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Flashcards in Mock Exam 1 Deck (150)
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1

Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?
a. Initial contact
b. Mid-swing
c. Terminal Stance
d. Push Off

Terminal stance

2

A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side

Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

3

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active
a. Loading Response
b. Midstance
c. Preswing
d. Terminal Stance

Loading response

4

Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior
a. Tibialis Posterior
b. Peroneus Longus
c. Extensor Hallicus Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum Longus

Extensor Hallicus Longus

5

Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?
a. Gower’s sign
b. Down Syndrome
c. Erb’s Palsy
d. Spina Bifida

Erb's Palsy

6

Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord?
a. Cerebral Palsy
b. Meningitis
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Pleuritis

Meningitis

7

7. A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this?
a. Right posterior brachycephalic
b. Right posterior plagiocephaly
c. Left posterior brachycephalic
d. Left posterior plagiocephaly

Left posterior brachycephalic

8

What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Bone
b. Collagen
c. Ligament
d. Cartilage

Cartilage

9

What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction?
a. Bursa
b. Synovium
c. Ganglia
d. Nucleus Pulposis

Bursa

10

10. What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO?
a. L1
b. Spine of the scapula
c. Inferior angle of the scapula
d. Superior angle of the scapula

Spine of the scapula

11

Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints?
a. L2 spinal cord injury
b. Damage to the femoral nerve
c. Moderate knee flexion contracture
d. Genu varum deformity

Genu varum deformity

12

Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy?
a. Neuromuscular scoliosis
b. Congenital scoliosis
c. Nonstructural scoliosis
d. Idiopathic scoliosis

Nonstructural scoliosis

13

Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a plantarflexion contracture?
a. Late heel rise at terminal stance
b. Genu recurvatum at midstance
c. Increased knee flexion at loading response
d. Reduced knee flexion at midswing

Genu recurvatum at midstance

14

True dorsiflexion and plantarflexion occur in what plane?
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse

Sagittal

15

What orthosis would best restore upper extremity function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root?
a. Cock up splint
b. Mobile arm support
c. Wrist driven WHO
d. HO with thumb post

Wrist driven WHO

16

What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist?
a. WHO
b. WHO w/ C bar
c. HO
d. WHO with thumb post

WHO with thumb post

17

The primary function of the brachioradialis is:
a. Elbow flexion, wrist extension
b. Elbow Flexion
c. Supination, wrist extension
d. Wrist radial deviation

Elbow Flexion

18

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the:
a. Teres minor
b. Teres major
c. Short head of the Triceps brachii
d. Subscapularis

Teres minor

19

Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Coding should be done based on your experience as a clinician
b. It is the office administrator’s responsibility to determine accurate coding
c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services
d. Correctly completed coding should generate the maximum revenue

Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services

20

The axis of rotation of the hip joint is located:
a. Anterior & superior to the greater trochanter
b. Posterior & superior to the greater trochanter
c. Anterior & inferior to the greater trochanter
d. Posterior & inferior to the greater trochanter

Anterior & superior to the greater

21

Which is not considered an upper motor neuron disease or injury?
a. Multiple Sclerosis
b. Cerebral Palsy
c. Diabetic Neuropathy
d. Cerebrovascular Accident

Diabetic Neuropathy

22

Aponeurosis is:
a. A flat broad tendon
b. A thin tendon sheath
c. A membrane dividing muscle compartments
d. A synovial joint lining

A flat broad tendon

23

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as:
a. A fracture of the pars articularis
b. Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation to the sacrum
c. Anterior displacement of the sacrum in relation to the L5 vertebra
d. A subluxation of the superior facet

Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation to the sacrum

24

A hand orthosis controls:
a. Palmar arch and thumb position
b. Radial deviation
c. First dorsal interosseus
d. Transverse arch and carpal tunnel

Palmar arch and thumb position

25

Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in:
a. Central nervous system injuries
b. Lower motor neuron injuries
c. Upper motor neuron injuries
d. Both a and c

Lower motor neuron injuries

26

A patient presents with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional double upright AFO?
a. Provide a lateral t-strap
b. Externally rotate the shoe on the stirrup
c. Deflect the sidebars
d. Externally rotate the joints

Deflect the sidebars

27

You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should:
a. Provide the nurse with thorough verbal instructions
b. Provide the patient with thorough verbal instructions
c. Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions
d. Leave written instructions at the patient’s bedside

Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions

28

28. You see a patient post triple ankle arthrodesis. What is the best device to provide?
a. A negative heel shoe modification
b. A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge
c. A corrective foot orthosis
d. A CROW boot

A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge

29

29. Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform?
a. Posterior tibialis
b. Peroneus longus
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum longus

Posterior tibialis

30

The space between an axon and a dendrite is called the:
a. Myelin
b. Synovium
c. Schwann’s space
d. Synapse

Synapse