MOD2 PART1 Flashcards
(83 cards)
Which of the following statements regarding folate metabolism is CORRECT?
A. The greatest amount of folate absorption occurs in the distal ileum
B. Hydrolases facilitate the export of absorbed polyglutamyl folate to other cells
C. A large volume of distribution in the body prevents the rapid development of severe folate deficiency
D. Freezing in sub-zero temperatures easily destroys folic acid
B. Hydrolases facilitate the export of absorbed polyglutamyl folate to other cells
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the erythrocyte?
A. The size of the red cell mass reflects the balance of red cell production and destruction
B. Mature RBC is discoid and extremely pliable to traverse the microcirculation successfully
C. The organ responsible for red cell production is called the erythron
D. Membrane integrity of the RBC is highly dependent on extracellular generation of ATP, due to lack of organelles
D. Membrane integrity of the RBC is highly dependent on extracellular generation of ATP, due to lack of organelles
This test rises in severe cobalamin deficiency because of the block in conversion of MTH to tetrahydrofolate (THF) inside cells?
A. Red Cell Folate
B. Serum Cobalamin
C. Serum Folate
D. Serum Methylmalonate and Homocysteine
C. Serum Folate
What is a physical examination finding in anemic patients with hemoglobin level between 8-10 g/dL?
A. Lighter color in the palmar creases compared to surrounding skin when hyperextended
B. Hypotension
C. Agitation
D. Forceful heartbeat
D. Forceful heartbeat
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about erythropoietin?
A. EPO is exclusively produced and released by peritubular capillary lining cells within the kidney
B. The fundamental stimulus for EPO production is the availability of oxygen for tissue metabolic needs
C. Plasma EPO levels increase in proportion to the severity of the anemia
D. EPO acts by binding to specific receptors on the surface of marrow erythroid precursors, inducing them to proliferate and to mature
A. EPO is exclusively produced and released by peritubular capillary lining cells within the kidney
TRUE of oxygen affinity of hemoglobin in different situations
A. Increase in 2,3 BPG increases hemoglobin oxygen affinity
B. Hemoglobin has a higher oxygen affinity among patients with hypovolemic shock
C. During pregnancy, there is an expected fall in hemoglobin levels
D. There is better oxygen delivery noted at higher altitudes
C. During pregnancy, there is an expected fall in hemoglobin levels
D. There is better oxygen delivery noted
Which of the following is associated with erythropoietin regulation?
A. Body mass index
B. Red cell volume
C. Tissue oxygenation
D. Marrow erythroid
C. Tissue oxygenation
What is NOT a key element in erythropoiesis?
A. Erythropoietin production
B. Functional hepcidin
C. Iron
D. Erythroid marrow
B. Functional hepcidin
Which of the following is an example of an antifolate drug?
A. Omeprazole
B. Cefuroxime
C. Phenytoin
D. Paracetamol
C. Phenytoin
What is the recommended dose of folic acid among women who have had a previous fetus with a neural tube defect and is contemplating pregnancy?
A. 5 µg daily
B. 5 mg daily
C. 400 µg daily
D. 400 mg daily
B. 5 mg daily
TRUE about treatment of iron deficiency anemia
A. Oral iron is usually inadequate for asymptomatic patients with established iron-deficiency anemia
B. A patient with sensitivity to one preparation of intravenous iron should not be given any parenteral preparation to avoid prophylaxis
C. Transfusion therapy is reserved for individuals who have symptoms of anemia, cardiovascular instability, and continued and excessive blood loss from whatever source
D. Oral iron supplementation must always be accompanied with oral vitamin C supplementation
C. Transfusion therapy is reserved for individuals who have symptoms of anemia, cardiovascular instability, and continued and excessive blood loss from whatever
source
Which of the following statements about the clinical presentation of iron deficiency is NOT TRUE?
A. Koilonychia is a sign of advanced tissue iron deficiency
B. The appearance of iron deficiency in an adult male or post-menopausal female means gastrointestinal blood loss until proven otherwise
C. The diagnosis of iron deficiency is typically based on laboratory results
D. Cheilosis is a sign of early tissue iron deficiency
D. Cheilosis is a sign of early tissue iron deficiency
Which of the following drugs is associated with the development of folate deficiency?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Colchicine
C. Neomycin
D. Insulin
A. Nitrofurantoin
Which of the following conditions is associated with folate deficiency at the time of conception and early stages of pregnancy?
A. Infertility
B. Congenital heart defects
C. Cleft palate
D. Respiratory distress
C. Cleft palate
Which of the following is a sign of chronic anemia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Systolic flow murmur
C. Cyanosis
D. Faint peripheral pulses
B. Systolic flow murmur
Match the following causes of iron deficiency to their corresponding categories
Menstruation
A. Increased Iron Loss
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
C. Increased Demand for Iron
D. None of the above
A. Increased Iron Loss
Match the following causes of iron deficiency to their corresponding categories
Chronic GI Bleeding
A. Increased Iron Loss
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
C. Increased Demand for Iron
D. None of the above
A. Increased Iron Loss
Match the following causes of iron deficiency to their corresponding categories
Crohn’s Disease
A. Increased Iron Loss
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
C. Increased Demand for Iron
D. None of the above
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
Match the following causes of iron deficiency to their corresponding categories
Pregnancy
A. Increased Iron Loss
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
C. Increased Demand for Iron
D. None of the above
C. Increased Demand for Iron
Match the following causes of iron deficiency to their corresponding categories
Bariatric Surgery
A. Increased Iron Loss
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
C. Increased Demand for Iron
D. None of the above
B. Decreased Iron Intake/Absorption
Which among these causes of cobalamin deficiency may be severe enough to cause megaloblastic anemia?
A. Total gastrectomy
B. HIV infection
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Pancreatitis
A. Total gastrectomy
What would be the level of hemoglobin if pallor is noted on the palmar creases of a patient, who complained of dizziness and easy fatigability? It is likely less than
A. 6 g/dL
B. 7 g/dL
C. 8 g/dL
D. 9 g/dL
C. 8 g/dL
Which of the following describes patients with megaloblastic anemia?
A. A patient presenting with marked weight gain and increased appetite
B. A male patient complaining of paresthesias, muscle weakness, and visual impairment
C. A female patient, without subjective complaints during a routine annual physical examination, presenting with decreased MCV in her CBC results
D. Cognitive impairment and changes in sensorium in a patient with recent alcohol use at a friend’s birthday party
B. A male patient complaining of paresthesias, muscle weakness, and visual impairment
Which of the following is accurate regarding the absorption of vitamin B12?
A. In the ileum, bound vitamin B12 is released from haptocorrin by the action of pancreatic proteases and associated with intrinsic factor
B. Vitamin B12 is freed from binding proteins in food through the action of haptocorrin in the stomach and binds to a salivary protein
C. Within ileal cells, vitamin B12 associated with a major carrier protein, transcobalamin II
D. Ileal enterocytes express a receptor for intrinsic factorB called haptocorrin
C. Within ileal cells, vitamin B12 associated with a major carrier protein, transcobalamin II