MODULE 1

Question 1

What is the primary role of a medical assistant (MA)?
A. Assisting in inpatient surgical procedures
B. Managing hospital administration
C. Working alongside a provider in an outpatient setting
D. Supervising nurses in the emergency department

Answer 1

c

Question 2

2. Which of the following is considered an administrative duty of a medical assistant?
   A. Performing spirometry tests
   B. Collecting blood specimens
   C. Greeting patients and scheduling appointments
   D. Measuring vital signs

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following certifications would allow an MA to specialize in heart-related diagnostic testing?
A. CMAA
B. CPT
C. CET
D. CBCS

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following determines the scope of medical assistants?
A
State medical boards
B
Individual companies
C
Physician the MA works under
D
Credentialing organizations

Answer 4

a

Question 5

Who performs diagnostic testing on blood and other bodily fluids under supervision?
A. Pharmacy technician
B. Radiology technician
C. Medical laboratory technician
D. Medical assistant

Answer 5

c

Question 6

Which allied health professional is responsible for answering phones and scheduling appointments?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Medical receptionist
C. Physical therapist
D. Medical laboratory technician

Answer 6

b

Question 7

Which of the following must work under the direct supervision of a licensed pharmacist?
A. Medical assistant
B. Pharmacy technician
C. Medical laboratory technician
D. Radiology technician

Answer 7

b

Question 8

Which of the following professions may have a scope that includes managing patient care independently?
Select all that apply.
A
Medical providers
B
Physician assistants
C
Nurse practitioners
D
Osteopathic providers

Answer 8

a,d

Question 9

Which of the following professionals must be licensed to practice?
A. Certified EKG Technician
B. Medical Assistant
C. Physician (MD or DO)
D. Pharmacy Technician

Answer 9

c

Question 10

What is the difference between licensure and certification?
A. Licensure is optional; certification is required
B. Certification allows prescribing medications; licensure does not
C. Licensure is state-mandated; certification is often voluntary but shows competency
D. Licensure is national; certification is only state-recognized

Answer 10

c

Question 11

What is licensure by reciprocity?
A. When a provider takes the board exam again in another state
B. When a provider is issued a temporary license
C. When a state recognizes a license from another state without retesting
D. When a physician completes a fellowship

Answer 11

c

Question 12

Which of the following describes the process for obtaining a medical license from one state based on requirements being met in another state?
A
Reciprocity
B
Examination
C
Endorsement
D
Graduation

Answer 12

a

Question 13

What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient care?
A. Inpatient care is provided by specialists; outpatient care is provided by generalists
B. Inpatient care requires hospital admission; outpatient care does not
C. Inpatient care is less expensive than outpatient care
D. Outpatient care is only used for hospice patients

Answer 13

b

Question 14

Which of the following is an example of an outpatient setting?
A. Hospital intensive care unit
B. Emergency surgery unit
C. Primary care clinic
D. Rehabilitation hospital

Answer 14

c

Question 15

Specialty care clinics focus on:
A. Basic health screenings and vaccinations
B. Diagnosing general illnesses
C. Managing complex or severe conditions in a specific area of medicine
D. Emergency stabilization of all patients

Answer 15

c

Question 16

Which care type is prescribed and overseen by a provider and includes services like physical or speech therapy at the patient’s residence?
A. Hospice
B. Ambulatory
C. Home Health
D. Mobile Health

Answer 16

c

Question 17

What is the main goal of hospice care?
A. Complete rehabilitation
B. End-of-life comfort, not curative treatment
C. Reducing insurance costs
D. Emergency stabilization

Answer 17

b

Question 18

Which of the following patients is receiving inpatient care?
A
A patient completes diagnostic testing at a hospital and returns home following the test.
B
A patient visits their primary care provider for a physical exam.
C
A patient goes to a hospice facility for end-of-life care.
D
A patient receives physical therapy in their home following hospitalization.

Answer 18

c

Question 19

. What is the main goal of value-based care?
A. To maximize billing for services and procedures
B. To focus on specialty intervention instead of primary care
C. To improve outcomes and satisfaction while reducing cost and supporting providers
D. To eliminate all insurance coverage

Answer 19

c

Question 20

Which of the following is not part of the Quadruple Aim?
A. Improved patient outcomes
B. Higher provider billing
C. Lower health care costs
D. Health care professional well-being

Answer 20

b

Question 21

In a value-based model, providers are:
A. Paid per test or procedure performed
B. Financially rewarded for keeping patients healthy
C. Encouraged to avoid preventive care
D. Required to refer all patients to specialists

Answer 21

b

Question 22

In a value-based model, providers are:
A. Paid per test or procedure performed
B. Financially rewarded for keeping patients healthy
C. Encouraged to avoid preventive care
D. Required to refer all patients to specialists

Answer 22

b

Question 23

What is a key provider incentive under capitation?
A. Increase the number of visits per patient
B. Minimize preventive services
C. Prevent high-cost services by improving care efficiency
D. Refer all patients to out-of-network providers

Answer 23

c

Question 24

What is the primary focus of a general practitioner (GP)?
A. Only surgical care
B. Only pediatric treatment
C. Holistic care including biological, psychological, and social aspects
D. Emergency trauma care

Answer 24

c

Question 25

Which type of provider typically focuses on adult patients and often manages chronic conditions? A. Internist B. Pediatrician C. Family practitioner D. Surgeon

Answer 25

a

Question 26

Which specialist provides care during and after pregnancy? A. Neonatologist B. Gynecologist C. Obstetrician D. Urologist

Answer 26

c

Question 27

A nephrologist specializes in disorders of which body system? A. Nervous system B. Reproductive system C. Kidneys and related structures D. Endocrine system

Answer 27

c

Question 28

Which provider treats patients with anemia, leukemia, or lymphoma? A. Oncologist B. Hematologist C. Radiologist D. Internist

Answer 28

b

Question 29

A neonatologist provides care to: A. Pregnant women B. Adolescents C. Newborns who are ill or premature D. Children with cancer

Answer 29

c

Question 30

Who would most likely manage a patient with bone fractures or tendon injuries? A. Orthopedist B. Neurologist C. Otolaryngologist D. Hematologist

Answer 30

c

Question 31

A psychiatrist is a medical doctor who: A. Performs surgery on the brain B. Treats mental health conditions with diagnosis and medication C. Provides general counseling D. Diagnoses speech and language disorders

Answer 31

b

Question 32

Which provider treats cancers and provides oncology care? A. Hematologist B. Internist C. Oncologist D. Pathologist

Answer 32

c

Question 33

What type of physician would you consult for gallbladder or pancreas disorders? A. Hepatologist B. Urologist C. Gynecologist D. Orthopedist

Answer 33

a

Question 34

What is the primary advantage of urgent care centers compared to emergency departments? A. Higher cost and faster ambulance service B. Lower cost, shorter wait times, and convenient locations C. Availability of specialized surgery D. Only available by referral

Answer 34

b

Question 35

What does acupuncture involve? A. Spinal manipulation B. Inserting needles into the skin or tissues to relieve pain C. Using dietary supplements for healing D. Energy clearing through meditation

Answer 35

b

Question 36

Which complementary therapy focuses on spinal manipulation and alignment to improve pain and body function? A. Acupuncture B. Energy therapy C. Chiropractic medicine D. Aromatherapy

Answer 36

c

Question 37

Energy therapy promotes health by: A. Using dietary supplements B. Manipulating bones and muscles C. Clearing cellular memory through the human energy field D. Applying herbal extracts directly to the skin

Answer 37

c

Question 38

Dietary supplements may include which of the following? A. Vitamins and minerals B. Herbs and botanicals C. Amino acids D. All of the above

Answer 38

d

Question 39

Which class of medication is primarily used to relieve pain? A. Antihistamines B. Analgesics C. Antipyretics D. Anticholinergics

Answer 39

b

Question 40

What is an example of an anticoagulant used to delay blood clotting? A. Warfarin B. Amoxicillin C. Metoprolol D. Ibuprofen

Answer 40

a

Question 41

Which medication classification is used to lower cholesterol? A. Antilipemics B. Antihypertensives C. Antidepressants D. Antifungals

Answer 41

a

Question 42

What medication classification would be used to treat bacterial infections? A. Antivirals B. Antibiotics C. Antiemetics D. Antipyretics

Answer 42

b

Question 43

Which medication is a bronchodilator? A. Albuterol B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Loratadine D. Diazepam

Answer 43

a

Question 44

Which medication is an antidepressant? A. Fluoxetine B. Gabapentin C. Lisinopril D. Cyclobenzaprine

Answer 44

a

Question 45

Which class of drugs is used to reduce fever? A. Antihypertensives B. Antipyretics C. Antidiarrheals D. Sedative-hypnotics

Answer 45

b

Question 46

Which of the following medication classifications is amoxicillin under? A Antidepressant B Antihypertensive C Antidiarrheal D Antibiotic

Answer 46

d

Question 47

Which schedule of controlled substances includes drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

Answer 47

a

Question 48

Which of the following is an example of a Schedule II controlled substance? A. Diazepam B. Morphine C. Ketamine D. Diphenoxylate with atropine

Answer 48

b

Question 49

How many times can a Schedule III controlled substance be refilled within 6 months? A. No refills allowed B. 3 times C. 5 times D. Unlimited

Answer 49

c

Question 50

Which schedule contains drugs like tramadol and alprazolam, which have a low potential for abuse? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

Answer 50

d

Question 51

According to federal regulations, Schedule II prescriptions: A. Can be refilled up to five times in six months B. Must be signed by hand except in certain electronic cases C. Can be called in to the pharmacy without a written prescription D. Have no restrictions on early refills

Answer 51

b

Question 52

What is a proper storage requirement for Schedule II controlled substances? A. Stored in a simple locked drawer B. No special storage required C. Stored in a safe or steel cabinet, mounted if under 750 pounds, with two locked doors requiring different keys D. Kept in a refrigerated environment

Answer 52

c

Question 53

When a patient is prescribed a Schedule II medication like Adderall, how often must they typically visit the provider for a checkup to continue the prescription? A. Every month B. Every 3 months C. Every 6 months D. Once a year

Answer 53

b

Question 54

What is the term for the intended, positive effect of a medication that justifies its use? A) Side effect B) Therapeutic effect C) Adverse effect D) Precaution

Answer 54

b

Question 55

Which of the following best describes a side effect? A) A harmful reaction that requires stopping the medication B) An expected but undesirable effect like dry mouth or nausea C) The main reason the medication is prescribed D) A symptom that prevents the medication from being used

Answer 55

b

Question 56

What does “indication” mean in the context of medication? A) The unwanted reactions from a medication B) The reason or condition the medication is prescribed to treat C) Conditions that prevent medication use D) Effects that need close monitoring

Answer 56

b

Question 57

Which term refers to conditions or symptoms that make the use of a medication unsafe or dangerous? A) Indications B) Precautions C) Side effects D) Contraindications

Question 58

Which term refers to conditions or symptoms that make the use of a medication unsafe or dangerous? A) Indications B) Precautions C) Side effects D) Contraindications

Answer 58

d

Question 59

Which of the following measurement systems are most commonly used in prescription doses? A Metric B Apothecary C Standard D Household

Answer 59

a

Question 60

What is the process called when the body converts medication into a usable form and moves it into the bloodstream? A) Distribution B) Metabolism C) Absorption D) Excretion

Answer 60

c

Question 61

Which route of medication administration results in the fastest onset of action? A) Oral tablets B) Eye drops C) Intravenous (IV) injection D) Topical application

Answer 61

c

Question 62

How does fat solubility affect medication absorption? A) Medications that are fat-soluble dissolve slower B) Fat-soluble medications pass more easily through cell membranes C) Fat solubility does not affect absorption D) Water-soluble medications are absorbed faster

Answer 62

b

Question 63

Which of the following actions of pharmacokinetics changes active forms of the medication into harmless metabolites? A Absorption B Metabolism C Distribution D Excretion

Answer 63

b

Question 64

Which vitamin is important for night vision and skin health but can cause toxicity with symptoms like headaches and bone thickening? A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin A C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K

Answer 64

b

Question 65

What is a safety concern associated with Vitamin K? A) Causes red, itchy skin B) Can reduce the effectiveness of blood clotting medications C) Can cause kidney failure D) Causes peripheral neuropathy

Answer 65

b

Question 66

Which supplement is often used to treat depression, anxiety, and sleep disorders but lacks long-term safety studies? A) Melatonin B) Black cohosh C) St. John’s wort D) Gingko biloba

Answer 66

c

Question 67

What potential side effects can large doses of Black cohosh cause? A) Nausea and diarrhea B) Vomiting, dizziness, and headaches C) Kidney failure D) Red, itchy skin

Answer 67

b

Question 68

Which vitamin helps with calcium absorption and bone health but can cause kidney failure if levels are too high? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin E C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin B6

Answer 68

c

Question 69

Which supplement is used to promote healthy cartilage but may be no more effective than a placebo in knee osteoarthritis? A) Melatonin B) Glucosamine sulfate C) Black cohosh D) Vitamin B12

Answer 69

b

Question 70

Gingko bilolba

Answer 70

improved memory

Question 71

st johns worth

Answer 71

treatment for depression

Question 72

black cohosh

Answer 72

relief of menopause symptoms

Question 73

willow bark

Answer 73

pain relief

Question 74

The CDC’s recommendations for food distribution for those with diabetes are based on a dinner plate of what size? A 5 inches B 7 inches C 9 inches D 12 inches

Answer 74

c