Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? A. heel off b. toe off c. acceleration d. mid-swing e. push-off
Heel off
A single cycle of gait is defined as the time…
a. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the other.
b. from heel off of one foot to push off of the same foot.
c. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the other.
d. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the same foot.
e. from contralateral reciprocation of the forefoot weight time.
from heel off of one foot to heel off of the same foot.
During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?
a. mid-stance
b. heel-strike to foot flat
c. push to midswing
d. aceleration
e. foot flat to mid-stance
heel-strike to foot flat
At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most important?
a. midswing
b. acceleration
c. mid-stance
d. foot flat
e. free fall
Mid-stance
In measuring for a quadrilateral brim, what is the most important measurement?
a. inguinal ligament to posterior
b. medial lateral and base scarpa triangle
c. anteroposterior and horizontal projection of scarpa triangle
d. thigh circumference divided by 2 plus 1.5 inch
e. anteroposterior and medial lateral.
anteroposterior and medial lateral.
What comprises the scarpa triangle?
a. sartorius, rectus femoris, inguinal ligament
b. sartorius, adductor magnus, inguinal ligament
c. sartorius, femoral artery, rectus abdominus
d. sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus
e. anterior, lateral, proximal thigh
sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus
What is the best position for managing the chronically dislocating gleno-humeral joint?
a. internally rotated and flexed slightly
b. abducted and internally rotated
c. abducted and externally rotated
d. abducted to at least 70 degrees
e. abducted to 50 degrees and compressed
abducted and internally rotated
The oblique diameter of a patients malleoli is 3 5/8 in (90mm). What should the inside dimension of the ankle joints be?
a. 3 7/8 (96mm)
b. 4 1/16 (101mm)
c. 3 15/16 (99mm)
d. 4 1/4 (106mm)
e. 4 3/16 (105mm)
4 1/16 (101mm)
A hemiplegic patient presents with zero hip extensors, fair quadriceps, zero calf. Which of the following would you recommend?
a. HKAFO
b. KAFO
c. AFO with dorsiflexion assist
d. AFO with plantarflexion restraint
e. no recommendation
KAFO
a 20 year old female patient presents with flaccid anterior compartment and M/L instability in her right lower limb. Which of the following would you recommend?
a. conventional AFO with dorsiflexion restraint
b. polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli
c. conventional AFO with gerdmore mechanism.
polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli
Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the anterior tibialis?
a. posterior tibialis
b. peroneus longus
c. extensor digitorium
d. peroneus tertius
e. extensor hallicus longus
extensor hallicus longus
Which of the following is a contraindication for a spiral AFO?
a. peripheral nerve type of injury
b. weak hip flexors
c. edema with frequent volume changes
d. mild spasticity
e. guillain-Barre
edema with frequent volume changes
Why is a Milwaukee brace carefully molded superior to the iliac crests?
a. assist in reducing lordosis
b. assist in pelvic derotation
c. to avoid bony landmarks
d. prevent distal migration
e. cosmesis
prevent distal migration
What level of paraplegia seldom gets braced?
a. C5
b. T6
c. T12
d. L1
e. L5
L5
Bunnell (cock-up) splints are frequently used for…
a. quadriplegia
b. burns
c. hemiplegia
d. trauma
e. arthritis
e. arthritis
What structure assists the deltoid in glenohumeral abductions?
a. latissimus dorsi
b. rhomboid
c. rotator cuff
d. pectoralis minor
e. coracobrachialis
rotator cuff
An orthotic patient’s wrist is positioned in ulnar deviation and flexion. You should try to reposition the patient’s wrist…
a. in slight radial deviation
b. in 30 degrees extension
c. in slight flexion
d. in slight flexion and slight radial deviation
e. in slight flexion, maintain ulnar deviation.
in 30 degrees extension
which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?
a. Gower’s sign
b. Down syndrome
c. schmorl’s nodes
d. erb’s palsy
e. heterotopic ossification
erb’s palsy
Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the spinal cord and/or brain.
a. cerebral palsy
b. tuberculosis
c. melanoma
d. meningitis
e. pleuritis
meningitis
What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis?
a. bone
b. cartilage
c. synovium
d. ligaments
e. collagen
synovium
Which of the following best describes a small lubricant filled sac which if removed results in an increase in friction?
bursa
In an LSO what is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars?
a. the inferior angle of the scapula
b. one inch inferior angle of the scapula
c. the spine of the scapula
d. T7
e. halfway between the inferior angle and spine of the scapula
one inch inferior angle of the scapula
What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars in a Taylor TLSO?
a. L1
b. spine of the scapula
c. inferior angle of scapula
d. halfway between spine and inferior angle of scapula
e. superior angle of the scapula
spine of the scapula
What is the preferred position for fitting a hyperextension TLSO (Jewitt type)?
a. prone
b. supine
c. sitting
d. standing
e. standing with knee flexed 20-30 degrees.
supine
The superior portion of Milwaukee CTLSO should be carefully fabricated so as to…
a. avoid excessive pressure on the chin
b. avoid excessive pressure on the mandibular angle
c. avoid excessive pressure on the xyphoid process
d. avoid excessive pressure on the ulnar styloid
e. maintain distraction of the cervical spine
avoid excessive pressure on the chin
In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C5 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommed?
a. WHO
b. WHO c-bar
c. HO
d. WDWHO
e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension
WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension
In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C6 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend?
a. WHO
b. WHO c-bar
c. HO
d. WDWHO
e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension
WDWHO
For a median nerve injury at the wrist which is the most appropriate orthosis?
a. WHO
b. HO
c. WHO with c-bar
d. WHO with thumb post
e. HO with thumb post
HO with thumb post
What structure is at the distal end of the humerus?
a. olecrenon
b. capitate
c. coronoid
d. epiphysis
e. epicondyle
epicondyle
Primary function of the brachioradialis is…
a. gleno-humeral flexion
b. elbow flexion
c. elbow flexion and forearm supination
d. gleno-humeral flexion and elbow flexion
elbow flexion and forearm supination
The secondary function of the biceps brachii is…
a. pronation
b. supination
c. gleno-humeral extension
d. elbow protraction
e. gleno humeral adduction
supination
The primary function of the brachialis is... a. supination b. pronation c. elbow flexion d. elbow flexion and supination e elbow flexion and pronation
elbow flexion
In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the…
a. pronator teres
b. teres major
c. supraspinatus
d. teres minor
e. rhomboids
teres minor
Which of the following compliments the deltoid in performing glenohumeral abduction? a rotator cuff b. triangular ligament c. subclavius d. pectoralis major-clavicular head e. levator scapulae
rotator cuff
Which of the following is a contraindication for a plastic AFO?
a. weak dorsiflexors
b. subtalor instability
c. flaccid peroneus tertius
d. weak calf
e. deep peroneal nerve injury
flaccid peroneus tertius
Which orthosis would you recommend to a mid-humerus fracture which included injury to the radial nerve?
a. WHO with wrist flexion assist
b. WHo with thumb extension assist
c. WHO with thumb extension and finger extension assist
d. WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist
e. HO with thumb and finger extension assist
WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist
Which best describes the purpose of the thumb post?
a. positioning for lateral prehension
b. positioning circumduction
c. adduction stop
d. abduction stop
e. positioning for palmar prehension
positioning for palmar prehension
In picking up an object from a table what is the best position for the wrist?
a. 5 degrees flexion
b. 10 degrees extension
c. 35 degrees flexion
d. 30 degrees extension
e. 10 degrees flexion with 15 degrees ulnar deviation
35 degrees flexion
Which of the following does not contribute to spinal extension?
a. erector spinae
b. quadratus lumborum
c. levator scapulae
d. lateral abdominus obliques
e. latissimus dorsi
lateral abdominus obliques
Which of the following best describes the orthotic objective of the UCBL FO?
a. compress talo-navicular joint
b. align midtarsal articulation
c. redirect metatarsal forces over larger area
d. diminish calcaneus ML instability
e. limit sagittal motion of calcaneus
diminish calcaneus ML instability
A patient wearing a Dennis brown orthosis exhibits undesirable eversion, you should…
a. contour the crossmember concave to the patent to pronate the feet
b. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to pronate the feet
c. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to supinate the feet.
d. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet.
e. contour the sidebar to promote inversion.
contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet.
Which of the following is the best means to accomodate valgus in a patients lower limb? a extend the medial stirrup extension b. extend the lateral stirrup extension c. medial wedge d. scaphoid pad e. slight internal rotation in orthosis
extend the medial stirrup extension
Which muscle flexes the middle phalanx?
a. flexor communis
b. flexor digitil brevis
c. flexor digitorum profundus
d. flexor digiturum sublimis
e. flexor palmaris
flexor communis
Abduction and adduction occurs in the…
a. sagittal plane
b. coronal plane
c. transverse plane
d. horizontal plane
e. oblique plane
coronal plane
Abduction and adduction occurs in the hand at the…
a. carpal-metacarpal joint
b. carpal phalangeal joint
c. metacarpal-phalangeal joint
d. proximal interphalangeal
e. distal interphalangeal joint
metacarpal-phalangeal joint
Loss of the opponens pollicis is the result of an injury to the…
a. median nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. radial nerve
d. ulnar nerve
e. carpus nerve
median nerve
The primary purpose of a C-bar is…
a. opponens assist
b. opponens stop
c. adduction stop
d. abduction stop
e. abduction assist
adduction stop
The distal edge of the C-bar should…
a. fall 3mm (1/8in) proximal to the nail bed
b. fall 3mm (1/8in) distal to the nail bed
c. cover the planus articularis
d. extend just distal to the pollicis IP
e. extend just proximal to the pollicis IP
extend just proximal to the pollicis IP
The superior surface of the atlas articulates with the…
a. odontoid process
b. axis
c. C1
d. biceptal articularis
e. mandibular angle
odontoid process
Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as…
a. anterior displacement of SI with respect to L5
b. pars articulares fracture
c. superior facet subluxation
d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to S1
e. lateral-anterior migraton of L5-S1 disc.
anterior displacement of L5 with respect to S1
In order to treat kyphosis with a Milwaukee TLSO the pads should be placed…
a. anteriorly
b. posteriorly
c. 2 ribs below lateral curve
d. 2 ribs above the lateral curve
e. laterally 2cm below the scoliotic apex
posteriorly
The optimum hip angle of the patient during casting for a Milwaukee TLSO is…
a. hyperextension
b. full extension
c. slight flexion
d. flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis
flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis
The pelvic band for an LSO or TLSO should…
a. overlap the greater trochanters
b. fall just distal to the greater trochanter
c. be fitted superior (3mm) to the iliac crest
d. lie halfway between the inferior costal margin and the iliac crest
e. lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter.
lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter.
The axis of rotation of the hip joint can be located…
a. anterior/posterior to the greater trochanter
b. anterior/superior to the greater trochanter
c. posterior/superior to the greater trochanter
d. anterior/inferior to the greater trochanter
e. posterior/inferior to the greater trochanter.
anterior/superior to the greater trochanter
What is the most frequently fit lumbosacral orthosis in the united states?
a. taylor
b. knight
c. chairback
d. corset
e. Milwaukee
corset
In fabricating a PTB type of orthosis, it is necessary to carefully form the material in the popliteal area to…
a. produce adequate anteriorly directed force
b. promote quadriceps derotational torque
c. avoid pressure against the posterior tibial artery
d. allow for frequent volume changes
e. maintain destimulation of the golgi tendon appartus
produce adequate anteriorly directed force
Which of the following is not an upper motor neuron injury?
a. multiple sclerosis
b. cerebral palsy
c. spinal injury
d. diabetes neuropathy
e. cerebro-vascular accident
diabetes neuropathy
As an orthotist your primary concern with a spinal injury patient is…
a. distribution of impaired/loss sensation
b. skin sensitivity to pressure
c. heterotopic ossification
d. autonomic dysreflexia
e. spasticity
skin sensitivity to pressure
What nerve is most likely affected on a patient with a foot drop?
a. femoral nerve
b. obturator nerve
c. tibial nerve
d. peroneal nerve
e. medial plantar nerve
peroneal nerve
Aponeurosis is a
a. flat tendon
b. thin tendinous sheath
c. ligamentous expanse
d. membrane dividing muscle masses
e. lining between joint capsule and synovium
thin tendinous sheath
The sensory distribution of the spinal nerves is…
a. dorsal
b. anterior
c. ventral
d. autonomic
e. regangliated
dorsal
What is the affect of fitting a KAFO on a patient with insufficient external rotation?
a. inversion
b. pronation
c. eversion
d. supination
e. pes planus forces.
inversion
The main reason for using a WHO instead of a hand orthosis is..
a. positioning the wrist
b. intrinsic paralysis
c. more support for the palmar arch
d. placing the lumbrical bar
positioning the wrist
The serratus anterior performs what action?
a. adduction and upward rotation
b. abduction and upward roation
c. adduction and elevation
d. shoulder extension
abduction and upward roation
The HO controls…
a. palmer arch and thumb position
b. radial deviation
c. first dorsal interosseous
d. longitudinal arch and carpal tunnel
palmer arch and thumb position
Adduction and abduction occurs in…
a. coronal plane
b. transverse plane
c. sagittal plane
d. both a and c
coronal plane
MP flexion and IP extension are performed primarily by th…
a. flexordigitorum profundus and subliminus
b. interossei and lumbricales
c. opponens pollicis
interossei and lumbricales
A mobile base of support for the arm the…
a. scapula
b. navicular
c. sternum
d. latissimus dorsi
scapula
The muscle that can flex, abduct, extend, and support the shoulder joint is…
a. latissimus dorsi
b. subscapularis
c. biceps brachii
d. deltoid
deltoid
Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in
a. upper motor neuron injuries
b. central nervous system injuries
c. peripheral nervous system injuries
d. both a and b
peripheral nervous system injuries
A second MP abduction spring assist is used to…
a. abduct the second MP joint
b. flex the third phalanx
c. oppose the opponens bar
d. adduct the second MP joint
abduct the second MP joint
The MP extension stop should be placed…
a. halfway between the PIP and DIP joints
b. over the PIP joints
c. just proximal to the PIP joints
d. behind the first MP joint
just proximal to the PIP joints
A dynamic IP extension assist with an MP stop should be used…
a. if patient has weakness of the lumbricals
b. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP joint
c. if patient hyperextends at MP joint
d. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP and IP joints
if patient has weakness of the lumbricals
Ideally, how soon after injury should a quadriplegic patient be fitted with an upper limb orthosis?
a. while the patient is on a stryker frame
b. six weeks
c. six months
d. one year
while the patient is on a stryker frame
Extension of the proximal phalanx at the MP joint is produced by…
a. the long extensor
b. long extensor and interossei
c. long extensor and lumbricales
d. b and c combined
the long extensor
The movile segment of the transverse arch of the hand is formed by the metacarpals
a. 3-4
b. 1-2-3
c. 1-4-5
d. 1-5
3-4
The middle of the long finger has…
a. 2 volar and dorsal interossei
b. 2 dorsal interossei and a volar interossei
c. 2 volar interossei and a lumbrical
d. 2 dorsal and one ulnar lumbrical
e. 2 dorsal interossei and one radial lumbrical
2 dorsal interossei and one radial lumbrical
Upward rotation of the scapula is produced by…
a. the upper and middle segments of the trapezius and serratus
b. anterior
c. the upper trapezius and latissimus dorsi
d. the levator scapulae and the serratus anterior
the upper and middle segments of the trapezius and serratus
Plaster of Paris is the anhydrous form of a naturally occuring mineral called... a gneiss b. gypsum c. golgi d. garnet
gypsum
The second MP joint is abducted by the…
a. 1st palmar interosseus
b. 1 dorsal interosseus
c. 2nd palmar interosseus
d. 2nd dorsal interosseus
1 dorsal interosseus
Regarding the plaster bandage…
a. it should be wetted with warm water
b. it should be wetted with cool water
c. water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set
d. water temperature depends on the brand of elastic plaster you are using.
water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set
What is the etiology of a disease?
a. the functional change that occurs
b. the study of the cause of the disease
c. that which distinguishes one disease from another
d. the ultimate result of the disease
the study of the cause of the disease
Which movements occur at both the elbow and shoulder joints?
a. abduction and flexion
b. circumduction and flexion
c. abduction circumduction and flexion
d. extension and flexion
extension and flexion
The space between an axon and a dendrite is called a…
a. synocope
b. synonum
c. syllogism
d. synapse
synapse
A patient with a lesion located in the _______ would probably be aphasic.
a. central nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. right brain lobe
d. left brain lobe
left brain lobe
The technique for donning and doffing a particular orthosis should be discussed with…
a. the physician
b. the patient
c. the patient’s family
d. the nursing staff
e. all of the above.
all of the above.
Which of the following is not part of a typical nerve cell?
a. flagella
b. dendrite
c. axon
d. nucleus
flagella
Spastic paralysis may result from
a. spinal cord injury
b. brain injury
c. injury to the cauda equina
d. peripheral nerve injury
e. a and b
f. b and d
g. c only
a and b
The gelatenous center of a spinal disc is called the…
a. annulus fibrosus
b. body
c. epiphysis
d. nucleus pulposus
nucleus pulposus
The lumbar spine consists of how many vertebrae…
a. 3
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4
5
With a disruption in the lower motor neuron, what kind of response would you expect…
a. kinetic response
b. flaccid or hypotonic response
c. spastic or hypertonic response
d. all of the above
e. none of the above.
flaccid or hypotonic response
Which of the following is considered an upper motor neuron disorder?
a. cerebral palsy
b. multiple sclerosis
c. polimyelitis
d. b and c
e. a and b
f. all of the above
a and b
When someone has a spinal cord injury at the level of T2-T3 the result is…
a. quadriplegia with spasticity
b. paraplegia with flaccidity
c. paraplegia with neither spasticity nor flaccidity
d. quadriplegia with flaccidity
e. paraplegia with spasticity
paraplegia with spasticity
C1-C2 joint allows…
a. extension and flexion
b. flexion and rotation
c. rotation, flexion, and extension
rotation, flexion, and extension
The erector spinae muscles are active as…
a. flexors of the spine
b. lateral flexors of the spine
c. extensors of the spine
d. both a and b
e. both b and c
both b and c
The position of the thoracic articular facets are most disadvantageously positioned to allow for…
a. rotation
b. flexion
c. hyperextension
d. lateral flexion
hyperextension
spondylolisthesis is a condition of the spine that…
a. is caused by rotational forces applied to the vertebrae
b. shows signs of a forward slipping of the vertebrae over another
c. shows, by x-ray, a defect in the spine without forward slipping.
shows signs of a forward slipping of the vertebrae over another
A patient has a comrpession fracture at T12 level. What type of orthosis is best suited for the stabilization of the fracture?
a. lumbosacral corset
b. dorsolumbar corset
c. anterior control hyperextension orthosis
d. posterior control flexion orthosis
anterior control hyperextension orthosis
Scheuerman’s disease typically produces…
a. a double major scoliotic curve
b. a thoracic kyphosis
c. extreme lumbar lordosis
d. no adverse effect on the spinal column
a thoracic kyphosis
The taylor spinal orthosis would be classified as a
a. A, P, ML TLSO
b. A P TLSO
c. P, ML TLSO
d. A, ML LSO
A P TLSO
The proper length measurement fo a Taylor spinal orthosis is…
a. inferior scapular angle to inferior edge of sacrum
b. L5-S1 level to scapular spine
c. inferior edge of sacrum to scapular spine
inferior edge of sacrum to scapular spine
The greatest amount of rotation occurs in
a. the sacral spine
b. the lumbar spine
c. the thoracic spine
d. July
the thoracic spine
A _________ orthosis is often used to treat kyphosis.
a. Norton Brown
b. Milwaukee
c. McAusland
Milwaukee
A TLSO (Boston type) is effective in controlling a curve as high as…
a. T5
b. T8
c. L1
T8
Which muscle or muscle group does not act upon the elbow?
a. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. deltoid
deltoid
Orthotically speaking, a C6 lesion would best be managed with…
a. a WDWHO
b. a short opponens orthosis
c. a long opponens orthosis (WHO) with extended wrist and lumbrical bar
d. a long opponens with outrigger and IP extension assist.
a WDWHO
The lumbricals function to…
a. flex the MP joint and extend the IP joints
b. abduct the phalanges
c. extend the IP joints and extend the MP joints
d. flex the MP joints and fleex the IP joints
flex the MP joint and extend the IP joints
The pronator quadratus…
a. flexes elbow and pronates the forearm
b. pronates the forearm
c. flexes wrist and pronates forearm
d. extends wrist and pronates forearm
pronates the forearm
The motion occuring between the carpal joints provide for what type of joints?
a. hinge
b. gliding
c. saddle
d. rotation
gliding
The proper placement of the distal end of a thumb adduction stop (c-bar)
a. at the thumb tip
b. just proximal to the IP joint
c. at the center of the web space
b. just proximal to the IP joint
The adductors of the scapula include all except…
a. middle trapezius
b. rhomboids
c. latissimus dorsi
d. serratus anterior
serratus anterior
The strength of a muscle is determined by and is directly proportional to
a. the individual muscle fiber length
b. the specific location of it’s insertion and origin
c. the position the involved joint is in before initiation of muscle action
d. the cross section of the muscle.
the cross section of the muscle.
When positioning the wrist for the fitting of a WHO the most functional position would be
a. slightly flexed
b. fully extended
c. neither flexed no extended
d. slightly extended
slightly extended
The thenar musculature is located.
a. on the ulnar side of the hand.
b. at the base of the thumb
c. in the center of the palm
d. on the volar surface of the fingers
at the base of the thumb
Which of the following would not be classified as a type of hand prehension.
a. spherical
b. cylindrical
c. lateral
d. oblique
oblique
The “ape hand” is characterized by a lesion of what nerve?
a. musculocutaneous
b. radial
c. median
d. ulnar
median
A swan neck deformity refers to
a. hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger
b. flexion of both IP joints with hyperextension of the MP joint
c. flexion of the middle joint and hyperextension of the distal finger joint
d. hyperextension of MP and both finger joints.
hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger
A peripheral nerve injury at the wrist of the ulnar nerve would best be braced with
a. a long opponens (WHO) with outrigger
b. WDWHO
c. short opponens (HO) with C-bar and opponens bar
d. short opponens (HO) with MP extension stop (lumbrical bar)
short opponens (HO) with MP extension stop (lumbrical bar)
The proper length of the thumb post is…
a. just beyond the nail bed
b. at the center of the IP joint
c. at the MP joint
just beyond the nail bed
A volkmann’s ischemic contracture is caused by
a. atrophy from disuse
b. nerve damage
c. compromised vascular flow
compromised vascular flow
______ pertains to the palm of the hand or the sole of the foot.
a. ulnar
b. varus
c. volar
d. dorsum
volar
The innominate bones are joined by another structure known as __________ thus forming the pelvic girdle.
a. the sacrum
b. the ischium
c. the symphysis pubis
d. the iliac crest
the sacrum
The socket that articulates with the head of the femur is known as the
a. cubital fossa
b. popliteal fossa
c. coracoid
d. acetabulum
acetabulum
Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle
a. semitendinosis
b. biceps femoris
c. soleus
d. gastrocnemius
soleus
A peripheral nerve injury of the peroneal nerve would cause... a a foot drop and inverted foot b. an extremely dorsiflexed foot c. a plantar flexed foot with eversion d. an everted foot
a plantar flexed foot with eversion
Genu varum is a position of the knee joint commonly called
a. bow leggedness
b. knock knee
c. normal knee
d. recurvatum
bow leggedness
Extensors of the hip include all of the following except
a. gluteus maximus
b. semitendinosis
c. gluteus medius
d. bicep femoris
gluteus medius
Which of the following would not be classified as an upper motor neuron disorder…
a. peripheral nerve injury
b. cerebral palsy
c. cerebral vascular accident
d. multiple sclerosis
peripheral nerve injury
A rapid alternating involuntary movement elicited by stretch is known as
a. spasticity
b. istonic contraction
c. clonus
d. contracture
clonus
A positive trendelenburg sign is given when
a. there is weakness of the gluteus maximus
b. the noninvolved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing
c. the involved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the noninvolved side.
the noninvolved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing
Which means is not a way to correct equinovalgus…
a. scaphoid pad
b. medial heel wedge
c. lateral heel and sole wedge
d. medial t-strap with single or double bar AFO
lateral heel and sole wedge
The proper location of the knee joint on a KAFO is
a. at the level of the tibial plateau
b. at the level of the adductor tubercle
c. one-half the distance between the adductor tubercle and the tibial plateau
d. one-half the distance between the ankle joint and the superior edge of the proximal thigh band.
one-half the distance between the adductor tubercle and the tibial plateau
The ankle joint axis should be located
a. at the distal border of the medial malleolus
b. at the distal border of the lateral malleolus
c. at the proximal border of the medial malleolus
at the distal border of the medial malleolus
You can control knee flexion in AFO with
a. long tongue stirrup
b. long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with springs
c. long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with pins.
long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with pins.
A rocker sole on a shoe will
a. make up for leg shortage
b. provide for simulated ankle and toe motion
c. prevent plantar flexion
provide for simulated ankle and toe motion
Minimum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?
a. heel off
b. toe off
c. acceleration
d. mid-swing
e. push off
toe off
