Mod 5 Flashcards
1
Q
Basic Life Support is a set of procedures including:
A
non-invasive treatment for choking, cardiac and respiratory arrest.
2
Q
Brain damage begins at how many minutes of cerebral anoxia?
A
4-6 minutes.
3
Q
After finding out that the patient is unresponsive, you should:
A
scan the patient for signs of breathing-
4
Q
Which of the following is not a Basic Life Support intervention?
A
Tracheal airway placement.
5
Q
The most common reason for adult cardiac arrest is:
A
cardiac arrhythmia.
6
Q
The most common reason for pediatric cardiac arrest is:
A
respiratory emergency.
7
Q
For every minute that a patient sits in VF, he loses chance of survival.
% from his
A
7-10%
8
Q
Apneic means:
A
having no breathing:
9
Q
Your AED will shock what cardiac arrhythmias?
A
Ventricular Fibrillation.
10
Q
Which of the following is the best way to treat cardiac arrest patient upon arrival at the scene?
A
Perform CPR until the AED is connected, then attempt to shock the patient.
11
Q
What is the primary reason to utilize pediatric AED electrodes on kids?
A
They have an energy attenuator that reduces the delivered dose of therapy.
12
Q
What should you do if you are treating a pediatric cardiac arrest patient and your AED kit has no pediatric electrodes?
A
Use the adult electrodes that are available.
13
Q
When would you utilize adult electrodes instead of pediatric electrodes?
A
When the patient is 8 years of age or older.
14
Q
What should be done when you remove an arrest patient’s shirt and find a medication patch on the chest?
A
Remove the patch and wipe the area then attach electrodes as normal.
15
Q
If your patient has suffered a traumatic cardiac arrest what is the ideal airway maneuver to be utilized?
A
Jaw thrust.
16
Q
You have been attempting to open a trauma patient’s airway with jaw thrust but have been unsuccessful. You should:
A
carefully perform head tilt-chin lift.
17
Q
Which patient is a candidate for the recovery position?
A
An unconscious breathing patient with a pulse but no trauma.
18
Q
What is the rescue breathing rate for an adult respiratory arrest patient?
A
One breath every 5-6 seconds.
19
Q
What is the rescue breathing rate for a pediatric respiratory arrest patient?
A
One breath every 3-5 seconds.
20
Q
You are providing CPR to a 52 year old with a partner. What CPR ratio should you utilize?
A
30 compressions: 2 breaths.
21
Q
Your crew is providing CPR to a 11 year-old female with the beginning of breast development. What CPR ratio do you use?
A
30 compressions: 2 breaths.
22
Q
You are providing 2-rescuer CPR to a 10 year old male with no facial or underarm hair. What CPR ratio do you use?
A
15 compressions: 2 breaths.
23
Q
You are providing single rescuer CPR to a 4 year old. What CPR ratio do you use:
A
30 compressions: 2 breaths.
24
Q
Your cardiac arrest patient is a 10 year-old with no facial or underarm hair. What AED electrodes are best utilized?
A
Adult electrodes.
25
You are performing 2 rescuer CPR on a 54 year old. Paramedics intubate the patient. How should you perform CPR?
Continuous compression with a breath every 6-8 seconds.
26
What is the rate of compression for an adult cardiac arrest patient?
At least 100 compressions per minute.
27
What is the best indicator you have ventilated the patient with sufficient volume?
The breath caused visible chest rise.
28
The main cause of gastric distension is:
too rapid/forceful ventilation.
29
It is recommended that a new rescuer take over compressions every
2 minutes of CPR
30
To receive CPR patient must be:
supine on a hard surface.
31
The landmark for compressions on an adult patient is:
between the nipples on the sternum.
32
Which of the following is NOT a possible complication of chest compressions?
gastric distension.
33
The main advantage of mechanical CPR is that it:
eliminates of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.
34
What is the maximum times per minute should an adult respiratory arrest patient be ventilated?
12
35
What is the maximum times per minute a pediatric respiratory arrest patient should be ventilated?
20
36
What is the recommended compression depth for an adult patient?
About 2"-2.4".
37
What is the recommended compression depth for a child patient?
one third the diameter of the chest or about 2".
38
What is the correct pulse site to check for circulation of a child during
CPR?
Carotid
39
What is the correct location to check for the pulse of an infant during
CPR?
Brachial
40
correct location to check for the pulse of an adult during
CPR?
Carotid
41
When performing chest compressions on a child you should use:
one or two hands.
42
Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?
Dependent blood pooling.
43
CPR should be initiated when:
a valid living will is unavailable.
44
Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started?
Care is transferred to a bystander.
45
Your choking patient is gesturing towards his throat. He can muster a loud cough but cannot expel the object. You should:
provide oxygen and transport.
46
What is the landmark for the first choking maneuver for a 15 month old?
Right above the umbilicus.
47
What is the landmark for the first choking maneuver for a 5 year old?
Above the umbilicus.
48
What is the landmark for the first choking maneuvers for a third-trimester pregnant 28 year-old?
In the middle of the sternum.
49
What is the landmark for the first choking maneuvers for a 4 month old?
Between the shoulder blades.
50
The 40 year-old who you are ventilating has just vomited. You suction and ventilate again but you get resistance. You should:
reposition the head and try again.
51
Your breath gets resistance. You have repositioned the head and the second breath is also met with resistance. You should:
provide 30 chest compressions.
52
The definition of shock is:
poor flow of oxygen to tissues and of waste products away from tissues.
53
A primary waste product that occurs from cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:
carbon dioxide.
54
When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which is:
tachycardia.
55
To compensate for poor perfusion to the core of the body, a person will:
shunt blood away from the skin and surface.
56
The type of shock characterized by failure of the heart to pump effectively is called:
Cardiogenic.
57
The type of shock characterized by systemic massive dilation of blood vessels due to injury to nerve pathways is called:
Neurogenic shock.
58
The type of shock characterized by massive systemic blood vessel dilation from rampant infection is called:
Septic shock.
59
The type of shock characterized by low circulating volume is called:
Hypovolemic shock.
60
The type of shock characterized by mechanical blockage to blood flow or pumping is called:
Obstructive shock.
61
Septic and anaphylactic shock both cause blood vessel dilation, classifying them as.
forms of shock.
Distributive
62
Patients in most shock cases will appear pale sweaty and tachycardic.
This is due to the body's response of:
secreting epinephrine during shock.
63
Patients with spinal injuries often cannot respond to shock. As a result neurogenic shock patients often appear with:
warm dry skin and normal or slightly slow heart rates.
64
Which of the following is a possible mechanisms for hypovolemic shock?
Dehydration
65
Which of the following is a possible mechanism for cardiogenic shock?
Heart attack.
66
Which of the following is a possible mechanism for anaphylactic shock?
Severe allergic reaction.
67
Which of the following is a possible mechanism for neurogenic shock?
Spinal injury.
68
Which of the following is a possible mechanism for obstructive shock?
Tension pneumothorax.
69
An early finding in a shock patient that suggests the condition is still compensated is:
Tachycardia.
70
What decompensated shock symptom suggest that the body's response is no longer adequate to maintain function?
Low blood pressure.
71
Patients with anaphylactic shock often display a symptom not generally found in other shock types.
Wheezing.
72
Vasovagal episodes (psychogenic shock) are temporary, self-correcting shock states involving syncope caused by:
momentary blood vessel dilation.
73
What is another term for hypovolemic shock from severe blood loss?
Hemorrhagic shock.
74
Which of the following cases would most likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
Stab wound to the liver.
75
If an adult patient's blood pressure is 77/44 and he is confused and disoriented, he is in:
Decompensated shock.
76
Pediatric patients in hypovolemic shock typically do not display hypotension until their blood volume drops to:
50% of normal.
77
A sign of decompensated shock is:
hypotension
78
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?
A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and altered mental status.
79
In pediatric patients, capillary refill time (CRT) of over____ seconds is a sign of shock.
2
80
Elderly patients have difficulty with shock because of all of the following EXCEPT:
a lifetime of experience with shock creates a more brisk physiological response to hypoperfusion.
81
An 80 year old has had nausea and diarrhea for 3 days. He is confused diaphoretic, with absent radial pulses and BP 88/42.
This patient is in decompensated hypovolemic shock.
82
32 year-old was stabbed in the chest. He has absent breath sounds on that side JVD and a deviated trachea. His BP is 82/50.
You suspect obstructive shock.
83
Your patient has a severely bleeding amputation of the lower leg that has not responded to direct pressure. You should:
apply a tourniquet to the injured stump .
84
A pedestrian is struck by a car and is semi-conscious with warm, dry skin BP 77/40 and HR 66. You suspect:
Neurogenic shock.
85
You are called for the unconscious patient at a funeral home. The PT is lucid, warm and dry with BP 122/70 and HR 82.
Sounds like psychogenic shock (syncope/vasovagal reaction).
86
Treatments for shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
placing a torniquet on the patient.
87
The intervention most likely to positively affect the outcome of a patient with internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock is:
rapid Transport.
88
Which of the following is NOT a sign of late or decompensated shock?
Tachycardia.
89
In an adult patient, you start worrying about hypotensive decompensated shock if the patient is below _ systolic.
90
90
Choose the mechanism most likely to create anaphylactic shock.
Eating chinese food when one is allergic to peanuts.
91
A patient has a myocardial infarction and loses a significant amount of the left ventricle. This patient is at risk for:
Cardiogenic shock.
92
Choose the shock that could be attributed to severe blood loss:
Hypovolemic
93
Which is not an effect of the secretion of epinephrine as a response to shock?
Bronchoconstriction.
94
Which of the following devices manages shock by pushing blood from the lower body into the torso and vital organs?
Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment (PASG)
95
Which of the following will NOT create hypoperfusion?
Tachycardia
96
If the patient is in cardiogenic shock and his left ventricle cannot keep up with the blood entering the chamber, you:
hear crackles in the lungs.
97
Indications for a tourniquet are:
severe bleeding that does not respond to direct pressure.
98
You have packaged your hypovolemic trauma patient. The trauma center is 15 minutes away and the ALS unit is 10 minutes out.
You decide to make for the trauma center and advise the medics.
99
Breathing rates in shocky patients are expected to:
increase.
100
Hi-flow oxygen helps the patient in shock by:
enriching the blood and improving whatever little perfusion the patient still has left.
101
Water conducts electricity, therefore the aed should not be used in water. If the patients chest is wet then the electrical current may move across the ____ rather than between the pads to the patients heart
Skin
102
Apply the aed to infants or children after the first ___ cycles of cpr have been completed
Five
103
If you use adult sized aed pads on an infant or small child, do not _____
Cut the pads to adjust size. Instead use the anterior-posterior placement
104
You may encounter a patient who has an automated implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) or pacemaker that delivers shocks directly to the heart if necessary. These devices are used in patients who are at high risk for certain ___ and ____
Cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest
105
It is easy to recognize AICDs or pacemakers because
They create a hard lump beneath the skin
106
If you identify an AICD or pacemakers then you should place the aed pad at least
1 inch (2.5cm) away from the device
107
Most prehospital Cardiac arrests occur as the result of a sudden
Cardiac rhythm disturbance (dysrhythmia)
108
The normal heart rhythm is known as normal
Sinus rhythm
109
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is the
Disorganized quivering of the ventricles , resulting in no blood flow and a stat of cardiac arrest
110
Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a
Rapid contraction of the ventricles that does not allow for normal filling of the heart
111
Type of shock
Damaged cervical spine,which causes widespread blood vessel dilation,bradycardia(slow pulse),low blood pressure, signs of neck injury
Neurogenic shock
112
Type of shock
Extreme life threatening allergic reaction,can develop within seconds , mild itching or rash,burning skin, vascular dilation,generalized edema,coma,rapid death
Anaphylactic shock
113
Type of shock
Severe infection ,warm skin or fever,tachycardia,low blood pressure
Septic shock
114
Type of shock
Loss of blood or fluid , rapid,weak pulse,low blood pressure,change in mental status ,cool clammy skin,increased respiratory rate
Hypovolemic shock
115
Cardiogenic shock patient should not receive nitroglycerin;by definition,they are
Hypotensive
116
The early stage of shock,while the body can still compensate for blood loss is called
Compensated shock
117
The late stage, when blood pressure is falling and the mental status is declining is called
Decompensated shock
118
Hypothermia can occur in which shock?
Neurogenic shock. Lose the ability to control body temperature
