Procedures Unit Test Flashcards

1
Q

In order to accurately position the patient for hip images, one has to localize two bony points on the pelvis. These two reference points are the:

1.) superior margin of the pubis symphysis
2.) lesser trochanter of the femur
3.) anterior superior iliac spine

a.) 1 and 3
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 2 and 3

A

a.) 1 and 3

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2
Q

The obliquity used to demonstrate the zygopophyseal joints of the lumbar spine is 45 degrees. When evaluating the resultant radiography, how is the correctness of the obliquity demonstrated?

a.) relationship of the pedical and the lumbar body
b.) spaced between adjacent vertebral bodies
c.) distance between the ear and tip of the front leg of the scottie dog
d.) amount of curvature in the lumbar region

A

a.) relationship of the pedical and the lumbar body

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3
Q

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?

a.) PA and RAO
b.) AP and RAO
c.) PA and LAO
d.) AP and LPO

A

c.) PA and LAO

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4
Q

The vermiform appendix of the colon is attached to the:

a.) sigmoid
b.) ascending colon
c.) cecum
d.) ileum

A

c.) cecum

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5
Q

A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the midaspect of the fourth and fifth metacarpals is partially superimposed. What specific positioning error has been committed ?

a.) incorrect CR angulation
b.) excessive lateral rotation
c.) fingers of hand are not flexed sufficiently
d.) insufficient lateral rotation

A

b.) excessive lateral rotation

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6
Q

A comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas that involves both anterior and posterior arches and causing displacement of the fragments?

a.) spina bifida
b.) jefferson fracture
c.) spondylolysis
d.) handman fracture

A

b.) jefferson fracture

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7
Q

A general positioning rule is to place the long axis of the part ______________ to the long axis of the image receptor.

a.) axial
b.) adjacent
c.) parallel
d.) perpendicular

A

c.) parallel

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8
Q

What is the purpose for the AP stress views of the ankle?

a.) to demonstrate possible stress fractures
b.) to demonstrate possible joint separations or ligament tear
c.) to demonstrate tears in the joint spaces
d.) to demonstrate loose bodies in the ankle joint

A

b.) to demonstrate possible joint separations or ligament tear

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9
Q

Which of the following evaluation criteria pertains to the AP oblique projection of the ribs?

a.) axillary portion of the ribs of interest should be free of superimposition
b.) sternal ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the vertebral column
c.) trachea should be seen in the midline of the thorax
d.) heart and mediastinum should be seen in the center of the image

A

a.) axillary portion of the ribs of interest should be free of superimposition

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10
Q

The CR for an AP axial L5-S1 view of a male patient should be?

a.) 30 caudal
b.) 35 caudal
c.) 30 cephalic
d.) 35 cephalic

A

c.) 30 cephalic

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11
Q

A left AP hip image of a patient who was rotated toward the right side demonstrates:
1.) a narrowed left obturator foramen
2.) the sacrum and coccyx rotated toward the left hip
3.) a narrowed left iliac wing
4.) the lesser trochanter in profile

a.) 2, 3 and 4 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3 only
c.) 1 only
d.) 2 and 3 only

A

d.) 2 and 3 only

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12
Q

A radiograph taken during an esophagram using thin barium mixture demonstrates that there is very little contrast media in the esophagus. Which of the following points will improve filling of the esophagus? (the exposure was made on inspiration after the last swallow)

a.) shorten exposure time
b.) have the patient perform mullers maneuver during the exposure
c.) have the patient perform valsalvas maneuver during the exposure
d.) have the patient drink during the exposure

A

d.) have the patient drink during the exposure

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13
Q

For a lateral projection of the abdomen, the patient can be placed in the dorsal decubitus position, left lateral position and left lateral decubitus position. All require which of the following?

a.) the patient should suspend respiration after expiration
b.) the central ray should enter the left side of the patient
c.) the central ray should enter the anterior side of the abdomen
d.) the patient should suspend respiration after inspiration

A

a.) the patient should suspend respiration after expiration

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14
Q

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the L4-L5 vertebral level?

a.) lower costal margin
b.) ASIS
c.) iliac crest
d.) xiphoid process

A

c.) iliac crest

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15
Q

Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus?

a.) medical cuneiform
b.) cuboid
c.) lateral cuneiform
d.) navicular

A

d.) navicular

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16
Q

The primary structures shown when demonstrating the elbow using the coyle method are the:
1.) coracoid process
2.) coronoid process
3.) radial head

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 1 and 2

A

b.) 2 and 3

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17
Q

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a follow up study of the lumbar spine. The patient had a spinal fusion performed at the L3-4 level 4 months earlier. Which of the following would best demonstrate the degree of movement at the fusion site?

a.) lateral hyperextension and hyperflexion projections
b.) ferguson method
c.) right and left 45 degrees oblique projections
d.) AP and lateral erect projections

A

a.) lateral hyperextension and hyperflexion projections

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18
Q

The opening between the small intestine and the large intestine is called the:

a.) ileocecal valve
b.) pyloric valve
c.) greater duodenal papilla
d.) ampulla of vater

A

a.) ileocecal valve

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19
Q

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that:

1.) the epicondyles be parallel to the IR
2.) the radius and ulna be superimposed distally
3.) the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 only
c.) 1 and 2
d.) 2 and 3

A

d.) 2 and 3

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20
Q

The act of swallowing is termed:

a.) aphasia
b.) digestion
c.) deglutition
d.) mastication

A

c.) deglutition

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21
Q

When performing trauma radiography:

a.) remove cervical collars only under the direction of a radiologist
b.) remove cervical collars only under the direction of an emergency department physician
c.) splints, bandages, and cervical collars should be removed so that they do not obstruct the anatomy that must be imaged
d.) splints, bandages, and cervical collars should be removed only after preliminary images have been viewed by a physician so that they do not obstruct the anatomy that must be imaged

A

d.) splints, bandages and cervical collars should be removed only after preliminary images have been viewed by a pysician so that they do not obstruct the anatomy that must be imaged

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22
Q

The suture formed by the temporal and parietal bone is the:

a.) squamosal
b.) mid sagital
c.) lambdoidal
d.) mid coronal

A

a.) squamosal

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23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding positioning for the waters method?
1.) the orbitomeatal line forms a 37 degree angle with the plane of the cassette
2.) the mentomeatal line is perpendicular to the cassette plane
3.) the coronal plane is perpendicular to the cassette plane

a.) 1 and 3
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

c.) 1 and 2

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24
Q

Which portion of the scapula articulates with the humeral head?

a.) glenoid fossa
b.) coracoid process
c.) acromion
d.) coronoid process

A

a.) glenoid fossa

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25
Q

An AP chest image obtained with the patient rotated into an RPO position demonstrates :
1.) the left SC joint superimposed over the vertebral column
2.) the left posterior ribs with greater length than right posterior ribs
3.) a manubrium superimposed over the fourth thoracic vertebra
4.) elevated lateral clavicular ends

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 2 and 4 only

A

a.) 1 and 3 only

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26
Q

If someone is hit directly in the eye, a __________ fracture can occur.

a.) tripod
b.) lefort
c.) blowout
d.) colles

A

c.) blowout

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27
Q

The following bones participate in the formation of the obturator foramen:
1.) ilium
2.) ischium
3.) pubis

a.) 1 and 2
b.) 1 and 3
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

c.) 2 and 3

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28
Q

A patient is lying on her back. The xray tube is horizontally directed with the CR entering the right side of the body. The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body. What is the radiographic position ?

a.) right lateral decubitus
b.) left lateral
c.) dorsal decubitus
d.) left lateral decubitus

A

c.) dorsal decubitus

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29
Q

The RPO position (judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the :

a.) Posterior rim of the right acetabulum
b.) left iliac wing
c.) anterior rim of the right acetabulum
d.) anterior iliopubic column

A

c.) anterior rim of the right acetabulum

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30
Q

The patients chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:

a.) assist in maintaining an upright position
b.) avoid superimposition on the apices
c.) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
d.) keep the MSP parallel

A

b.) avoid superimposition on the apices

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31
Q

The largest sinus is the:

a.) ethmoidal
b.) frontal
c.) sphenoid
d.) maxillary

A

d.) maxillary

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32
Q

What type of respiration should be used for abdominal radiography?

a.) suspend respiration
b.) inspiration
c.) breathing technique
d.) expiration

A

d.) expiration

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33
Q

Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity frequently fractured?

a.) third
b.) first
c.) fourth
d.) fifth

A

d.) fifth

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34
Q

The hip bone is comprised of which of the following:
1.) ilium
2.) pubis
3.) sacrum

a.) 1 and 3
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2

A

d.) 1 and 2

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35
Q

A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion die to bowel perstalsis (involuntary contractions). Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?

a.) decrease SID
b.) turn patient into prone position rather than supine
c.) decrease exposure time
d.) use higher kv

A

c.) decrease exposure time

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36
Q

A high and transverse stomach would be found in an ________ patient.

a.) sthenic
b.) asthenic
c.) hypersthenic
d.) hyposthenic

A

c.) hypersthenic

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37
Q

Which of the following would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

a.) medial oblique
b.) AP erect
c.) lateral recumbent
d.) AP recumbent

A

b.) AP erect

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38
Q

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection for the cervical spine?

a.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
b.) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
c.) CR is perpendicular to the image receptor
d.) 5 to 10 degrees cephalad

A

a.) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

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39
Q

A vertical plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is called:

a.) squamosal plane
b.) transverse plane
c.) coronal plane
d.) sagital plane

A

c.) coronal plane

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40
Q

Why must the technologist slightly angle the CR caudad for most AP projections of the chest?

a.) this prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of lungs
b.) this separates the heart from the great vessels
c.) this elongates the carina
d.) this prevents overlap of chin on the upper airway

A

a.) this prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of the lungs

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41
Q

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile with which of the following positions?

a.) medial oblique elbow
b.) lateral oblique elbow
c.) AP scapula
d.) scapular Y

A

a.) medial oblique elbow

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42
Q

The articulating surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are covered with fibrocartilage. These surfaces are called:

a.) foramen
b.) notches
c.) facets
d.) tubercles

A

c.) facets

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43
Q

Which structure of the knee is best demonstrated with the PA axial projection (holmblad method)?

a.) intercondylar fossa
b.) tibiofibular articulation
c.) patella
d.) femoropatellar joint

A

a.) intercondylar fossa

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44
Q

The small, synovial filled sacs, which relieve pressure and reduce friction in joint tissues, are called:

a.) tendons
b.) bursae
c.) ligaments
d.) cartilage

A

b.) bursae

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45
Q

Which cranial bone contains the cribiform plate?

a.) occipital
b.) ethmoid
c.) sphenoid
d.) temporal

A

b.) ethmoid

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46
Q

Situation: A geriatric patient comes to radiology for a lumbar spine series. She has severe kyphosis of the thoracolumbar spine. Which one of the following modifications should be applied to this patient?

a.) use high (90 KV) for all projections
b.) include all the entire spine for all projections regardless what was ordered by the physician
c.) perform all positions erect
d.) perform all positions recumbent, include flexion and extension projections

A

c.) perform all positions erect

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47
Q

To prevent lateral rotation, how should the foot be positioned for a lateral projection of the ankle?

a.) in plantar flexion
b.) in dorsiflexion
c.) on a 15 degree angle wedge
d.) on a 10 degree angle wedge

A

b.) in dorsiflexion

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48
Q

_____________ is caused by a bacteria and is spread through droplets in the air.

a.) lung abcess
b.) RSV
c.) tuberculosis
d.) pneumosis

A

c.) tuberculosis

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49
Q

A waters projection will demonstrate which structure the best?

a.) odontoid
b.) crista galli
c.) maxillary sinus
d.) ethmoid sinus

A

c.) maxillary sinus

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50
Q

The third metacarpal of the hand articulates with the:

a.) lunate
b.) capitate
c.) scaphoid
d.) hamate

A

b.) capitate

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51
Q

Along with the use of erect positions what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in paranasal sinuses?

a.) use of medium kv
b.) horizontal xray beam
c.) use of IR without a grid
d.) small focal spot

A

b.) horizontal xray beam

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52
Q

A correctly positioned lateral skull can be evaluated by the:

1.) orbital roofs
2.) petrous ridges
3.) sella turcica
4.) EAM’s

a.) 3 and 4
b.) 2 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 3

A

d.) 1 and 3

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53
Q

Which plane must be accurately parallel with the IR to prevent distortion of the thoracic structures during a lateral chest radiograph?

a.) transverse plane
b.) midsagital plane
c.) coronal plane
d.) horizontal plane

A

b.) midsagital plane

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54
Q

If the teeth are obscurring the odontoid process in the open mouth position, how should skull positioning be adjusted ?

a.) bring the chin up
b.) lower the chin
c.) tilt the head slightly to the right
d.) flex the head toward more

A

a.) bring the chin up

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55
Q

During a double contrast BE , which of the following positions would afford the best visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the descending colon?

a.) left lateral decubitus
b.) right lateral decubitus
c.) ventral decubitus
d.) AP or PA erect

A

b.) right lateral decubitus

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56
Q

What is the difference, in degrees between the infraorbitalmeatal and orbitomeatal lines?

a.) 7 to 8 degrees
b.) 15 to 2 degrees
c.) 10 degrees
d.) 20 to 25 degrees

A

a.) 7 to 8 degrees

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57
Q

Which projection of the knee best opens the femoropatellar space?

a.) AP
b.) lateral
c.) internal oblique
d.) external oblique

A

b.) lateral

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58
Q

Which structures are located on the proximal radius?

a.) head and styloid process
b.) head and tuberosity
c.) olecranon process and tuberosity
d.) olecranon process and styloid process

A

b.) head and tuberosity

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59
Q

The pituitary gland is located in which cranial bone?

a.) sphenoid
b.) ethmoid
c.) parietal
d.) palatine

A

a.) sphenoid

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60
Q

The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the:

a.) ischial tuberosity
b.) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
c.) symphysis pubis
d.) iliac crests

A

b.) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

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61
Q

A correctly positioned modified waters projection of the facial bones will include the OML forming a ____________ degree angle to the image receptor

a.) 50
b.) 55
c.) 30
d.) 37

A

b.) 55

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62
Q

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1.) scapular Y
2.) inferosuperior axial
3.) transthoracic lateral

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 1 only
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 2 and 3

A

c.) 1, 2 and 3

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63
Q

The minimum projections needed for every radiographic exam are:

a.) flat and upright
b.) AP and lateral
c.) two at right angles to one another
d.) both sides

A

c.) two at right angles to one another

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64
Q

A radiographic image of the skull is to be obtained in the AP axial (towne) projection. If the infraorbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor the central ray should be directed:

a.) at a caudal angulation of 37 degrees
b.) at a caudal angulation of 30 degrees
c.) at a caudal angulation of 42 degrees
d.) at a cephalic angulation of 45 degrees

A

a.) at a caudal angulation of 37 degrees

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65
Q

For the KUB image, when should respiration be suspended and what effect will it have on the patient?

a.) on full expiration, depresses the diaphragm
b.) on full inspiration, elevates the diaphragm
c.) on pull inspiration, depresses the diaphragm
d.) on full expiration, elevates the diaphragm

A

d.) on full expiration, elevates the diaphragm

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66
Q

The xiphoid process is at what vertebral level?

a.) T7
b.) T10
c.) T6
d.) L1

A

b.) T10

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67
Q

The central ray for AC joints should be:

a.) T1-2
b.) 2 inches above the jugular notch
c.) at the jugular notch
d.) about 1 inch above the jugular notch

A

d.) about 1 inch above the jugular notch

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68
Q

At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?

a.) on inspiration
b.) on expiration
c.) during slow deep breaths
d.) during shallow short breaths

A

b.) on expiration

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69
Q

To demonstrate the body of the scapula in the lateral projection, the arm is positioned as follows:

a.) flex the elbow and place the hand on the anterior abdomen
b.) flex the elbow and place the hand on the posterior thorax
c.) extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head or grasp the opposite shoulder
d.) extend the arm straight down at the side in the anatomical position

A

c.) extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head or grasp the opposite shoulder

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70
Q

The central ray angulation for the tangential projection (inferosuperior) of demonstrating the carpal canal is:

a.) 25 to 30 degrees
b.) 25 degrees
c.) 35 to 45 degrees
d.) 30 degrees

A

a.) 25 to 30 degrees

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71
Q

The palantine is part of the _______________ bone.

a.) vomer
b.) zygomatic
c.) lacrimal
d.) maxilla

A

d.) maxilla

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72
Q

In the lateral projection of the foot, the
1.) plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
2.) metatarsals are superimposed
3.) talofibular joint should be visualized

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 only
d.) 1 and 2

A

d.) 1 and 2

73
Q

Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtainedwith the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

a.) ventral decubitus position
b.) PA abdomen
c.) lateral decubitus position
d.) dorsal decubitus position

A

d.) dorsal decubitus position

74
Q

What is the major advantage of the PA projection of the abdomen over the AP projection of the abdomen?

a.) the PA projection reduces the exposure dose to the gonads
b.) the PA projection reduces the OID of the kidneys
c.) the PA projection magnifies gallstones for better visualization
d.) the PA projection demonstrates the pubic rami below the urinary bladder

A

a.) the PA projection reduces the exposure dose to the gonads

75
Q

Which of the following projections of the wrist requires the IR to be inclined toward the elbow at an angle of 20 degrees from horizontal?

a.) PA with ulnar deviation
b.) PA
c.) PA oblique
d.) axial (stretcher method)

A

d.) axial (stretcher method)

76
Q

Which projection of the wrist requires that the radial styloid process be superimposed over the ulnar styloid process?

a.) PA with ulnar deviation
b.) PA axial (stretcher method)
c.) PA
d.) lateral

A

d.) lateral

77
Q

The zygomatic arches are a part of which bone?

a.) temporal
b.) sphenoid
c.) frontal
d.) parietal

A

a.) temporal

78
Q

Which of the following planes is placed perpendicular to the tabletop and centered to the midline of the grid for a lateral lumbar spine?

a.) transverse plane
b.) midsagital plane
c.) horizontal plane
d.) midcoronal plane

A

d.) midcoronal plane

79
Q

A radiographic image of the fourth finger is to be obtained in the lateral projection. In this projection, the:

a.) anterior surface of the hand should be resting on the image receptor
b.) lateral surface of the hand should be resting on the image receptor
c.) posterior surface of the hand should be resting on the image receptor
d.) medial surface of the hand should be resting on the image receptor

A

d.) medial surface of the hand should be resting on the image receptor

80
Q

What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow?

a.) trochlea and capitulum
b.) radial and ulnar styloid processes
c.) humeral epicondyles
d.) humeral condyles

A

c.) humeral epicondyles

81
Q

What projection will demonstrate the dorsum sella and posterior clinoid processes within the foramen magnum?

a.) lateral
b.) PA axial (caldwell)
c.) parietoacanthial projection (waters)
d.) AP axial projection (towne)

A

d.) AP axial projection (towne)

82
Q

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contradicted in which of the following situations?
1.) suspected perforation
2.) suspected diverticulitis
3.) preoperative patients

a.) 1 only
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 3

A

d.) 1 and 3

83
Q

Which projection does not demonstrate free air levels within the abdomen?

a.) AP projection with the patient supine
b.) lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position
c.) AP projection with the patient upright
d.) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

A

a.) AP projection with the patient supine

84
Q

A PA oblique (RAO) large intestine image with accurate positioning demonstrates:

1.) the rectosigmoid segments without superimposition
2.) a narrowed right iliac ala
3.) the entire large intestine
4.) decreased superimposition (when compared with a PA image) of the right colic flexure limbs

a.) 2 and 3 only
b.) 1, 2, 3, and 4
c.) 1, 2 and 3 only
d.) 1 and 4 only

A

b.) 1, 2, 3 and 4

85
Q

Which of the following projections require that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
1.) AP humerus
2.) lateral forearm
3.) internal rotation shoulder

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2
d.) 1 only

A

b.) 2 and 3

86
Q

The ___________ large intestine projection gives an elongated view of the rectosigmoid area of the colon

a.) axial rectosigmoid
b.) axial PA/AP
c.) AP/PA
d.) lateral decubitus

A

b.) axial PA/AP

87
Q

Which of the following will clearly demonstrate the cuboid?

a.) AP
b.) AP oblique in lateral rotation
c.) AP oblique in medial rotation
d.) lateral

A

c.) AP oblique in medial rotation

88
Q

Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1 hour small bowel radiograph should be:

a.) at level of the ASIS
b.) 1 inch below level of the iliac crest
c.) 2 inches above level of the iliac crest
d.) at level of the iliac crest

A

d.) at level of the iliac crest

89
Q

Which of the following contrast mediums are used for examination of the gastrointestinal tract?
1.) air
2.) barium sulfate
3.) water soluble iodinated solution

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 1, 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 3

A

c.) 1, 2 and 3

90
Q

What CR angle is required for the AP axial, inlet projection?

a.) 30 degrees cephalad
b.) 20 degrees caudad
c.) 40 degrees caudad
d.) 10 degrees cephalad

A

c.) 40 degrees caudad

91
Q

Most adults have a __________ type skull.

a.) dolichocephalic
b.) brachycephalic
c.) mesocephalic

A

c.) mesocephalic

92
Q

Which two structures primarily form the hingelike structure and movement of the elbow joint?

a.) coronoid process and coronoid fossa
b.) capitulum and trochlea
c.) coronoid fossa and trochlea
d.) trochlea and olecranon process

A

d.) trochlea and olecranon process

93
Q

Structures involved in a blowout fracture include:

1.) orbital floor
2.) maxilla
3.) zygoma

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 3
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 1 only

A

d.) 1 only

94
Q

A radiograph of an AP axial (taylor) “outlet” projection reveals that the obturator foramina are not symmetric. What type of positioning problem is present on this radioggraph?

a.) rotation of the pelvis
b.) tilt of the pelvis
c.) probable fracture of the pubis or ischium
d.) the CR was off center

A

a.) rotation of the pelvis

95
Q

The suture located between the occipital bone and the parietal bone is the:

a.) squamosal
b.) lambdoidal
c.) coronal
d.) sagital

A

b.) lambdoidal

96
Q

How much CR angulation should be used for a scapular Y projection?

a.) 35 to 45 degrees
b.) no CR angle should be used
c.) 10 to 15 degrees
d.) 20 to 30 degrees

A

b.) no CR angle should be used

97
Q

A radiograph for an AP projection with external rotation of the proximal humerus reveals that the greater tubercle is profiled laterally. What should be changed to improve for a repeat exposure?

a.) rotate the arm to place palm of the patient hand against the thigh
b.) positioning is acceptable, dont repeat it
c.) move the patient obliquely 10 to 15 degrees toward the affected side
d.) rotate epicondyles so they are perpendicular to the image receptor

A

b.) positioning is acceptable, dont repeat it

98
Q

A PA chest radiograph reveals that the left sternoclavicular joint is closer to the spine than the right joint. What specific positioning error has been committed?

a.) rotation into the RAO position
b.) rotation into the LAO position
c.) left tilt
d.) right tilt

A

b.) rotation into the LAO position

99
Q

Where are the ethmoid sinuses located within the ethmoid bone?

a.) cribiform plate
b.) pterygoid processes
c.) perpendicular plate
d.) lateral labyrinth

A

d.) lateral labyrinth

100
Q

The head should be rotated _____________ for the axiolateral oblique (modified law) method.

a.) no rotation, the head should be straight
b.) 15 degrees toward IR
c.) 15 degrees away from the IR
d.) 15 degrees toward the IR and tilited 15 degrees away from the side of interest

A

b.) 15 degrees toward the IR

101
Q

Which portions of the spine have lordotic curvatures?
1.) thoracic
2.) cervical
3.) lumbar
4.) sacral

a.) 1 and 2
b.) 4 only
c.) 1 and 4
d.) 2 and 3

A

d.) 2 and 3

102
Q

The entire mandible, coronoid and condyloid processes are seen best on which projection?

a.) SMV
b.) PA
c.) townes
d.) PA axial

A

a.) SMV

103
Q

Which of the following methods will demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1.) beclere method
2.) settegast method
3.) camp coventry method

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 1, 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 2
d.) 1 and 3

A

d.) 1 and 3

104
Q

Which bone articulates medially with the cuboid?

a.) medial cuneiform
b.) first metatarsal
c.) intermediate cuneiform
d.) lateral cuneiform

A

d.) lateral cuneiform

105
Q

During the intial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

a.) directly posterior
b.) directly superior
c.) toward the umbilicus
d.) toward the coccyx

A

c.) toward the umbilicus

106
Q

With the patient in the RAO position, air will be located in which of the following parts of the stomach?

a.) fundus
b.) pylorous
c.) duodenal bulb
d.) body

A

a.) fundus

107
Q

Which spinous processes should be demonstrated on the AP cervical projection?

a.) C1 through C3
b.) C3 through C7
c.) C1 through C7
d.) C1 through C2

A

b.) C3 through C7

108
Q

The greater trochanters are in the same horizontal plane as what pelvic structure?

a.) ischial spine
b.) pubic symphysis
c.) iliac crest
d.) ASIS

A

b.) pubic symphysis

109
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?
1.) the MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR
2.) the right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs
3.) arms must be raised high to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition on lung field

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 3 only
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 1 and 2

A

a.) 1, 2 and 3

110
Q

For which body habitus will the kidneys lie at the highest level?

a.) hypersthenic
b.) sthenic
c.) hyposthenic
d.) asthenic

A

a.) hypersthenic

111
Q

Which sinus often produces an air/fluid level indicating a basilar skull fracture?

a.) sphenoid
b.) frontal
c.) ethmoid
d.) maxillary

A

a.) sphenoid

112
Q

For an AP external oblique knee image with accurate positioning the:

1.) fibular head is demonstrated free of tibial superimposition
2.) lateral femoral condyle is demonstrated in profile
3.) fibular head, neck and shaft are superimposed by the tibia
4.) medial condyle is shown in profile

a.) 1 and 2 only
b.) 2 and 3 only
c.) 3 and 4 only
c.) 1 and 4 only

A

c.) 3 and 4 only

113
Q

If a lateral projection of the femur will include the hip joint, where should the top of the IR be placed?

a.) level of the iliac crest
b.) level of the pubic symphisis
c.) level of the greater trochanters
d.) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

A

d.) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

114
Q

Situation: A patient enters the ED with multiple injuries including a possible fracture of the left proximal huemrus. Which positioning rotation should be performed to determine the extent of the humerus injury?

a.) AP and apical oblique shoulder without any arm rotation
b.) AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder
c.) AP shoulder as is; show radiograph to ED physician before attempting a rotational lateral projection
d.) AP neutral shoulder rotation and carefully rotated internally proximal humerus

A

b.) AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder

115
Q

WHich of the following is located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

1.) patellar surface
2.) intertrochanteric chest
3.) linea aspera

a.) 1 and 3only
b.) 1 and 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 1 only

A

d.) 1 only

116
Q

Which intervetebral foramina are demonstrated on an AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine ?

a.) both sides equally demonstrated
b.) the inferior six closest to the IR
c.) those closest to the IR
d.) those fartherest from the IR

A

d.) those fartherest from the IR

117
Q

For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed:

a.) 0 degrees
b.) 45 degrees
c.) 90 degrees
d.) 25 degrees

A

c.) 90 degrees

118
Q

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patients waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to
1.) make the vetebral column parallel to the IR
2.) place the intervetebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
3.) decrease the amount of scatter reaching the IR

a.) 1, 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 2 and 3
d.) 3 only

A

b.) 1 and 2

119
Q

Where should the top of the IR be positioned for the PA projection to demonstrate ribs above the diaphragm?

a.) at the level of T7
b.) 1 1/2 inches above the sternal angle
c.) at the level of the clavicles
d.) 1 1/2 inches above the shoulders

A

d.) 1 1/2 inches above the shoulders

120
Q

Which structure articulates with the trochlea?

a.) proximal ulna
b.) distal ulna
c.) distal radius
d.) proximal radius

A

a.) proximal ulna

121
Q

Which of the following is a proper evaluation technique for a PA caldwell projection of the skull?

a.) petrous ridges located in the middle of the orbits
b.) petrous ridges located above the orbits
c.) petrous ridges located below the orbits
d.) petrous ridges located in the lower third of the orbits

A

d.) petrous ridges located in the lower third of the orbits

122
Q

How much obliquity is required for the RAO position of the esophagus?

a.) 45 to 60 degrees
b.) 20 to 30 degrees
c.) 10 to 15 degrees
d.) 35 to 40 degrees

A

d.) 35 to 40 degrees

123
Q

The pleura is a double layered serous membrane that serves to reduce the friction between the:

a.) heart and great vessels
b.) diaphragm and ribs
c.) atrium and ventricle
d.) lungs and chest wall

A

d.) lungs and chest wall

124
Q

For a PA oblique projection of the first digit (thumb) the hand is placed in the:

a.) prone position
b.) medial rotation position
c.) supine position
d.) lateral rotstion position

A

a.) prone position

125
Q

A flat and upright or two way abdomen consist of which of the following?

a.) PA chest and erect abdomen
b.) supine and erect abdomen
c.) PA chest and supine abdomen
d.) PA chest, supine abdomen, and erect abdomen

A

d.) PA chest, supine abdomen, and erect abdomen

126
Q

At what level is the center of the image receptor positioned for a lateral projection of the rectosigmoid area?

a.) 1” to the right of MSP, 1” to 2” above the iliac crest
b.) on the MCP, level of ASIS (midway between ASIS and posterior sacrum)
c.) 1” lateral to MSP on the elevated side, level of ASIS
d.) on the MSP, level of ASIS

A

b.) on the MCP, level of ASIS (midway between ASIS and posterior sacrum)

127
Q

Which digit on the hand produces the least OID in the lateral projection of that digit?

a.) fourth digit
b.) third digit
c.) OID is equal for all lateral projections of the digits
d.) second digit

A

d.) second digit

128
Q

The technologist must ________ manual exposure factors for a patient with severe ascites.

A.) switch to automatic exposure control
B.) decrease
C.) not change
D.) increase

A

D.) increase

129
Q

Which of the following are on the lateral side of the humerus?
1.)capitulum
2.)trochlea
3.)greater tubercle

A.)1, 2 and 3
B.)1 and 3
C.)2 and 3
D.)1 and 2

A

B.)1 and 3

130
Q

A patient comes to radiology for a routine study of the cranium. He is unable to flex his head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial projection. What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the occipital bone?

a.) Use the inferior OML and increase the CR angulation by 7°.
b.) Perform a submentovertex projection in place of the AP axial projection.
c.) Perform the Haas method.
d.) Use the AML and increase the CR angulation by 10°.

A

a.) use the inferior OML and increase the CR angulation by 7 degrees

131
Q

Why must the lower limb be rotated 15 to 20 degrees internally for AP hip projections?

A.) to open up the femoroacetabular joint
B.) to seperate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter
C.) to place the fovea capitis into a profiled position
D.) to place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor

A

D.) to place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor

132
Q

A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the lesser trochanters are not visualized. This pelvis projection was performed for nontraumatic reasons. What should the technologist do (if anything) to correct this on the repeat exposure?

a.) Ensure that the ASIS is an equal distance from the tabletop
b.) Nothing, image meets positioning criteria
c.) Rotate the lower limbs more internally.
d.) Angle the CR 10 to 15 degrees cephalad.

A

b.) nothing, image meets positioning criteria

133
Q

On the sthenic adult patient for the majority of projections taken (ap, pa and Obliques) during a BE exam the central ray is directed:

a.) 2” inferior and 2” medial to elevated ASIS
b.) 2” inferior to level of ASIS
c.) at the level of the iliac crest
d.) midcoronal plane midway between ASIS and posterior sacrum

A

c.) at the level of the iliac crest

134
Q

Patient preparation for an esophagram includes:

A.) NPO 4 to 6 hours before the procedure
B.) NPO 30 minutes to 1 hour before the procedure
C.) NPO 4 to 6 hours and no gum chewing before the procedure
D.) none of the above, patient prep is not needed as long as an upper GI procedure is not scheduled to follow

A

D.) none of the above, patient prep is not needed as long as an upper GI procedure is not scheduled to follow

135
Q

A radiograph of a left posterior oblique (LPO) position taken during an IVU reveals that the right kidney is foreshortened and superimposed over the spine. What must the technologist do to correct this error during the repeat exposure?

A.) increase rotation
B.) decrease rotation
C.) place the patient in the RPO position to better demonstrate the right kidney
D.) increase CR angulation

A

B.) decrease rotation

136
Q

Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of the knees?

A.) 1/2 inch above the patellar apex
B.) 1/2 inch below the patellar base
C.) 1/2 inch above the patellar base
D.) 1/2 inch below the patellar apex

A

D.) 1/2 inch below the patellar apex

137
Q

The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of:

A.) c1-3
B.) c6-7
C.) c7-t1
D.) c4-6

A

D.) c4-c6

138
Q

All of the following positions are likely to be used for single and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except:

A.) AP axial rectosigmoid
B.) right or left lateral decubitus abdomen
C.) lateral rectum
D.) RAO and LAO abdomen

A

B.) right or left lateral decubitus abdomen

139
Q

A fractured of the metacarpal neck is known as _________ fracture.

A.) boxers
B.) smith
C.) colles
D.) Bennett

A

A.) boxers

140
Q

A jones fracture occurs :

A.) as a comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas
B.) as an avulsion fracture of the spinous process
C.) as a transverse fracture of the lumbar vertebra
D.) at the base of the fifth metatarsal

A

D.) at the base of the fifth metatarsal

141
Q

An AP lordotic chest image with accurate positioning demonstrates:
1.) the medial ends of the clavicles projected superior to the lung apices
2.) the lateral borders of the scapulae within the lung field
3.) equal distances from the vertebral column to the SC joints
4.) nearly horizontal posterior and anterior portions of the first through fifth ribs

A.) 2 and 4 only
B.) 1 and 3 only
C.) 1,2,3 and 4
D.) 1,3 and 4

A

D.) 1,3 and 4

142
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates suspected fractures of the acetabulum?

A.) axiolateral projection (danileus miller method)
B.) AP axial inlet projection
C.) AP oblique projection (judet method)
D.) AP axial outlet projection

A

C.) AP oblique projection (judet method)

143
Q

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentry is termed:

A.) Volvulus
B.) intussusception
C.) enteritis
D.) diverticulosis

A

A.) volvulus

144
Q

Functions of the kidney include:
1.) removing waste products from the blood
2.) maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
3.) secreting substances that affect blood pressure

a.) 1 and 2
b.) 1 and 3
c.) 1,2 and 3
d.) 2 and 3

A

c.) 1,2 and 3

145
Q

At which plane is the CR positioned for the PA oblique projections (LAO) of the large intestine

a.) on the MSP, level of right or left iliac crest
b.) 1” lateral to MSP on the elevated side, level of the iliac crest
c.) on the MCP, level of ASIS (midway between ASIS and posterior sacrum
d.) 1” to the right of the MSP, 1’’ to 2’’ above the iliac crest

A

d.) 1’’ to the right of the MSP, 1’’ to 2’’ above the iliac crest

146
Q

A radiograph of a transthoracic lateral projection reveals that it is difficult to visualize the proximal humerus due to the ribs and lung markings. The following exposure factors were used: 75 kv, 30 mas, 40 inch SID, grid, suspended respiration. Which of the following changes will improve the quality of the image?

a.) use a breathing technique
b.) make the exposure on second inspiration
c.) use a compression band to prevent patient movement
d.) use a 72 inch SID

A

a.) use a breathing technique

147
Q

The lateral wall of the orbit is formed mostly by the:

a.) sphenoid
b.) zygoma
c.) lacrimal
d.) maxilla

A

b.) zygoma

148
Q

A miniture replica of a kidney is termed:

a.) compensatory kidney
b.) ectopic kidney
c.) hypoplastic kidney
d.) supernumerary kidney

A

c.) hypoplastic kidney

149
Q

The proper name of the method used for the unilateral frog leg projection is the:

a.) taylor
b.) grashey
c.) danelius miller
d.) modified cleaves

A

d.) modified cleaves

150
Q

When is a small bowel series deemed to be complete?

a.) once the contrast media passeds the duodenojeunal flexure
b.) once the contrast media reaches the rectum
c.) 2 hours after the ingestion of barium
d.) once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

A

d.) once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

151
Q

Which term describes the lateral border of the stomach?

a.) greater curvature
b.) lesser curvature
c.) gastric border
d.) incisura angularis

A

a.) greater curvature

152
Q

A PA chest radiograph reveals that only eight ribs are seen above the diaphragm. Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of the lungs?

a.) use a shorter exposure time
b.) take exposure on the second inspiration rather than the first
c.) perform chest position supine
d.) use higher kv to penetrate the diaphragm

A

b.) take exposure on the second inspiration rather than the first

153
Q

How much should the leg be flexed for a routine lateral projection of the knee?

a.) 20 to 30 degrees
b.) 10 to 20 degrees
c.) 5 to 7 degrees
d.) 3 to 5 degrees

A

a.) 20 to 30 degrees

154
Q

The junction of the sagital and coronal sutures is the:

a.) pterion
b.) asterion
c.) lambda
d.) bregma

A

d.) bregma

155
Q

Where does the trachea lie in relationship to the esophagus?

a.) posterior
b.) lateral
c.) medial
d.) anterior

A

d.) anterior

156
Q

Which of the following is considered an operative examination ?

a.) intravenous pyelography
b.) intravenous urography
c.) retrograde urography
d.) cystourethrography

A

c.) retrograde urography

157
Q

How many bones are contained in the skull?

a.) 8
b.) 24
c.) 14
d.) 22

A

d.) 22

158
Q

Grids are generally not required unless the anatomy measures greater than:

a.) 14 cm
b.) 10 cm
c.) 8 cm
d.) 5 cm

A

b.) 10 cm

159
Q

The point of union between both halves of the mandible is termed:

a.) ramus
b.) symphysis menti
c.) gonion
d.) mental foramina

A

b.) symphysis menti

160
Q

A radiograph of an AP oblique elbow with medial rotation reveals that the radial head is superimposed over part of the coronoid process. What positioning error has been committed?

a.) excessive lateral rotation
b.) incorrect CR angulation
c.) excessive medial rotation
d.) flexion of the elbow

A

c.) excessive medial rotation

161
Q

A nonrotated AP pelvis image demonstrates:
1.) the sacrum and coccyx aligned with the symphisis pubis
2.) the ischial spines aligned with the pelvic brim
3.) a narrow right iliac wing and a wider left iliac wing
4.) symmetrically appearing obturator foramen

a.) 3 and 4 only
b.) 1, 3 and 4 only
c.) 1, 2 and 4 only
d.) 1 only

A

c.) 1, 2 and 4 only

162
Q

If both procedures are ordered on the same day, a barium enema must be performed before an IVU.

a.) true
b.) false

A

b.) false

163
Q

For the axiolateral projection of the hip:

1.) the unaffected hip should be in maximum flexion and abduction
2.) the central ray should be positioned parallel with the femoral neck
3.) a grid and tight collimation are needed to increase detail visibility
4.) the affected leg should always be internally rotated

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 only
c.) 1,3 and 4 only
d.) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

A

a.) 1 and 3 only

164
Q

Which two boens form the bony nasal septum?

a.) vomer and maxilla
b.) sphenoid and ethmoid
c.) ethmoid and vomer
d.) superior and inferior nasal conchae

A

c.) ethmoid and vomer

165
Q

The patient position used to best demonstrate the splenic flexure is:

a.) LPO
b.) RAO
c.) RPO
d.) PA

A

c.) RPO

166
Q

Where is the CR centered for a PA Projection of the sternoclavicular joints?

a.) at the level of the vertebra prominens (T1)
b.) at the level of the jugular notch (T2-T3)
c.) at the level of the thyroid cartilage (T9)
d.) at the level of the sternal angle (T4-5)

A

b.) at the level of the jugular notch (T2-T3)

167
Q

If a patient is unable to extend the forearm for an AP projection of the elbow, how many projections are necessary to avoid distortion of the joint?

a.) 5
b.) 4
c.) 2
d.) 3

A

c.) 2

168
Q

Which of the following describes the position of the IR for an axiolateral projection of the hip (danelius miller)?
1.) parallel with the long axis of the femoral neck
2.) its upper border in the crease above the iliac crest
3.) perpendicular to the long axis of the femur

a.) 2 and 3
b.) 1 and 2
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 1, 2 and 3

A

b.) 1 and 2

169
Q

Where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the third digit?

a.) at the proximal interphalangeal joint
b.) at the head of the third metacarpal
c.) at the distal interphalangeal joint
d.) at the metacarpophalangeal joint

A

a.) at the proximal interphalangeal joint

170
Q

Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna?

a.) pronation of the hand
b.) supination of the hand
c.) external rotation of the elbow
d.) placing epicondyles parallel to image receptor

A

a.) pronation of the hand

171
Q

The ______________ sinuses are pyramidal in shape and have 3 walls

a.) frontal
b.) sphenoid
c.) ethmoid
d.) maxillary

A

d.) maxillary

172
Q

The AP trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate:

a.) duodenal loop
b.) duodenal bulb
c.) pyloric stenosis
d.) hiatal hernia

A

d.) hiatal hernia

173
Q

How much rotation from an AP of the ankle will typically produce a mortise view?

a.) 45 degrees
b.) no rotation is needed
c.) 25 to 30 degrees
d.) 15 to 20 degrees

A

d.) 15 to 20 degrees

174
Q

Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exagerated:

a.) concave curvature
b.) lateral curvature
c.) convex curvature
d.) swayback lumbar curvature

A

b.) lateral curvature

175
Q

WHat is the largest immovable bone of the face?

a.) mandible
b.) vomer
c.) zygomatic
d.) maxilla

A

d.) maxilla

176
Q

A radiograph of the parietoacanthial (waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding?

a.) excessive CR angulation
b.) excessive extension
c.) insufficient extension
d.) no error; accept inital radiograph

A

c.) insufficient extension

177
Q

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinsuses?

a.) oblique
b.) trendelenburg
c.) recumbent
d.) erect

A

d.) erect

178
Q

A radiographic examination of the urinary bladder is termed:

a.) cystourethrography
b.) retrograde urography
c.) cystography
d.) cystoureterography

A

c.) cystography

179
Q

Which of the following factors must be observed for an AP erect abdomen projection?

a.) use a higher kv technique
b.) collimate lower border to level of ASIS
c.) increase SID to 72 inches to minimize magnification
d.) patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging

A

d.) patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging