripheral cyst wall staining with an intense “double parenthesis-like” structure in CW

A

P. jirovecii cyst

314
Q

•Yeast cells are differentiated from P. jirovecii by

A

budding and intense staining

315
Q

fluoresce strongly and must be differentiated from fungal hyphae.

A

•Cotton fibers

316
Q

1.KOH (10%) is mixed in equal proportion with CW solution (?)

A

(0.1 g of CW M2R and 0.05 g of Evans blue in 100 ml H2O)

317
Q

2.Specimen is covered with this mixture and a coverslip is applied for 5 to 10 min. (nail and tissue preparations require up to (?) incubation time).

During (?), clearing and interaction of stain with the fungal elements occur.

(?) of the slide may speed up the clearing process.

A

30 min.

incubation

Warming

318
Q

CW, basic procedure

3.Examination of the preparation with a (?) containing appropriate (?) at x 100 to x 400 magnification

A

fluorescent microscopy
excitation and barrier filters

319
Q

may stain poorly with CW due to pigmentation that masks the fluorescence.

A

Dematiaceous fungi

320
Q

Cysts walls with internal thickenings (double comma).

A

P. jirovecii of BAL fluid

321
Q

Dichotomous branching hyphae.

A

Aspergillus spp. of lung tissue

322
Q

Chitinous walls of the fungus.

A

C. albicans from culture

323
Q

•Also applied to other specimens, such as BAL fluid or CSF.

A

Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik)

324
Q

•Yeasts and trophozoites appear as blue purple

A

Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik)

325
Q

(?)

•Differentiate form Leishmania;

Leishmania has a (?) and Histoplasma does not.

A

Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik)

Kinetoplast

326
Q

A.Thick cluster of mostly trophic forms (2-3m) with small reddish purple nuclei and light blue to red violet cytoplasm.

A

Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik)

327
Q

B.CSF with C. neoformans.

A

Rapid Giemsa-like (Diff-Quik)

328
Q

•Detection of encapsulated microorganisms of C. neoformans in CSF.

A

Colloidal carbon wet mounts (India ink, nigrosin)

329
Q

•The organism is refractory to the particles of ink, and capsules appear as clear halos around the organism against a black background.

A

C. neoformans in Colloidal carbon wet mounts

330
Q

•Artifacts viz. erythrocytes, leukocytes, and talc particles from gloves or bubbles following a myelogram may

A

displace the colloidal suspension and mimic yeast (false positive)

331
Q

Determine the test

•When positive in CSF, diagnostic of meningitis. Negative in many cases of meningitis; not reliable. But the sensitivity is (?) followed by lateral flow assay (?) and CALAS (?)

A

Colloidal carbon wet mounts

97%
94%
74%

332
Q

India ink, basic procedure (1 min.)

  1. Addition of 1 drop (?) on a slide
  2. Addition of 1 drop
  3. Add (?)
  4. Observe under the
A

CSF
India ink
cover slip
microscope 400x

333
Q

Determine the test

•Basic mounting medium for fungi consisting of

A

Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB)

phenol, lactic acid, glycerol, and aniline (cotton) blue dye.

334
Q

•Commonly used for the microscopic examination of fungal cultures by tease or tape preparation.

A

Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB)

335
Q

makes an excellent permanent stain or fixative for mounting slide culture preparations2.

A

•LPCB with 10% polyvinyl alcohol (LPCP-PVA)

336
Q

acts as a clearing agent and aids in preserving the fungal structures.

A

Lactic acid

337
Q

acts as a killing agent

A

Phenol

338
Q

prevents drying

A

Glycerol

339
Q

provides color to the structures.

A

Cotton blue

340
Q

are analogous to cotton blue

A

Poirrier’s blue and aniline blue

341
Q

LPCB, basic procedure

  1. A drop of (?) is added to a glass slide, and a (?) is prepared.
  2. Add a (?) and examine at (?)
A

LPCB solution; tease or tape mount
coverslip; x 100 to x400 magnification

342
Q

Note the crescent spindle-shaped conidia. x 400

A

Fusarium spp. in LPCB

343
Q

Cells appear as dark-walled and some budding cells x 400.

A

C. neoformans in LPCP isolated form CSF

344
Q

•Primarily used for the examination of bone marrow, buffy coat, and peripheral blood smears.

A

Giemsa stain

345
Q

•For the detection of intracellular yeast forms of H. capsulatum and fission yeast cells of Talaromyces marneffei.

A

Giemsa stain

346
Q

•The fungus is seen as small oval yeast cells, often contained within macrophages, and stains blue; a hyaline halo represents poorly staining cell wall.

A

H. capsulatum in Giemsa stain

347
Q

•The stain can also be used to visualize trophozoite of P. jirovecii.

A

Giemsa stain

348
Q

Giemsa stain, basic procedure (15 min.)

  1. PBS is prepared on a glass slide and placed in (?).
  2. Slide is flooded with freshly prepared Giemsa stain (?)
  3. After 5 min. Rinse slide with (?) and air dried. Examine at x 100 to x 400 magnification
A

100% methanol for 1 min
stock Giemsa stain diluted 1:10 with phosphate buffered H2O
d’H2O;

349
Q

Yeast appears as small, oval cells that stain light to dark blue with a hyaline halo due to the unstained cell wall.

A

Macrophages from a lymph node filled with H. capsulatum.

350
Q

BAL fluid showing characteristic fission yeast cells of

A

T. marneffei

351
Q

Detection of bacteria and fungi.

A

Gram stain

352
Q

Gram positive
Gram negative

A

yeasts and pseudohyphae
hyphae (septate and coenocytic)

353
Q

may decolorize and appear either Gram negative or stippled

A

Cryptococcus

354
Q

stain weakly in some instances and exhibit only stippling

Often have orange amorphous material around yeasts

A

Cryptococcus spp

355
Q

Not all fungi are detected.

A

Gram stain

356
Q

Filaments of Nocardia stain at least partially acid-fast (pink); Actinomyces and other actinomycetes are negative.

A

Modified acid-fast

357
Q

Detection of P. jirovecii in respiratory specimens viz. lung biopsy specimen imprints and BAL specimens

A

Toluidine blue O

358
Q

Stains cyst walls of P. jirovecii reddish blue or dark purple against a light blue background.

A

Toluidine blue O

359
Q

Cysts are often clumped and may be punched in, appearing crescent shaped.

A

Toluidine blue O

360
Q

Trophozoites are not discernible.

A

Toluidine blue O

361
Q

1.Place the air-dried slide in the sulfation reagent (?) for 10 min.
2.Rinse in cold H2O for 5 min., drain, and place in toluidine blue O (?) for 3 min.
3.Rinse in (?), followed by absolute ethanol and then xylene.
4.Examine at (?) magnification.

A

45 ml of glacial acetic acid mixed with 15 ml of conc’d H2SO4
0.3 g of dye in 60 ml of H2O
95% ethanol
x 100 to x 1000

362
Q

Cytologic stain used primarily to detect malignant cells. But it works well in sputum smears and good for differentiation of dimorphic fungi.

A

Papanicolaou

363
Q

Depending on the cell type detected, background stains in subtle range of green blue, orange to pink hues.

A

Papanicolaou

364
Q

Some species of Candida stains gold, while other fungi may not stain at all.

A

Papanicolaou

365
Q

Mucopolysaccharide stain, not commonly used (more commonly used is mucicarmine stain); like India ink, does not detect all cases.

A

Alcian blue

366
Q

Useful in visualizing polysaccharide capsule of Cryptococcus that stains blue against a pink background in histological sections of tissue.

A

Alcian blue

367
Q

The polysaccharide capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans stains turquoise blue; the finer details of the capsule may be better preserved in some specimens when compared with mucicarmine

A

Alcian blue

368
Q

General-purpose histologic stain. Stains some fungal elements violet to bluish purple in mild to moderate contrast to the lighter background tissue.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

369
Q

Has advantage of allowing observation of natural pigments of fungi.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

370
Q

The best stain to demonstrate host tissue reaction and pigment of dematiaceous fungi.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

371
Q

Fungal cytoplasm is pink and the nuclei are blue.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

372
Q

Aspergillus spp. and mucoraceous moulds stain well.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

373
Q

Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon may be seen with some fungi, including Basidiobolus and Sporothrix.

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

374
Q

Fungi stain pink to red purple, nuclei may be blue depending on the counterstain used.

A

Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)

375
Q

PAS stains glycogen, so other tissue structures can have a similar appearance to yeast cells.

A

Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)

376
Q

Demonstrates the double-contoured refractile walls of Blastomyces dermatitidis that may not be visible with GMS stain.

A

Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)

377
Q

Fungal stain of choice of many dermatopathologists.

A

Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)

378
Q

Fungal elements including Pneumocystis jirovecii stain gray to black. Background is green.

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS)

379
Q

It also stains Nocardia and other actinomycetes.

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS)

380
Q

Often stains fungi too densely to observe structural details.

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS)

381
Q

Yeast cells and cysts of Pneumocystis may appear similar in size and shape.

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS)

382
Q

Stains mucin

A

Mucicarmine

383
Q

Stains the capsule of Cryptococcus that appears pinkish red and may also stain the cell walls of Blastomyces dermatitidis and Rhinosporidium seeberi.

A

Mucicarmine

384
Q

Useful for differentiating C. neoformans (gattii) from other fungi of similar size and shape when found in samples of tissue

A

Mucicarmine

385
Q

Detection of melanin of dematiaceous fungi and C. neoformans.

A

Fontana-Mason (FM)

386
Q

Cell walls appear as brown to black with pale pink background.

A

Fontana-Mason (FM)

387
Q

It was originally thought to stain only dematiaceous fungi and C. neoformans (organisms known to contain melanin or melanin precursors), but it has now been shown to stain variably, but less intensely, A. fumigatus, A. flavus, Trichosporon spp., Fusarium chlamydosporum, and some Mucorales.

A

Fontana-Mason (FM)

388
Q

Gram stain for bacteria; demonstrates the bacterial filaments of the actinomycetes, eg., Nocardia, Actinomadura.

A

Brown and Brenn (B&B)

389
Q

Specific method of detecting fungi in body fluids

A

Fluorescent antibody stain

390
Q

Direct technique: fluorescein-labeled Ab reacts with fungal antigen in cell wall.

A

Fluorescent antibody stain

391
Q

Indirect technique: unlabeled Ab complexes with fungal antigens. Fluorescein-labeled conjugate reacts with globulins attached to fungal antigens. Cell walls yellow-green.

A

Fluorescent antibody stain

392
Q

Some use the immunoperoxidase technique. Specific and highly sensitive. Can be used to detect and measure antibodies.

A

Fluorescent antibody stain

393
Q

Used for the cultivation of ascosporogenous yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

A

Acetate ascospore agar

394
Q

The potassium acetate formulation has been shown to be a better sporulation medium than sodium acetate.

A

Acetate ascospore agar

395
Q

Ascospores produced in this medium are visible microscopically after staining Kinyoun carbol-fuchsin acid-fast stain.

A

Acetate ascospore agar

396
Q

Selective and differential medium used for the isolation of Cryptococcus spp. esp. C. neoformans and C. gattii which is unique in that they produce the enzyme phenol oxidase.

A

Birdseed agar

397
Q

The breakdown of substrate (Guizotia abyssinica seeds or niger seeds) produces melanin, which is absorbed into the yeast wall and imparts a tan to brown pigmentation of the colonies.

A

Birdseed agar

398
Q

Colonies of other yeasts are beige or cream in color.

A

Birdseed agar

399
Q

Chloramphenicol is selective agent that inhibits bacteria and some fungi.

A

Birdseed agar

400
Q

Creatinine enhances melanization of some strains of C. neoformans.

A

Birdseed agar

401
Q

Selective and differential medium used for the isolation and differentiation of Candida spp.

A

Bismuth sulfite-glucose-glycine yeast (BiGGY) agar

402
Q

Nutritive bases include peptone, glucose, and yeast extract.

A

Bismuth sulfite-glucose-glycine yeast (BiGGY) agar

403
Q

Candida spp. reduce the bismuth sulfite (also acts as inhibitor of bacterial growth) to bismuth sulfide, which results in pigmentation of the yeast colony, with some species, the surrounding medium.

A

Bismuth sulfite-glucose-glycine yeast (BiGGY) agar

404
Q

C. albicans appear as brown to black colonies with no pigment diffusion and no sheen.

A

Bismuth sulfite-glucose-glycine yeast (BiGGY) agar

405
Q

C. tropicalis appear as dark brown colonies with black centers, black pigment diffusion, and sheen.

A

Bismuth sulfite-glucose-glycine yeast (BiGGY) agar

406
Q

Cycloheximide inhibits overgrowth of saprophytic fungi.

A

Brain heart infusion agar

407
Q

BHI with 10% sheep red cell (enrichment) is used for the cultivation and isolation of all fungi including fastidious dimorphic fungi.

A

Brain heart infusion agar

408
Q

Chloramphenicol and gentamicin are inhibitors of bacterial growth.

A

Brain heart infusion agar

409
Q

Adaptation of birdseed agar.

A

Caffeic agar

410
Q

Caffeic is the biologically active chemical in niger seed that causes the yeast colony of C. neoformans to turn brown.

A

Caffeic agar

411
Q

Differential medium to distinguish C. neoformans from C. gattii.

A

Canavanine-glycine-bromthymol blue agar

412
Q

A colony of Cryptococcus is streaked onto the surface of the agar and incubated at 30C for 1 to 5 days.

A

Canavanine-glycine-bromthymol blue agar

413
Q

C. gattii (serotypes B and C) turns the medium cobalt blue.

A

Canavanine-glycine-bromthymol blue agar

414
Q

C. neoformans var. grubii (serotype A) and C. neoformans var. neoformans (serotype D) leave the medium greenish yellow.

A

Canavanine-glycine-bromthymol blue agar

415
Q

Chromogenic, differential and selective medium for the isolation of clinically important yeasts.

A

CHROMagar

416
Q

Nutritive base is peptone and glucose. Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial growth.

A

CHROMagar

417
Q

The medium is available with or without fluconazole, providing additional selection of fluconazoleresistant viz., C. krusei.

A

CHROMagar

418
Q

More sensitive than SDA and helpful in identifying mixed cultures of yeasts, and it may enhance the rapid assimilation of trehalose by C. glabrata.

A

CHROMagar

419
Q

Colonies on the medium should be evaluated at 48 h.

A

CHROMagar

420
Q

Presumptive identification of Cryptococcus, Trichosporon, Rhodotorula spp.

A

Christensen’s urea agar

421
Q

Urea hydrolysis also facilitates separation of certain dermatophytes viz., T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum.

A

Christensen’s urea agar

422
Q

Medium contains urea and phenol red serving as indicator.

A

Christensen’s urea agar

423
Q

Used for the cultivation and differentiation of T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum on the basis of pigment production.

A

Cornmeal agar with 1% dextrose

424
Q

Cornmeal agar with Tween (polysorbate) 80 is used for the differentiation of Candida species on the basis of morphological characteristics.

A

Cornmeal agar with Tween 80

425
Q

Tween 80 (surfactant) is specifically incorporated in lieu of dextrose for the demonstration of pseudohyphal, chlamydospores, and arthrospores formation.

A

Cornmeal agar with Tween 80

426
Q

Chlamydospore production is best obtained by subsurface inoculation, or by placing a cover slip over the yeast inoculum, creating a microaerophilic environment— Dalmau method

A

Cornmeal agar with Tween 80

427
Q

Used for the differentiation of Aspergillus spp.

A

Czapek-Dox agar

428
Q

Sucrose is the sole carbon source, with sodium nitrate serving as the sole nitrogen source.

A

Czapek-Dox agar

429
Q

Any bacteria or fungi that can use sodium nitrate as a nitrogen source can grow on this medium.

A

Czapek-Dox agar

430
Q

Screening medium for the recovery, selection, and differentiation of dermatophytes from keratinous specimens.

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

431
Q

Contains cycloheximide that inhibits saprophytic moulds, chloramphenicol inhibits Gram-negative bacteria.

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

432
Q

Morphology and microscopic characteristics are easily identified, but pigmentation cannot be discerned because of the presence of phenol red indicator.

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

433
Q

Medium is yellow and turns red with growth of dermatophyte.

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

434
Q

Used for the isolation and growth of lipodependent Malassezia spp.

A

Leeming and Notman medium

435
Q

Components of the medium include ox bile, glycerol monostearate, glycerol, Tween 80, and cow’s milk (whole fat).

A

Leeming and Notman medium

436
Q

Medium may serve as an alternative to SDA because not all species can grow in this medium, eg., M. globosa, M. restricta, M. obtusa which require more complex media for their isolation.

A

Leeming and Notman medium

437
Q

Selective general-purpose medium used for the isolation of fungi from contaminated specimen.

A

Littman oxgall agar

438
Q

Crystal violet and streptomycin are the selective agents inhibiting bacteria.

A

Littman oxgall agar

439
Q

Oxgall restricts the spreading of fungal colonies.

A

Littman oxgall agar

440
Q

Mycobiotic Remel and Mycosel BD Diagnostic Systems are trade names for a selective medium specifically formulated for the isolation of dermatophytes but also for the isolation of other pathogenic fungi from specimens contaminated with saprophytic fungi and bacteria.

A

Mycobiotic or Mycosel agar

441
Q

Contains cycloheximide and chloramphenicol.

A

Mycobiotic or Mycosel agar

442
Q

Inhibited fungi include Candida and Aspergillus spp., mucoraceous fungi, and C. neoformans.

A

Mycobiotic or Mycosel agar

443
Q

Used to stimulate conidium production by fungi and stimulates pigment production in some dermatophytes.

A

Potato Dextrose

444
Q

Commonly used with the slide culture technique to view morphological characteristics.

A

Potato Dextrose

445
Q

The incorporation of tartaric acid in the medium lowers the pH, thereby inhibiting bacterial growth.

A

Potato Dextrose

446
Q

Consists of pancreatic digest of casein, peptic digest of animal tissue, and dextrose at 4% conc., buffered to a pH of 5.6.

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)

447
Q
A

Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)

448
Q

Emmons modified the original formulation by reducing the dextrose conc’n. To 2% and adjusting the pH nearly to neutrality 6.9 to 7.0.

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)

449
Q

Selective medium that contains:
1.Chloramphenicol
2.Cycloheximide
3.Gentamicin 4.Ciprofloxacin
5.Penicillin and(or) streptomycin

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)

450
Q

Surface area: Large (7,500mm2)

A

Petri Dish

451
Q

Surface area: Small (1,500mm2)

A

Test tube

452
Q

Oxygen supply: Good

A

Petri Dish

453
Q

Oxygen supply: Poor

A

Test tube

454
Q

Rate of drying: Relatively fast

A

Petri Dish

455
Q

Rate of drying: Relatively slow

A

Test tube

456
Q

Security of closure: Poor (lid is easily displaced)

A

Petri Dish

457
Q

Security of closure: Good

A

Test tube

458
Q

Probability of dissemination: Relatively large

A

Petri Dish

459
Q

Probability of dissemination: Relatively small

A

Test tube

460
Q

Detection of mixed culture: Relatively easy

A

Petri Dish

461
Q

Detection of mixed culture: Relatively difficult

A

Test tube

462
Q

Mold forms, most common temperature for incubation

A

25C to 30C

463
Q

Opportunistic and dimorphic organisms

A

30C

464
Q

Conversion to yeast phase for dimorphic fungi

A

25C to 37C

465
Q

< 5 days; Saprobes, opportunistic fungi, yeast

A

Rapid growers

466
Q

6 - 10 days; Subcutaneous & opportunistic fungi, dermatophytes

A

Intermediate growers

467
Q

> 11 days; Systemic & subcutaneous fungi

A

Slow growers

468
Q

Appears leather-like, or waxy little mycelium, seems to merge with the agar

A

Glabrous

469
Q

Resembles plush or suede, short aerial hyphae of equal length

A

Velvety

470
Q

Resembles colonies of other Staphylococcus spp. (formerly CoNS), “bacteria like” but more dry and dull (waxy-pasty). No aerial mycelium, with a delicate fringe around the colonies in BAP

A

Yeast like

471
Q

Wooly or “Floccose”, large quantities of long aerial hyphae that becomes entangled and may fill the entire petri dish

A

Cottony

472
Q

Powdery due to heavy conidiation or sporulation, has even hyphae and abundant conidia

A

Granular

473
Q

Presence of radial groves from the center of the culture toward the rim

A

Rugose

474
Q

Random folds (long, short, parallel at right angles or combination)

A

Folded

475
Q

Have central depression (concavity) surrounded by raised edges. Resembles S. pneumoniae colonies

A

Crateriform

476
Q

Have many warts or rough knobs on the surface

A

Verrucose

477
Q

Brain-like convolutions

A

Cerebriform

478
Q

1.Place 1-2 drops of the mounting fluid (eg., LCB) on the slide. 2.Gently remove a portion of the colony from the agar and place it on the slide.
3.Using two teasing needles, tease the strands apart.
4.Place a coverslip and examine under a microscope

A

Tease mount

479
Q

1.Wrap a piece of clear cellophane tape around a tongue blade, with the sticky side out.
2.Touch the colony with the sticky tape.
3.Lay the tape, sticky tape down on a drop of mounting fluid on a slide.

A

Scotch tape method

480
Q

1.Cut a square block (1 cm2 or 15 mm2) form an agar (eg., SDA, Cornmeal, PDA), then transfer on a sterile glass slide.
2.Inoculate all sides of the agar block, then cover with a cover slip. (22 x 22 mm).
3.Place the set-up in a moist (humidified) chamber (wet house) and incubate until growth appears.
4.Prepare a sterile glass slide with 1-2 drops of mounting fluid (LPCB).
5.Carefully remove the coverslip from the block by lightly twisting. 6.Lower the coverslip carefully onto the mounting fluid.
7.Set aside and examine under a microscope.

A

Slide culture (syn. Microculture)

481
Q

1.Make one streak of a young, actively growing yeast down the center of the area (do not cut the agar); make three or four streaks across the first to dilute the inoculum.
2.Cover with a 22-by-22-mm coverslip.
3.Incubate at room temperature, in the dark, for 3 days.
4.Examine by placing the plate, without its lid, on the microscope stage and using the low-power (X100) and high-dry (430) objectives. The most characteristic morphology (especially the terminal chlamydospores of Candida albicans) is often found near the edge of the coverslip.

A

Dalmau Method

482
Q

Conidia and spores form a fresh culture are washed off in sterile water and placed in labelled vials

A

Storage in wate

483
Q

Labelling glass tubes with a screw-capped and placed in a freezer (-70C)

A

Freezing

484
Q

Layering an entire slant with mineral oil, capping the tube tightly and storing at room temperature

A

Mineral oil overlays

485
Q

Freeze drying with the use of special equipment (lyophilizer)

A

Lyophilization

486
Q

Several immunological techniques have been used to detect antibodies during fungal infections

A

1.Immunodiffusion (ID)
2.Countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
3.Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 4.Complement-fixation test (CFTs)
5.Fluorescent-enzyme immunoassay (FEIA)

487
Q

CIE, FEIA, EIA

Aspergillus IgGAspergillus IgG

Ab detection is helpful in diagnosing allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), aspergilloma, and Chronic cavitary aspergillosis

A

Aspergillus spp.

488
Q

Commercial kits

Antigens (eg., A Ag, WI1 Ag)

Limitation: lack of sensitivity due to crossreactivity with dimorphic fungi

A

Blastomyces spp.

489
Q

EIA

Mannan Ag Candida IgG, IgM, & IgA

Sensitivity 62% Specificity 53%

A

Candida spp.

490
Q

EIA

Cryptococcus IgG, IgM, IgA Ag: Glucuronoxylmannan

Ab detection can be a marker for reactivation of disease in solid organ transplant recipient

A

Cryptococcus spp.

491
Q

A polysaccharide present in the cell wall of many fungi viz., Aspergillus, Candida, Fusarium with little or none on the following viz., Cryptococcus, Blastomyces, Mucoraceous molds.

A

1,3–D-glucan detection

492
Q

Found in the blood of patients with invasive fungal infections, and its ability to activate factor G of the horse-shoe crab coagulation pathways that allows it to be measured and quantified.

A

1,3–D-glucan detection

493
Q

Has the ability to detect organisms that are present in small numbers of that cannot be cultured.

A

Nucleic acid testing

494
Q

Removal of the risks assoc. with culturing category 3 (BSL 3 fungi)— especially for H. capsulatum

A

Nucleic acid testing

495
Q

Decrease time for identification of the agent, & the potential to detect anti fungal resistance in primary clinical specimens

A

Nucleic acid testing

496
Q

Offers the potential to identify pathogens in biopsy samples that have been formalin-fixed and even wax-embedded.

A

Nucleic acid testing