Mod 6 Flashcards
1
Q
The body’s veins function by:
A
returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
2
Q
The body’s arteries function by:
A
delivering oxygen-rich blood to the body.
3
Q
Capilaries perform which function:
A
providing a means of oxygen-waste product exchange with cells.
4
Q
Blood stasis changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the:
A
ability of the blood to effectively clot.
5
Q
As red blood cells begin to clump together to form a clot,_ reinforces the clumped red blood cells.
A
fibrinogen
6
Q
Hypoperfusion is another name for:
A
Shock
7
Q
Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the:
A
circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs.
8
Q
Which of the following organs is LEAST sensitive to oxygen deprivation?
A
Skeletal Muscle
9
Q
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ___ of his or her total volume.
A
0.2
10
Q
An infant with a total blood volume of 800ml would start showing signs of shock when as little as___
of blood is lost.
A
100 mL
11
Q
The ability of a person’s cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to:
A
how rapidly he or she bleeds.
12
Q
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
A
the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
13
Q
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings EXCEPT:
A
systolic blood pressure.
14
Q
In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the
MOST difficult to control?
A
femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mmlg.
15
Q
Which of the following medications DOES NOT affect a patient’s ability to control their own bleeding with clotting?
A
Nitroglycerin
16
Q
A fractured femur can result in the loss of ___ or more of blood in the soft tissues of the thigh.
A
1 L
17
Q
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
A
Tachycardia
18
Q
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:
A
hematemesis.
19
Q
Your patient is a 25 year-old who was struck by a car. He is restless, tachycardic, and has RUQ abdominal bruising. You should:
A
Prepare for immediate transport.
20
Q
A young male is shot in the abdomen and is semi-conscious with shallow breathing. As you control bleeding, your partner:
A
assists the patient’s ventilations.
21
Q
Your conscious and alert patient has a severe bleed of the arm following an accident with a table saw. You should:
A
provide direct pressure to the injury.
22
Q
Your patient has acute abdominal pain. During the transport she stops talking and becomes abruptly diaphoretic. You first:
A
repeat the primary assessment.
23
Q
What sign/symptom would you expect early stages of shock?
A
Tachycardia
24
Q
Functions of the skin include all of the following EXCEPT:
A
the production of key antibodies.
25
When a person is exposed to a cold environment:
peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.
26
A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
Contusion
27
Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct?
Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for 4 hours.
28
The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is:
pain out of proportion to the injury.
29
A 30-year-old man's arm has been freed from a machine it was trapped in. It is deformed, cold, pale with no radial pulse.
You suspect compartment syndrome.
30
In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is:
Infection
31
Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in scraped surface?
Abrasion
32
A laceration
is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma.
33
An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
Avulsion
34
What is the best way to manage an avulsion?
Replace the flap of tissue into its original position and cover it with a dressing.
35
In assessing a trauma patient, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it.
This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a shotgun.
36
A patient who was struck in the head has a large hematoma and cannot remember the event. You stabilize his head then:
administer high-flow oxygen.
37
You applied dressing and roller gauze to a patient's wound. During transport she feels numbness and tingling in her hand.
You should assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
38
When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should:
avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
39
Your patient was in a burning home. He has superficial/partial thickness chest and face burns, sooty sputum, and singed nose hair.
You are MOST concerned with the potential for airway swelling.
40
Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct?
Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage.
41
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
42
According to the rule of palm method for computing burn surface the palm of the patient's hand is equal to___bsa
1%
43
In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:
an air embolism.
44
An abdominal evisceration:
occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
45
A patient with GSW to the chest has received oxygen. During a secondary assessment, you note a bubbling open chest wound. You should:
apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment.
46
You are transporting a trauma patient to the hospital on a board when he vomits a large amount of material. You FIRST:
turn the backboard onto its side.
47
A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden sharp pain in his left eye from a wooden splinter. You should:
cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.
48
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
Liver
49
Peritonitis, an intense inflammatory reaction of the abdominal cavity, usually occurs when:
hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
50
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct?
The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
51
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
Guarding
52
While assessing a 21-year-old who struck a tree head-on with her small car, you note that her airbag deployed. You should:
lift the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
53
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
54
During the assessment of a patient with blunt trauma to the abdomen you find bruising around the umbilicus which suggests:
intra-abdominal bleeding.
55
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
56
Which of the following organs, when injured, is known as a cause of notoriously severe bleeding?
Liver
57
The abdominal trauma patient is in great discomfort and is guarding his belly by lying on his side with legs drawn up.
You decide to transport him in the position of comfort he assumed.
58
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured:
diaphragm.
59
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
60
Your patient was kicked in the back in a fight and you note a spot of blood in his underwear. This is consistent with:
blunt injury to the kidney.
61
Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture?
Urinary bladder
62
A late stage pregnancy patient who is on a backboard should have the board tilted slightly to the left to:
prevent the uterus from compressing the vena cava.
63
A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is:
hematuria.
64
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
65
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum?
Lungs
66
A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball.
You suspect ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle.
67
A rapid, irregular pulse, following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a:
myocardial contusion.
68
A flail chest occurs when:
a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracie cage.
69
Patients with rib fractures will commonly:
breathe rapidly and shallowly.
70
Which of the following is a sign that air is escaping the respiratory system and seeping into the chest wall?
Subcutaneous emphysema.
71
Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade?
Engorged jugular veins
72
When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find:
signs and symptoms of shock.
73
You are ventilating a semi-conscious tension pneumothorax patient. It is critical to summon ALS immediately because:
this patient will most greatly benefit from needle decompression of the chest.
74
Which of the following is NOT consistent with cardiac tamponade?
Unilateral breath sounds.
75
Which of the following is NOT consistent with tension pneumothorax?
Narrowing pulse pressure.
76
You sealed an open chest wound. During transport the patient gets cyanotic with respiratory distress and tachycardia.
You should partially remove the dressing.
77
Which of the following best describes pneumothorax?
Accumulation of air in the pleural space.
78
What is the hallmark sign of fail chest injury?
Paradoxical chest movement.
79
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
80
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12
81
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
5
82
Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following EXCEPT:
hematemesis.
83
Hemoptysis is defined as:
coughing up blood.
84
Immediate death from blunt chest trauma, following a motor vehicle crash, is MOST often the result of:
traumatic aortic rupture.
85
A rib fracture patient will often increase his respiratory rate to maintain his minute volume due to:
pain from the fractured ribs created during deep breaths.
86
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
break in the continuity of the bone.
87
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a:
dislocation.
88
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
the overlying skin is no longer intact.
89
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should:
compare it to the uninjured leg.
90
Which suggests edema in a body part?
Swelling
91
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
Pelvic fracture with hypotension.
92
A unconscious 22-year-old female was ejected from her car. You note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs.
You first stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
93
A Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment (PASG) is designed to:
immobilize and push blood from the lower extremities and pelvis into the corso.
94
The skin and underlying tissues of the face:
have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
95
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n):
airway obstruction.
96
Since facial injuries often complicate the patient's airway and breathing you should:
Frequently reassess these patients.
97
Which of the following is the best treatment for a patient who experiences exposure of a caustic substance to the eyes?
Flushing the eyes with water for 20 minutes of more.
98
Transport to a trauma center, even if more distant than a community hospital, is indicated in trauma because it provides:
rapid access to life-saving surgery within minutes of arrival.
99
According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:
traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame.
100
While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular.
You suspect bruising of the heart muscle.
101
What prevents backflow of blood in the heart?
One-way valves prevent backflow of blood and keep it moving in the proper direction.
102
What are arterioles?
Arterioles are smaller blood vessels that connect the arteries and capillaries.
103
What are capillaries and what is their size?
Capillaries are small tubes with the diameter of a single red blood cell, and they link arterioles and venules.
104
What happens to blood after it leaves the capillaries?
Blood leaving the distal side of the capillaries flows into the venules.
105
What do venules empty into?
Venules empty into veins.
106
Where do veins empty into?
Veins empty into the inferior and superior venae cavae.
107
What vital signs are affected by significant blood loss?
Significant blood loss can cause increased heart and respiratory rates, and decreased blood pressure.
108
What is the maximum acute blood loss the body can tolerate?
The body cannot tolerate an acute blood loss of greater than 20% of total blood volume, or more than 2 pints (approximately 1 L) in the average adult.
109
How much blood does the typical adult female body contain per kilogram of body weight?
The typical adult female body contains approximately 65 mL of blood per kilogram of body weight.
110
How much blood does the typical adult male body contain per kilogram of body weight?
The typical adult male body contains approximately 70 mL of blood per kilogram of body weight.
111
How much total blood volume does a 1-year-old child have?
A 1-year-old child has a total blood volume of about 27 oz (800 mL).
112
How much blood loss in a 1-year-old can lead to significant symptoms?
A 1-year-old will show significant symptoms after losing 3 to 6 oz (100 to 200 mL) of blood, or less than half the volume of a 12-oz can of soda.
113
What is a hematoma?
hematoma is a mass of blood that has collected in the soft tissues beneath the skin, indicating bleeding into the soft tissues.
114
What is hematemesis?
Hematemesis is the vomiting of blood, which may be bright red or dark red. If the blood has been partially digested, the vomitus may look like coffee grounds.
115
What is melena?
Melena is black, foul-smelling, tarry stool that contains digested blood.
116
What are the three types of soft-tissue injuries?
The three types of soft-tissue injuries are closed injuries, open injuries, and burns.
117
What is a closed soft-tissue injury?
A closed injury occurs when soft-tissue damage happens beneath the skin or mucous membrane, but the surface remains intact.
118
What is an open soft-tissue injury?
An open injury occurs when there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissues to potential contamination.
119
What causes burns in soft tissues?
Burns can be caused by thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
120
Closed soft tissue injuries are characterized by a
History of blunt trauma,pain at the site of the injury,swelling beneath the skin, and discoloration
121
What is a contusion
Is an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin but does not break the skin
122
What can cause a hematoma?
A hematoma can result from a soft-tissue injury, a fracture, or any injury to a blood vessel.
123
What happens in a crushing injury?
A crushing injury occurs when significant force is applied to the body, causing damage that depends on how much force is applied and for how long.
124
How does continued compression of soft tissues affect the body?
Continued compression of soft tissues cuts off circulation, producing further tissue destruction.
125
What can happen if a body part is trapped for longer than 4 hours with compromised arterial blood flow?
If a body part is trapped for longer than 4 hours with compromised arterial blood flow, crush syndrome can develop.
126
What happens when muscle cells die in crush syndrome?
When muscle cells die, they release harmful substances into the surrounding tissues, which only enter the body's circulation once blood flow is restored.
127
What causes compartment syndrome?
Compartment syndrome develops when edema and swelling increase pressure within a closed soft-tissue compartment, interfering with circulation.
128
Where is compartment syndrome most commonly found?
Compartment syndrome commonly develops in the extremities.
129
How does the energy absorbed from blunt force affect injuries?
The greater the amount of energy absorbed from blunt force, the greater the risk of injury to deeper structures.
130
At what temperature can thermal burns occur?
Thermal burns can occur when skin is exposed to temperatures higher than 111°F (44°C).
131
How do solids and gases differ in their burn potential?
Solids generally have higher heat content than gases, so exposure to a hot solid typically causes a more significant burn than exposure to hot gases.
132
What is the threshold for partial-thickness burns to require transfer to a burn center in patients aged 10 to 50?
Partial-thickness burns of 20% TBSA or greater in patients 10 to 50 years of age.
133
What layers of skin are affected by superficial (first-degree) burns?
Superficial burns affect only the top layer of skin, the epidermis.
134
What is an example of a superficial (first-degree) burn?
Sunburn is a common example of a superficial burn.
135
What layers of skin are affected by partial-thickness (second-degree) burns?
Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and some portion of the dermis.
136
What is a closed head injury?
A closed head injury occurs when the brain is injured but there is no opening to the brain, such as in a severe blow that fractures the skull without creating an open wound.
137
What is an open head injury?
An open head injury occurs when there is an opening from the outside world to the brain, often caused by penetrating trauma, and may involve obvious skull deformity and a break in the skin.
138
What are some common signs of an open head injury?
Obvious skull deformity, a break in the skin, bleeding, and exposed brain tissue.
139
What are the most common mechanisms of injury (MOIs) for head and brain injuries?
Falls and motor vehicle crashes are among the most common MOIs for head and brain injuries.
140
How does the National Head Injury Foundation define a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A TBI is defined as a traumatic insult to the brain that can produce physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes.
141
What are the two broad categories of traumatic brain injuries (TBI)?
The two categories are primary (direct) injury and secondary (indirect) injury.
142
What is an evisceration?
An evisceration is a severe laceration of the abdominal wall that causes internal organs to protrude from the wound.
143
What should you do if an evisceration is discovered?
Place a sterile dressing moistened with normal saline over the wound, apply a bandage, and transport the patient. Never attempt to push the eviscerated tissue or organs back into the abdominal cavity.
144
Why should the affected area of an evisceration be kept warm and moist?
Body heat escapes quickly from open abdominal wounds, and exposed organs lose fluid rapidly. Keeping the area warm and moist helps prevent further complications.
145
What is a nondisplaced fracture?
A nondisplaced fracture, or hairline fracture, is a simple crack in the bone that may be difficult to distinguish from a sprain or contusion. Radiographic examinations are needed for diagnosis.
146
What is a displaced fracture?
A displaced fracture causes actual deformity, shortening, rotation, or angulation of the limb. It is often obvious and may be associated with crepitus, but in some cases, the deformity is minimal.
147
What is a strain (pulled muscle)?
A strain is a stretching or tearing of the muscle and/or tendon, causing pain, swelling, and bruising in the affected area.
148
What is a sprain?
A sprain occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion, causing injury to the ligaments, articular capsule, synovial membrane, and tendons crossing the joint.
149
What is hematuria
Blood in the urine
150
What is cardiac tamponade?
Cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade) occurs when the pericardial sac fills with blood or fluid, potentially from a ruptured artery, cancer, or autoimmune diseases like lupus. This restricts the heart's ability to fill with blood, affecting its pumping capacity.
151
What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade?
The signs include the Beck triad: distended jugular veins, a narrowing pulse pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Mental status changes may also occur due to reduced blood flow to the brain.
152
What type of dressing should be used for a penetrating chest wound?
A vented chest seal or an occlusive dressing should be used. The occlusive dressing should be taped on three sides, leaving one side open to allow air to escape but not enter the chest.
153
What is intracranial pressure (ICP)?
ICP is the pressure within the cranial vault, which can increase due to blood accumulation or brain swelling, leading to compression of the brain against bony prominences in the skull.
154
What is Cushing reflex?
Cushing reflex is the triad of increased systolic blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and irregular respirations, which signifies increased ICP.
155
What is the aqueous humor?
The aqueous humor is a clear, watery fluid found in front of the lens of the eye that helps maintain eye pressure and shape.
156
What is the primary characteristic of a Level I trauma center?
A Level I trauma center is a regional resource center, typically found in large cities or heavily populated areas. It provides comprehensive trauma care from prevention through rehabilitation and has extensive personnel and resources. These are often university-based teaching hospitals.
157
Where are Level II trauma centers typically located, and what care do they provide?
Level II trauma centers are generally located in less populated areas. They provide initial definitive care for trauma patients, regardless of injury severity. These centers may not offer the same comprehensive care as Level I centers but are capable of providing essential services.
158
What services does a Level III trauma center provide?
Level III trauma centers serve communities without access to Level I or II facilities. They provide assessment, resuscitation, emergency care, and stabilization. They must have transfer agreements with higher-level trauma centers for patients requiring more extensive care.
159
What is the role of a Level IV trauma center?
Level IV trauma centers are typically located in remote areas with no higher-level trauma care available. They provide Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) and stabilize patients before transferring them to a higher-level trauma center.
160
What are primary blast injuries
These injuries are due entirely to the blast itself; that is, damage to the body is caused by the pressure wave generated by the explosion. When the victim is close to the blast, the blast wave may cause disruption of major blood vessels and rupture of eardrums and major organs, including the lungs.
Hollow organs are the most susceptible to the pressure wave. In some cases, pressure wave injuries can amputate limbs.
161
What are secondary blast injuries
Secondary blast injuries. Damage to the body results from being struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel from the device or from glass or splinters, which have been set in motion by the explosion. Objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim, causing injury. These objects can travel great distances and be propelled at tremendous speeds, up to almost 3,000 mph for conventional military explosives.
162
What are Tertiary blast injuries
These injuries occur when the patient is hurled by the force of the explosion against a stationary object. A blast wind (sudden change in the surrounding atmos-phere) creates a pressure wave. This can cause the patient's body to be hurled or thrown, resulting in further injury. This physical displacement of the body is also referred to as ground shock when the body impacts the ground.
163
What are quaternary blast injuries
This category of miscellaneous injuries includes burns from hot gases or fires started by the blast; respiratory injury from inhaling toxic gases; suffoca-tion; poisoning; medical emergencies incurred as a result of the explosion; crush injuries from the collapse of buildings; contamination of wounds from environmental, chemical, or toxic substances; radiation injury from dirty bombs; and mental health emergencies. Es-sentially, all injuries due to the blast event that are not attributable directly to a primary, sec-ondary, or tertiary mechanism are categorized as quaternary blast injuries.
164
You and your partner find a 44-year-old man seated in an office holding the left side of his head. According to bystanders, the patient
was struck on the side of his head with a tire iron during a dispute with another employee. He was unconscious for approximately
3 minutes.While performing a secondary assessment of the patient you find a depressed area above the patient’s left ear. This indicates that
the patient could have:
an epidural hematoma.
165
The central nervous system is composed of the
brain and the spinal cord
166
The peripheral nervous system conducts sensory and motor impulses from the
the skin and other organs to the spinal cord.
167
brain is part of the central nervous system and is the organ that controls
controls the body
168
Cerebrum
Controls a wide variety of activities,
voluntary motor function and conscious thought
169
Spinal cord
Made up of
fibers that extend from the brain’s nerve cells
170
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Produced in a chamber inside the brain called the
third ventricle
171
Two types of peripheral nerves
Sensory nerves,Motor nerves
172
Sensory nerves
Carry only one type
one type of information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord
173
Motor nerves
One for each muscle
Carry information from the
CNS to the muscles
174
Voluntary activities are activities we
consciously perform
175
Involuntary activities are the actions that are not
under conscious control
176
Somatic (voluntary) nervous system handles
voluntary activities.
177
Sympathetic nervous system reacts to
stress with a fight-or-flight response.
178
Basilar skull fractures
Associated with high-energy trauma
Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head
Signs include
CSF drainage from the ears, raccoon eyes, and Battle sign.
179
Primary brain injury results
instantaneously from impact to the head.
180
Secondary brain injury increases the
severity of the primary injury.
181
A coup-contrecoup injury can result from
striking a windshield.
182
Epidural hematoma
Accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater
Nearly always the result of a blow to the head that produces a linear fracture
183
Subdural hematoma
Accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain
Occurs after falls or injuries involving strong deceleration forces
May or may not be skull fracture
184
Always suspect a possible head or spinal injury with
Rapid deceleration injuries
Hangings
Axial loading injuries
Diving accidents
185
Once the cervical collar is on, do not remove it unless
it causes a problem with maintaining the airway.
186
As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that:
blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.
187
A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n):
epidural hematoma.
188
A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and “seeing stars,” and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n):
concussion.
189
A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss?
Retrograde amnesia
190
A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following:
hanging-type mechanisms.
191
During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until:
the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.
192
Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should:
manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.
193
A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should:
manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.
194
You should NOT remove an injured football player’s helmet if:
the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.
195
When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost one-third of patients, usually within seconds, is:
aortic shearing.
196
During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
197
When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be:
ventilatory inadequacy.
198
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as:
striated muscle.
199
You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that:
stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred.
200
A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess:
sensory and motor functions.
201
The purpose of splinting a fracture is to:
prevent motion of bony fragments.
202
A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves:
securing him to a long backboard.
203
Kinetic energy is a calculation of:
weight and speed.
204
A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern?
Nonintact windshield
205
Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the three-collision effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash?
Extensive damage to the automobile Rationale: This would occur in the first collision.
Flail chest and lower extremity fractures Rationale: This would occur in the second collision.
Massive external trauma with severe bleeding Rationale: This would occur in the second collision.
Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain Rationale: Correct answer
206
