Mock 3

Question 1

The amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons is called:

a.) tissue exposure
b.) linear deposition of energy
c.) linear energy transfer
d.) effective dose limit

Answer 1

c.) linear energy transfer

Question 2

Cataractogenesis, life span shortening, embryologic effects, and carcinogenesis are examples of:

a.) short term somatic effects
b.) acute radiation syndrome
c.) genetic effects
d.) long term somatic effects

Answer 2

d.) long term somatic effects

Question 3

Compton interactions:

a.) increases contrast in the radiographic image
b.) results in scattering of the incident electrons
c.) decreases recorded detail in the radiographic image
d.) decreases contrast in the radiographic image

Answer 3

d.) decreases contrast in the radiographic image

Question 4

Gray(t), multiplied by a radiation weighting factor equals:

a.) air kerma
b.) becquerel
c.) sievert
d.) gray(a)

Answer 4

c.) sievert

Question 5

Effective dose limit (EfD):

a.) is the level of radiation that an organism can receive and probably sustain no appreciable effects
b.) is a safe level of radiation that can be received with no effects
c.) should be absorbed annually to maintain proper immunity to radiation
d.) is 500 msv per year for the general public

Answer 5

a.) is the level of radiation that an organism can receive and probably sustain no appreciable effects

Question 6

Radiation with a high LET:

a.) has low ionization
b.) is highly ionizing
c.) carries a low quality factor
d.) equates with a low RBE

Answer 6

b.) is highly ionizing

Question 7

Radiation protection is based on which dose repsonse relationship?

a.) linear threshold
b.) nonlinear nonthreshold
c.) linear nonthreshold
d.) nonlinear threshold

Answer 7

c.) linear nonthreshold

Question 8

Which of the following states that the readiosensitivity of cells is directly proportional to their reproductive activity and inversely proportional to their degree of differentiation?

a.) inverse square law
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) reciprocity law
d.) ohms law

Answer 8

b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau

Question 9

Which of the following causes aout 95% of the cellular response to radiation?

a.) direct effect
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) target theory
d.) indirect effect

Answer 9

d.) indirect effect

Question 10

When radiation strikes DNA, which of the following occurs?

a.) direct effect
b.) law of bergonie and tribondeau
c.) target theory
d.) indirect effect

Answer 10

a.) direct effect

Question 11

The amount of radiation that causes the number of genetic mutations in a population to double is called the:

a.) threshold dose
b.) doubling dose
c.) mutagenic dose
d.) genetic dose

Answer 11

b.) doubling dose

Question 12

The SI units of equivalent dose, activity, air kerma, and absorbed dose are, respectively:

a.) roentgen, rad, rem, curie
b.) rad, coloumb per kilogram, curie, becquerel
c.) rem, curie, roentgen, rad
d.) sievert, becquerel, gray(a), gray(t)

Answer 12

d.) sievert, becquerel, gray(a), gray(t)

Question 13

Medical xrays are an example of:

a.) natural background radiation
b.) artificially produced radiation
c.) nonionizing radiation
d.) ionizing, natural background radiation

Answer 13

b.) artificially produced radiation

Question 14

The effective dose limit for a fetus for the entire gestational period is:

a.) 5.0 mSv
b.) 0.5 mSv
c.) 0.05 mSv
d.) 50 mSv

Answer 14

a.) 5.0 mSv

Question 15

The photoelectric effect:

a.) results in absorption of the incident photon
b.) results in absorption of the incident electron
c.) produces contrast fog on the radiographic image
d.) is the same as brems radiation

Answer 15

a.) results in absorption of the incident photon

Question 16

The annual effective dose limit for radiographers is:

a.) 10 mSv
b.) 100 mSv
c.) 50 mSv
d.) 100 mSv

Answer 16

c.) 50 mSv

Question 17

The average dose to active bone marrow as an indicator of somatic effects on a population is called:

a.) doubling dose
b.) bone dose
c.) GSD
d.) mean marrow dose

Answer 17

d.) mean marrow dose

Question 18

A radiation dose that if received by the entire population would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the members actually being exposed is called:

a.) genetically significant dose
b.) doubling dose
c.) mean marrow dose
d.) genetic dose

Answer 18

a.) genetically significant dose

Question 19

A lead apron of at least what thickness should be worn while being exposed to scatter radiation?

a.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm Al equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm Al equivalent

Answer 19

b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent

Question 20

Use of a thyroid shield of at least what thickness should be used for fluoroscopy?

a.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm Al equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm Al equivalent

Answer 20

b.) .50 mm Pb equivalent

Question 21

How thick are primary protective barriers?

a.) 1/32 inch lead equivalent
b.) 1/16 inch aluminum equivalent
c.) 1/32 inch concrete
d.) 1/16 inch lead equivalent

Answer 21

d.) 1/16 inch lead equivalent

Question 22

Primary protective barriers, if in the wall, must extend to a height of at least:

a.) 5 feet
b.) 6 feet
c.) 7 feet
d.) 10 feet

Answer 22

c.) 7 feet

Question 23

secondary protective barriers must extend to a height of:

a.) 5 feet
b.) 6 feet
c.) the ceiling
d.) 10 feet

Answer 23

c.) the ceiling

Question 24

The protective curtain hanging from the fluoroscopy tower must be at least:

a.) 0.50 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.25 mm Al equivalent
c.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent

Answer 24

d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent

Question 25

The bucky slot cover must be at least:

a.) .50 mm Pb equivalent
b.) 0.25 mm Al equivalent
c.) 0.10 mm Pb equivalent
d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent

Answer 25

d.) 0.25 mm Pb equivalent

Question 26

Filters made of aluminum and copper are placed in the film badge to measure xrays:

a.) quantity
b.) source
c.) energy
d.) type

Answer 26

c.) energy

Question 27

Film badges are changed:

a.) quarterly
b.) weekly
c.) yearly
d.) monthly

Answer 27

d.) monthly

Question 28

Thermoluminescent dosimeters use what of crystals to record dose?

a.) dilithium crystals
b.) lithium fluoride
c.) flux capacitors
d.) bromide crystals

Answer 28

b.) lithium fluoride

Question 29

TLD’s are heated and release what type of energy to indicate dose?

a.) laser
b.) visible light
c.) xrays
d.) gamma rays

Answer 29

b.) visible light

Question 30

Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters provide reading as low as:

a.) 1 usv
b.) 10 usv
c.) 50 usv
d.) 100 usv

Answer 30

b.) 10 usv

Question 31

The recording material in an OSL dosimeter is:

a.) dilithium
b.) lithium fluoride
c.) aluminum oxide
d.) silver handle

Answer 31

c.) aluminum oxide

Question 32

The energy stored in an OSL dosimeter is released when the dosimeter is exposed to:

a.) heat
b.) white light
c.) laser
d.) ultrasound

Answer 32

c.) laser

Question 33

OSL dosimeter may be worn for:

a.) 1 month
b.) 1 week
c.) 3 months
d.) 1 year

Answer 33

c.) 3 months

Question 34

OSL dosimeters may be scanned and reanalyzed:

a.) only once
b.) monthly
c.) five times
d.) an unlimited number of times

Answer 34

d.) an unlimited number of times

Question 35

The most commonly used gonadal shield is the:

a.) shadow shield
b.) collimator
c.) contact sheild
d.) filter

Answer 35

c.) contact sheild

Question 36

For optimal radiation protection, what type of exposure technique should be used:

a.) low kvp, high mas
b.) small focal spot
c.) all manual technique
d.) high kvp, low mas

Answer 36

d.) high kvp, low mas

Question 37

For optimal radiation protection, what speed of IR should be used?

a.) slow
b.) speed has no impact on dose
c.) analog
d.) fast

Answer 37

d.) fast

Question 38

The minimum source to skin distance for portable radiography is:

a.) at least 12 inches
b.) at least 15 inches
c.) at least 72 inches
d.) at least 40 inches

Answer 38

a.) at least 12 inches

Question 39

How often is added filtration adjusted by the radiographer?

a.) after several exposures
b.) daily
c.) as part of weekly quality control
d.) never

Answer 39

d.) never

Question 40

What report does a radiographer consult and initial to verify occupational dose received?

a.) PACs
b.) dosimeter
c.) radiation
d.) annual dose report

Answer 40

b.) dosimeter

Question 41

What are radiation effects that manifest themselves in the person being irradiated?

a.) genetic
b.) exposed cell
c.) somatic
d.) molecular

Answer 41

c.) somatic

Question 42

What type of background radiation is radon?

a.) man made
b.) radioactive water
c.) natural
d.) natural form of electromagnetic waves

Answer 42

c.) natural

Question 43

The photoelectric effect is responsible for:

a.) the brightness of the image
b.) producing scatter radiation
c.) differential absorption of the xray beam by the body
d.) spatial resolution

Answer 43

c.) differential absorption of the xray beam by the body

Question 44

The unit of measurement that is determined by measuring ions produced in air as radiation passes through it is the:

a.) becquerel
b.) gray
c.) air kerma
d.) sievert

Answer 44

c.) air kerma

Question 45

One (1) is the radiation weighting factor (Wr) for:

a.) neutrons
b.) gamma rays
c.) cosmic rays
d.) radon

Answer 45

b.) gamma rays

Question 46

Atomic number is represented by the letter:

a.) M
b.) A
c.) Z
d.) Q

Answer 46

a.) M

Question 47

Atomic mass is represented by the letter:

a.) M
b.) A
c.) Z
d.) Q

Answer 47

a.) M

Question 48

The primary purpose of filtering the xray beam is to:

a.) increase contrast
b.) improve radiation protection
c.) soften the beam for proper imaging
d.) remove short wavelength rays

Answer 48

b.) improve radiation protection

Question 49

Considering probability, xray photons will probably strike:

a.) the nucleus
b.) RNA
c.) DNA
d.) water

Answer 49

d.) water

Question 50

Xray photons depositing their energy in the water of the cytoplasm may cause:

a.) electrolysis
b.) radiolysis
c.) radioactivity
d.) pair production

Answer 50

b.) radiolysis

Question 51

Free radicals may recombine to form:

a.) DNA
b.) hydrogen peroxide
c.) sulfuric acid
d.) new cytoplasm

Answer 51

b.) hydrogen peroxide

Question 52

What is the thickness of a thyroid shield that should be worn during fluoroscopy?

a.) 0.10 mm lead equivalent
b.) 0.50 mm lead equivalent
c.) 0.50 mm aluminum equivalent
d.) 0.10 mm aluminum equivalent

Answer 52

b.) 0.50 mm lead equivalent

Question 53

For sheilding purposes, what is the xray control booth considered?

a.) secondary protective barrier
b.) primary protective barrier
c.) equivalent to a lead apron
d.) a tertiary protective barrier

Answer 53

a.) secondary protective barrier

Question 54

An ionization chamber circuit places:

a.) a photomultiplier tube between the IR and the patient
b.) an ionization chamber beneath or behind the IR
c.) an ionization chamber between the patient and the xray tube
d.) an ionization chamber betweeen the IR and the patient

Answer 54

d.) an ionization chamber between the IR and the patient

Question 55

Full wave rectification uses:

a.) a single semiconductor
b.) four silicone based semiconductors
c.) the xray tube as a semiconductor
d.) four silicon based semiconductors

Answer 55

d.) four silicon based semiconductors

Question 56

A full wave rectified, three phase, 12 pulse xray machine produces approximately ______________% more average photon energy than a full wave rectified, single phase xray machine.

a.) 35
b.) 50
c.) 41
d.) 100

Answer 56

c.) 41

Question 57

According to the anode heel effect, the intensity of radiation is greater at the _____________ side of the xray tube.

a.) anode
b.) central xray
c.) neither side, the beam is of uniform intensity
d.) cathode

Answer 57

d.) cathode

Question 58

The amount of time needed for an AEC to terminate the exposure is called:

a.) exposure latitude
b.) minimum reaction time
c.) chamber response time
d.) electronic time

Answer 58

b.) minimum reaction time

Question 59

A particular xray room is shooting dark. the problem arises when a change is made from 200 to 300 mA using fixed kvp techniques at 0.16 seconds. Which of the following would lead to an accurate diagnosis of the problem?

a.) resolution test pattern
b.) measurement of HVL
c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure reproducibility
d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity

Answer 59

d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity

Question 60

An outpatient radiographic room is used primarily for tabletop radiography of the extremities. On a particularly busy afternoon, the radiographers find that similar exposure techniques on successive patients result in substantially different radiographs. Which of the following would lead to an accurate diagnosis of the problem?

a.) contrast test pattern
b.) measurement of HVL
c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure resproducibility
d.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure linearity

Answer 60

c.) use of a digital dosimeter to determine exposure reproducibility

Question 61

Xray beam quality is expressed in terms of:

a.) half value layer
b.) exposure linearity
c.) exposure reproducibility
d.) mas

Answer 61

a.) half value layer

Question 62

The accuracy of collimation at a 40 inch sid must be:

a.) 4 inches
b.) 8/10 inches
c.) 1 inch
d.) 1/10 inch

Answer 62

b.) 8/10 inch

Question 63

The accuracy of kvp at 80 kvp must be:

a.) within 5%
b.) within 10%
c.) within 15%
d.) within 20%

Answer 63

b.) within 10%

Question 64

The apparent size of the focal spot as viewed by the image receptor is called the:

a.) actual focal spot
b.) target angle spot
c.) anode heel effect
d.) effective focal spot

Answer 64

d.) effective focal spot

Question 65

Which of the following interactions is the primary souce of diagnostic xrays?

a.) photoelectric effect
b.) brems
c.) compton
d.) pair production

Answer 65

b.) brems

Question 66

The components of a grid are:

a.) Pb strips and Pb interspacers
b.) Al strips and Pb interspacers
c.) Pb strips and Al interspacers
d.) Pb strips and cardboard interspacers

Answer 66

c.) Pb strips and Al interspacers

Question 67

Which of the following lists of substances that make up the human body best places them in increasing order of density?

a.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone
b.) bone, muscle, water, fat, air
c.) air, fat, muscle, water, bone
d.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone, tooth enamel

Answer 67

a.) air, fat, water, muscle, bone

Question 68

Bit depth describes:

a.) the available gray scale of an imaging system
b.) window level
c.) spatial resolution
d.) optimum exposure needed for an imaging system

Answer 68

a.) the available gray scale of an imaging system

Question 69

If it is necessary to reduce exposure by half, and it is impossible to do so by changing mAs, the radiographer may:

a.) reduce SID by half
b.) double SID
c.) decrease kvp by 15%
d.) devcrease kvp by 50%

Answer 69

c.) decrease kvp by 15%

Question 70

The dynamic range for digital imaging is:

a.) wide
b.) narrow
c.) unrelated to diagnostic imaging

Answer 70

a.) wide

Question 71

Dynamic range is defined as :

a.) the range of exposures over which a detector can acquire image data
b.) exposure latitude
c.) window width
d.) window level

Answer 71

a.) the range of exposures over which a detector can acquire image data

Question 72

Modulation transfer function (MTF) is:

a.) the controlling factor of contrast resolution
b.) a measure of the ability of the imaging system to preserve signal contrast as a function of the spatial resolution
c.) a function of exposured
d.) a function of pixel density

Answer 72

b.) a measure of the ability of the imaging system to preserve signal contrast as a function of the spatial resolution

Question 73

2n (where n equals the number of bits) defines:

a.) pixel density
b.) shades of gray
c.) bit depth
d.) detector element size

Answer 73

c.) bit depth

Question 74

A scintillator:

a.) absorbs xray energy and emits part of that energy as visible light
b.) absorbs xray energy and emits that energy as electrons
c.) converts visible light into electrons
d.) converts electrons into visible light

Answer 74

a.) absorbs xray energy and emits part of that energy as visible light

Question 75

The magnitude of the signal differences in the remnant beam refers to:

a.) subject contrast
b.) IP contrast
c.) window level
d.) spatial resolution

Answer 75

a.) subject contrast

Question 76

A term used to describe the mathematical formula used by the computer to reconstruct the image is:

a.) bit depth
b.) algorithm
c.) mathematical function
d.) exposure equation

Answer 76

b.) algorithm

Question 77

When speed is essential in completing an imaging examination, the preferred IR is:

a.) CR
b.) DR
c.) wireless DR plate

Answer 77

c.) wireless DR plate

Question 78

Pixel is an acronym meaning:

a.) detector element
b.) picture element
c.) volume element
d.) bit element

Answer 78

a.) detector element

Question 79

Improper use of grids with a digital imaging system may cause an artifact known as:

a.) moire pattern
b.) grid cutoff
c.) motion artifact
d.) quatam mottle

Answer 79

b.) grid cutoff

Question 80

An integrated system of images and information is called:

a.) DICOM
b.) DDR
c.) CR/DDR
d.) PACS

Answer 80

a.) DICOM

Question 81

Image noise may be described as :

a.) undesirable fluctuations in brightness
b.) undesirable fluctuations in contrast
c.) inadequate spatial resolution
d.) a function of MAS

Answer 81

a.) undesirable fluctuations in brightness

Question 82

The measurement of the luminance of a monitor is called:

a.) density
b.) contrast
c.) brightness
d.) detail visibility

Answer 82

c.) brightness

Question 83

grid radius is:

a.) the total amount of lead in a grid
b.) the objective plane
c.) H/D
d.) the range of SIDs that may be used with a focused grid

Answer 83

d.) the range of SIDs that may be used with a focused grid

Question 84

Visibility of an objects edge may be limited by:

a.) speed class
b.) modulation transfer function
c.) contrast resolution
d.) quantam noise

Answer 84

d.) quantam noise

Question 85

Detective quantam efficiency indicates:

a.) patient dose
b.) potential speed class
c.) spatial resolution
d.) contrast resolution

Answer 85

b.) potential speed class

Question 86

Digital receptors have what kind of response to exposure?

a.) nonlinear
b.) linear
c.) curvilinear
d.) hyperlinear

Answer 86

b.) linear

Question 87

If the angle on the anode is decreased, what effect is there on spatial resolution?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 87

a.) increases

Question 88

If mas is increased four times, what is the effect on receptor exposure?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 88

a.) increases

Question 89

If SID is increased, what is the effect on IR exposure?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 89

b.) decreases

Question 90

If OID is decreased what is the effect on spatial resolution ?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 90

a.) Increases

Question 91

A photodiode converts:

a.) AC to DC
b.) light into a charge
c.) electrons into light
d.) MRI signal into PACS data

Answer 91

b. ) light into a charge

Question 92

If kvp is increased, what happens to attenuation of the beam in the patient?

a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) no appreaciable effects

Answer 92

b.) decrease

Question 93

In a conversion from a nongrid to a 12:1 grid, what happens to image contrast?

a.) increases
b. ) decrease
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 93

a.) increases

Question 94

If SID is decreased from 60 inches to 30 inches, what happens to magnification?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 94

a.) increases

Question 95

If the IR is moved from tabletop to bucky, what happens to spatial resolution?

a.) increase
b.) decreases
c.) no appreciable effect

Answer 95

a.) increases

Question 96

If there is a decrease in source to object distance, what happens to spatial resolution?

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) No appreciable effects

Answer 96

a.) increases

Question 97

The amount of lead in a grid is referred to as:

a.) grid frequency
b.) grid ratio
c.) grid radius
d.) grid cleanup ability

Answer 97

a.) grid frequency

Question 98

For the parietoacanthial projection (waters) for the sinuses, the oml forms an angle of how many degrees with the cassette?

a.) 53
b.) 45
c.) 25
d.) 37

Answer 98

d.) 37

Question 99

For the PA axial projection for the colon, the central ray is angled caudad how many degrees?

a.) 10 to 20
b.) 20 to 30
c.) 30 to 40
d.) 25 to 45

Answer 99

c.) 30 to 40

Question 100

the carpal bones are arranged in two rows as follows:

Answer 100

proximal row (schaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform)
distal row (trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate)

Question 101

The prominent point of the elbow is called:

a.) olecranon, part of the radius
b.) semilunar notch
c.) trochlea
d.) olecranon, part of the ulna

Answer 101

d.) Olecranon, part of the ulna

Question 102

Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the cervical spine?

a.) talipes
b.) colles fracture
c.) ankylosing spondylitis
d.) jefferson fracture

Answer 102

d.) jefferson fracture

Question 103

Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the hand?

a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 103

c.) boxer fracture

Question 104

Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the distal forearm ?

a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 104

b.) colle fracture

Question 105

Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the feet?

a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 105

a.) talipes

Question 106

Imaging of what pathologic condition would require radiography of the entire spine?

a.) talipes
b.) colle fracture
c.) boxer fracture
d.) ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 106

d.) ankylosing spondylitis

Question 107

A patient unable to supinate the hand for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the forearm:

a.) should be made to do so to provide a diagnostic radiograph
b.) probably has a fracture of the radial head and must be handled carefully
c.) probably has a low pain tolerance and must be handled carefully
d.) may require radiographs with and without weights

Answer 107

b.) probably has a fracture of the radial head and must be handled carefully

Question 108

When a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the clavicle is performed, the central ray should be angled:

a.) 15 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 degrees caudad
c.) 25 to 30 degrees cephald
d.) 25 to 30 degrees caudad

Answer 108

d.) 25 to 30 degrees caudad

Question 109

When a lateral projection of the knee is performed, the knee should be:

a.) extended 20 to 30 degrees
b.) flexed to a 90 degree angle
c.) flexed 20 to 30 degrees
d.) fully extended

Answer 109

c.) flexed 20 to 30 degrees

Question 110

When a tangential projection of the patella is performed with the patient prone, the central ray should be angled:

a.) 15 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 degrees caudad
c.) 25 degreees cephalad
d.) 45 degrees cephalad

Answer 110

d.) 45 degrees cephalad

Question 111

Use of which of the following would provide an improved image of the femur?

a.) wedge filter
b.) anode heel effect
c.) short SID
d.) long OID

Answer 111

b.) anode heel effect

Question 112

When an AP projection of the hip is performed, the central ray is directed:

a.) perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter
b.) parallel to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter
c.) at a 15 degree cephalad angle
d.) to the level of the ASIS

Answer 112

a.) perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) at the level of the superior margin of the greater trochanter

Question 113

When an AP oblique projection is performed for the cervical vertebrae, the central ray is directed:

a.) 25 to 30 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
c.) 5 to 10 degrees cephalad
d.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

Answer 113

d.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

Question 114

When the AP oblique projection is performed for the lumbar vertebra, the side of interest is:

a.) fartherest from the image receptor
b.) closeest to the image receptor
c.) rotated 30 degrees
d.) rotated 20 degrees

Answer 114

b.) closest to the image receptor

Question 115

When the PA oblique projection for the sacroiliac joints is performed, the side of interest is:

a.) fartherest from the image receptor
b.) clsoest to the image receptor
c.) rotated 10 degrees
d.) rotated 45 degrees

Answer 115

a.) fartherest from the image receptor

Question 116

Routine chest radiography is performed:

a.) at the end of full inspiration
b.) at the end of full expiration
c.) at the end of the second full inspiration
d.) with the patient supine or upright

Answer 116

c.) at the end of the second full inspiration

Question 117

The primary purpose of performing oblique projections of the ribs is:

a.) to image the axillary portion of the ribs
b.) to image the ribs above the diaphragm
c.) to image the ribs below the diaphragm
d.) to determine the extent of the patients pain tolerance

Answer 117

a.) to image the axiallary portion of the ribs

Question 118

when the PA projection of the skull is performed to image the frontal bone:
1.) the central ray is directed perpendicular to the IR
2.) the OML is perpendicular to the IR
3.) the central ray exits at the glabella
4.) MSP is paralle to the cassette

a.) all are true
b.) 1, 2
c.) 1, 3, 4
d.) 1, 3

Answer 118

b.) 1, 2

Question 119

Which of the following bones has no body?

a.) atlas
b.) axis
c.) thoracic vertebra
d.) lumbar vertebra

Answer 119

a.) atlas

Question 120

This forms the medial part of the anterior chest wall?

a.) manubrium
b.) floating
c.) xiphoid
d.) sternum

Answer 120

d.) sternum

Question 121

which of the following is (are) located just below the head of the humerus?

a.) greater and lesser trochanter
b.) bicipital groove
c.) capitulum
d.) trochlea

Answer 121

a.) greater and lesser trochanter

Question 122

Blood vessels, the brochial tree and nerves enter the lungs at this point:

a.) trachea
b.) left lung
c.) right lung
d.) hilus

Answer 122

d.) hilus

Question 123

The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the:

a.) rugae
b.) pylorous
c.) fundus
d.) greater curvature

Answer 123

b.) pylourous

Question 124

The part of the urinary system located between the renal pelvis and the bladder is called thee:

a.) cortex
b.) medulla
c.) nephron
d.) ureter

Answer 124

d.) ureter

Question 125

The first tier of transmission based isolation precautions is called:

a.) universal precautions
b.) standard precautions
c.) infection control
d.) linear, nonthreshold

Answer 125

b.) standard precautions

Question 126

The first step in pouring liquids into containers in a sterile field is to:

a.) allow the liquid to drop onto the sterile field
b.) pour a small amount into a waste receptacle to cleanse the lip of the bottle
c.) carefully determine the contents of the container
d.) immediately pour the solution when requested to do so

Answer 126

b.) pour a small amount into a waste receptacle to cleanse the lip of the bottle

Question 127

What is usually used to perform medical asepsis?

a.) water and chemicals
b.) complete sterilization procedure
c.) surgical suite procedures
d.) soap and water

Answer 127

a.) water and chemicals

Question 128

The suffix that means condition is:

a.) pathy
b.) itis
c.) osis
d.) tomy

Answer 128

c.) osis

Question 129

The suffix that means disease is:

a.) osis
b.) pathy
c.) rhaphy
d.) scopy

Answer 129

b.) pathy

Question 130

bradycardia indicates a pules of:

a.) greater than 100 beats per minute
b.) greater than 60 beats per minute
c.) greater than 90 beats per minute
d.) less than 60 beats per minute

Answer 130

d.) less than 60 beats per minute

Question 131

Normal adult respiration is:

a.) greater than 100 beats per minute
b.) less than 60 beats per minute
c.) 12 to 16 breaths per minute
d.) 12 to 16 beats per minute

Answer 131

c.) 12 to 16 breaths per minute

Question 132

The radiographer must be proficient in the use of which of the following medical instruments?

a.) angiography catheter
b.) sphygmomnanometer
c.) thermometer
d.) oxygen administration equipment

Answer 132

d.) oxygen adiministration equipment

Question 133

A tube used to feed a patient or to perform gastric suction is called a:

a.) tracheostomy tube
b.) tracheotomy tube
c.) nasogastric tube
d.) ventilator tube

Answer 133

c.) nasogastric tube

Question 134

Nosocomial infections are acquired:

a.) in radiology
b.) through the nose
c.) during cold and flu season
d.) in the health care setting

Answer 134

d.) in the health care setting

Question 135

During movement and transfer of patients, urinary catheter bags should be:

a.) safely placed on the patients abdomen
b.) kept below the level of the bladder
c.) kept below the level of the xray table
d.) kept on the cart or wheelchair

Answer 135

b.) kept below the level of the bladder

Question 136

The first task that must be performed when beginning a radiographic examination of a patient is to:

a.) verify patient identity
b.) determine accuracy of physicians orders
c.) verify the examination to be performed
d.) remove radiopaque objects from the area of interest

Answer 136

a.) verify patient identity

Question 137

Which of the following is not required for valid consent?

a.) pateint must be of legal age
b.) patient must be adequately informed and sign a consent form
c.) patient must be mentally competent
d.) consent must be offered voluntarily

Answer 137

b.) patient must be adequately informed and sign a consent form

Question 138

The prefix that means around is:

a.) poly
b.) peri
c.) retro
d.) trans

Answer 138

b.) peri

Question 139

The prefix that mean many is:

a.) poly
b.) peri
c.) hemi
d.) epi

Answer 139

a.) poly

Question 140

A system that uses barriers between individuals and assumes all patients are infectious is called:

a.) standard precautions
b.) whole body isolations
c.) sterile technique
d.) surgical asepsis

Answer 140

a.) standard precautions

Question 141

When you are performing patient care in radiology:

a.) hands should be washed after each procedure
b.) gowns and gloves should always be worn
c.) hands should be washed only after you care for obviously infectious patients
d.) gloves should be worn only when you perform gastrointestinal procedures or venipuncture

Answer 141

a.) hands should be washed after each procedure

Question 142

Patient transfer from cart to xray table should be performed:

a.) alone when working evenings or nights
b.) by radiographers working in pairs at all times
c.) alone when the department is busy or has a staff shortage
d.) in pairs only when other radiographers are available to assist

Answer 142

b.) by radiographers working in pairs at all times

Question 143

Your best source for the latest information regarding standard precautions is the:

a.) radiology administrator
b.) radiology purchasing manager
c.) infection control department
d.) radiologist

Answer 143

c.) infection control department

Question 144

After all radiographic or fluoroscopic procedures, the radiographer should use _____________ to clean surfaces with which the patient was in contact

a.) alcohol
b.) surgical asepsis
c.) soap and water
d.) medical asepsis

Answer 144

d.) medical asepsis

Question 145

When sterile fields are prepared, damp packages:

a.) are always considered contaminated
b.) are always considered sterile because the dampness confirms they were cleaned
c.) should be unwrapped first and placed in the center of the sterile field
d.) are always considered sterile; the dampness is a remnant of the gassing process

Answer 145

a.) are always considered contaminated

Question 146

When mobile radiography is performed, the mobile unit:

a.) does not have to be cleaned because it is never in contact with sterile fields
b.) must be cleaned before and after each use
c.) msut be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units
d.) must be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units and after its removal from most isolation units

Answer 146

d.) must be cleaned before it is brought into surgical areas or reverse isolation units and after its removal from most isolation units

Question 147

When radiography is performed on patients in isolation the IR:

a.) should be placed in a protective covering only if the patient is in reverse isolation
b.) must always be placed in a protective covering
c.) should be placed in a protective covering to keep it free of microbes
d.) should be placed in a protective covering, so that no microbes leave the room

Answer 147

b.) must always be placed in a protective covering

Question 148

Which of the following procedures should a radiographer be prepared to assist with at any time?

a.) cardiac massage
b.) defibrillation
c.) feeding tube insertion
d.) CPR

Answer 148

d.) CPR

Question 149

In addition to performing radiography on a trauma victim, the radiographer should be:
1.) assessing the patients condition continually
2.) interpreting the images for the emergency department physician
3.) taking additional projections as indicated by the patients condition or prelimiary images
4.) keeping all other health care workers out of the room because of radiaiton protection standards
5.) providing comfort and communicating quietly with the patient, whether the patient is conscious or unconcious

a.) 1, 3
b.) 4, 5
c.) 1, 3, 5
d.) 1, 3, 4, 5

Answer 149

c.) 1, 3, 5

Question 150

For a barium enema the contrast agent shoul dbe mixed with:

a.) cold water
b.) water at or below body temp
c.) water at approximately 120 dgrees F
d.) water at approximately 100 F

Answer 150

d.) water at approximately 100 F

Question 151

All iodinated contrast media used today contain:

a.) iodine and free ions
b.) free ions
c.) only iodine
d.) salts of organic iodine compounds

Answer 151

d.) salts of organic iodine compounds

Question 152

The highest incidence of contrast agent reactions occurs with the use of:

a.) negative contrast media
b.) ionic iodinated contrast media
c.) nonionic iodinated contrast media
d.) barium sulfate

Answer 152

b.) ionic iodinated contrast media

Question 153

Ir is important for the radiographer to obtain the recent history of radiographic examinations performed on a patient so that;

a.) an overdose of iodinated contrast media does not occur from examinations recently performed
b.) an overdose of radiation is not administered
c.) unnecessary examinations may be avoided
d.) costs may be contained

Answer 153

a.) an overdose of iodinated contrast media does not occur from examination recently perfomred

Question 154

For a patient who has a history of intravenous urography and no contrast agent reactions:

a.) the radiographer may assume there would be no reaction on other subsequent intrvenous urograms
b.) the radioger must assume there is a chance of a reaction on other contrast examinations
c.) the radiographer must assume there is a chance of a reaction on subsequent intravenous urtograms
d.) there is no chance of reactions on subsequent intravenous urograms

Answer 154

c.) the radiographer must assume there is a chance of a reaction on subsequent intravenous urtograms

Question 155

A negative contrast agent used in chest radiography and some arthrography is:

a.) barium sulfate
b.) iodine
c.) perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix
d.) air

Answer 155

d.) air

Question 156

A positve contrast agent administered to the pateitn who is going to surgery is:

a.) barium sulfate
b.) iodine
c.) perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix
d.) aqueous iodine compound

Answer 156

d.) aqueous iodine compound

Question 157

In an attempt to maintain the quality of patient care at the highest level possible over time, proof of continuing education is mandatory for renewal of certification with:

a.) state licensing boards in all 50 states
b.) american society of radiologic technologists
c.) the joint commision
d.) ARRT

Answer 157

d.) ARRT