Mock MLAs Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Anal fissure - what to do if conservative (including topical GTN) management doesn’t work?

A

Sphincterotomy

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2
Q

Tachyarrhythmia + adverse feature (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia or heart failure)

A

DC cardioversion

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3
Q

Cushing’s reflex/triad in raised ICP =

A

Bradycardia
Wide pulse pressure (hypertension)
Irregular respirations (Cheyne-Stokes respirations)

  • indicates raised ICP and potential brain herniation
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4
Q

Pansystolic murmur + soft S1 =

A

Mitral stenosis

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5
Q

Is vancomycin only given orally?

A

Only given orally in C. difficile infection, otherwise can be given IV

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6
Q

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Physiological elevation of PTH levels in response to hypocalcaemia.

  • commonly due to renal failure or vitamin D deficiency.
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7
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

PERSISTENT

End-stage renal failure

  • thought to be due to prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism which results in the inappropriate continued release of PTH despite normalisation of calcium levels
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8
Q

Key diagnostic test in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Lumbar puncture

  • elevated protein with normal white cell count
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9
Q

Broca’s area is found in which lobe?

A

Frontal lobe

B comes before W so it’s at the front

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10
Q

Wernicke’s area is found in which lobe?

A

Temporal lobe

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11
Q

Medical therapy to prevent angina attacks?

A

CCB +/- beta blocker

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12
Q

Exudative vs transudative PE ?

A

Things that aren’t meant to be there = exudative
Failures e.g. heart, liver, kidney = transudative

EXudative = EXtra protein
Pleural fluid with a protein level >30g/L = exudative

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13
Q

All men with erectile dysfunction should have what checked?

A

Morning testosterone

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14
Q

What medication to avoid in myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta-blockers

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15
Q

Triangle of safety for chest drain insertion =

A

Base of axilla, lateral pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space, anterior latissimus dorsi

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16
Q

How long before results are seen when using finasteride for BPH ?

A

6 months

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17
Q

Potassium fluid requirement per day = ?

A

1 mmol/kg/day

18
Q

Medical management of pregnant women who smoke ?

A

Nicotine replacement therapy only

  • Varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated
19
Q

What is Hartmann’s procedure ?

A

Sigmoid colectomy and formation of end stoma

  • usually used in emergencies, e.g. bowel obstruction or perforation
20
Q

What surgical procedure is used to defunction the colon to protect an anastomosis?

A

Loop ileostomy

(it is reversible)

21
Q

In COPD, when is LTOT indicated?

A

pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa

AND one of the following:
- secondary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary hypertension

22
Q

Severe alcoholic hepatitis management = ?

23
Q

Acute management of insulin in DKA = ?

A

Fixed-rate insulin infusion (0.1units/kg/hour)

Continue long-acting insulin
STOP short-acting insulin

24
Q

Scoring systems for upper GI bleeds

A

Glasgow-Blatchford = what management? (Glasgow = schemey)

Rockall = Recurrence

25
Rolled, pearly edges + telangiectasia = ?
Basal cell carcinoma
26
Isolated motor loss (hemiplegia) on left side = ?
Right-sided lacunar stroke
27
Stroke management + times =
Within 4.5 hours: Thrombolysis with Alteplase, followed 24 hours later by aspirin 300mg After 4.5 hours: No thrombolysis; just give Aspirin 300mg
28
Left temporal lesion = which visual field defect ?
PITS Right SUPERIOR homonymous quadratanopia
29
MUST score =
Assessment of nutritional status
30
Lung white-out on CXR: how to differentiate between pleural effusion vs lung collapse
Look for tracheal deviation
31
Memantine vs donepezil drug class
Memantine = NDMA antagonist (memandy) Donepezil = Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
32
CRVO vs CRAO ?
CRVO = sudden painless loss of vision, severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy CRAO = sudden painless loss of vision, cherry-red spot at the fovea
33
COPD standby medication (to keep at home)
Prednisolone and an antibiotic
34
Overactive bladder medication
Oxybutynin
35
Hepatitis serology :
HbsAg - acute/chronic ongoing disease IgM anti-HBc - acute disease IgG anti-HBc - previous or current infection anti-HBs - immunity
36
HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive, IgG anti-HBc positive anti-HBs negative
Acute infection
37
HBsAg positive/negative, IgM anti-HBc negative IgG anti-HBc positive anti-HBs negative
Chronic infection
38
Anti-HBs positive ?
Immune
39
Which blood abnormality is caused by prednisolone?
Neutrophilia
40
Which drug to treat delirium in Parkinson's patient?
IM lorazepam
41
TIA + patient is on an anticoagulant or has a bleeding disorder ?
Perform CT head to exclude haemorrhagic stroke
42