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PACOP VIOLET > Module 3: Hospital Pharmacy > Flashcards

Module 3: Hospital Pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis?
A. Implement appropriate environmental controls.
B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching and rhinorrhea.
C. Administer intranasal steroids if with sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion.
D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms.
E. If symptoms still not controlled, consider Montelukast.

A

Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms

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2
Q

Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure includes:
A. Edema
B. Orthostatic Hypotension
C. Foamy urine
D. A, B, C
E. A and B

A

A, B, C

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3
Q

Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of the following?
A. Clubbing
B. Cyanosis
C. Trauma
D. All of these
E. None of these

A

All of these

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4
Q

Why is the Rinne Test performed?
A. To assess equilibrium.
B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds.
C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears better in one ear than in the other.
D. To compare air and bone conduction.
E. All of these

A

D. To compare air and bone conduction

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5
Q

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:
A. Excoriation
B. Lichenification
C. Millium
D. Nevus
E. Bulla

A

Bulla

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6
Q

Method of assessing the sinuses:
A. Inspection
B. Percussion
C. Transillumination
D. Expression
E. Auscultation

A

Transillumination

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7
Q

Which body position allows longer retention times for enemas?
A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Sitting
D. Erect
E. Prone

A

Supine

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8
Q

Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired calculation ability.
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3
E. Grade 4

A

Grade 2

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9
Q

The following are factors that may exacerbate established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT:
A. Hypotension
B. Prostatic hypertrophy
C. Increased renal blood flow
D. Nephrotoxins
E. Hypertension

A

Increased renal blood flow

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10
Q

Another term for nearsightedness:
A. astigmatism
B. hyperopia
C. exophthalmos
D. Presbyopia
E. Myopia

A

Myopia

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11
Q

Which of the following may cause “hairy tongue”?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Measles
D. Liver disease
E. Aging

A

Antibiotic therapy

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12
Q

Which strategy may be advised to a patient who considers Beta blockers unpleasant to take?
A. Change the dosage regimen.
B. Consider verapamil.
C. Encourage patient to use regularly.
D. A and B
E. All of these

A

All of these

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Captopril?
A. Taken once daily.
B. First-dose hypotension may occur
C. May worsen renal failure
D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur
E. Hyperkalemia may be expected

A

Taken once daily

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14
Q

The following drugs may increase anticoagulant effect, EXCEPT:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Estrogen
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Erythromycin
E. Zafirlukast

A

Estrogen

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15
Q

Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex bronchoconstriction:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Aspirin
C. Lactose dry powder
D. Direct percussion
E. Timolol

A

Lactose dry powder

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16
Q

Physical assessment technique of creating a note by tapping a finger placed on the body:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Ballotement
D. Direct percussion
E. Indirect percussion

A

Indirect percussion

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17
Q

Koilonychia is due to deficiency of ___________?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Calcium
D. Water
E. Vitamin C

A

Iron

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18
Q

Example of a Scale skin lesion:
A, Hives
B. Dandruff
C. Measles rash
D. Mouth sore
E. Wart

A

Dandruff

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19
Q

Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used among elderly patients?
A. Diazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Lorazepam
E. Clonazepam

A

Diazepam

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20
Q

First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Acetazolamide
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproate
E. Topiramate

A

Valproate

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21
Q

A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian syndrome if patient has bradykinesia, plus one or more of the following:
A. Classic rest tremor
B. Muscular rigidity
C. Postural instability
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C

A

A, B, and C

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22
Q

These are orders for in-patients in hospitals and other institutions written by physicians on forms:
A. Physician’s Order Sheet
B. Prescription
C. Medication Order
D. Recipe
E. Patient’s Chart

A

Medication Order

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23
Q

The following are types of information under social/ economic database, EXCEPT:
A. Daily activities
B. Ethnic background
C. Living arrangement
D. Sexual history
E. A and D

A

A and D

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24
Q

“Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” This condition is according to which model?
A. Environmental model
B. Wellness model
C. World Health Organization model
D. Medical model
E. All of these

A

World Health Organization model

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25
Q

Patients of psychiatric conditions usually stay in which type of hospital?
A. Non-governmental
B. General
C. Long-term
D. 400-499 bed-capacity
E. Short-term

A

Long-term

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26
Q

Which function of the hospital is geared towards the improvement of hospital services and advancement of medical knowledge against disease?
A. Research
B. Wellness
C. Education
D. Patient care
E. Expansion

A

Research

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27
Q

Type of questioning: “What medication do you take for a headache?”
A. Direct Questioning
B. Indirect Questioning
C. Probing
D. Open-ended
E. Close-ended

A

Direct Questioning`

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28
Q

“Spell WORLD backwards” is an example of a test for what area of mental state?
A. Orientation
B. Attention
C. Recall
D. Registration
E. Language

A

Attention

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29
Q

Which information is under the Demographic database?
A. Patient Identification Number
B. Physician and prescribers
C. Occupation
D. Personality type
E. Ethnic background

A

Occupation

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30
Q

Volunteer service belongs to which department in the hospital?
A. Pharmacy service
B. Medical Library
C. Business office
D. Medical Social Service
E. Administrative

A

Medical Social Service

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31
Q

When using the standardized outline approach, which of the following is NOT followed when writing Progress Notes?
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Recommendation
D. Impression
E. None of these

A

None of these

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32
Q

The question “Are agents available in commercial formulation?” represents which request classification for drug information?
A. Adverse Drug Reaction
B. Availability
C. Compounding/ Formulation
D. Identification
E. Compatibility/ Stability

A

Compounding/Formulation

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33
Q

When looking for information regarding method of administration, which of the following drug information sources may be the most useful?
A. Drug Facts and Comparisons
B. RPS
C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
E. USP DI

A

Drug Facts and Comparisons

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34
Q

If the answer to the question “Do you cough up blood?” is negative, which of the following is to be noted that the patient denied of?
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B. Hemoptysis
C. Shortness of breath
D. Exertional SOB
E. Rales

A

Hemoptysis

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35
Q

This is an important tool for assuring the quality of drug use and controlling its cost in an institution such as the hospital.
A. Essential drug list
B. Formulary system
C. Formulary
D. P&T Committee
E. Core list

A

Formulary system

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36
Q

A facility where ambulatory patients are seen for appointments and treated by a group of physicians practicing together.
A. Long-term health care facility
B. Clinic
C. Hospital
D. County hospital
E. Resident treatment facility

A

Clinic

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37
Q

Which of the following belongs to the business management or administrative side of the hospital?
A. Medical Records
B. Medical Library
C. Biomedical Engineering
D. Pharmacy Service
E. Dietary and Nutrition Service

A

Biomedical Engineering

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38
Q

Which of the following statements regarding questioning strategies for the pharmacist-patient encounter is CORRECT?
A. Probing questions are assertive and aggressive.
B. Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.
C. Open-ended questions are for narrow-focused answers.
D. Direct questions encourages patient to elaborate.
E. All except A

A

Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.

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39
Q

Which of the following body areas is last in the sequence followed for physical examination?
A. HEENT
B. Genitals
C. Rectum
D. Neurogical System
E. Lower extremities

A

Neurological System

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40
Q

The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface area (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use the nomogram?
A. Age and height
B. Age and weight
C. Height and creatinine clearance
D. Height and weight
E. Weight and sex

A

Height and weight

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41
Q

Which of the following is a comprehensive, unbiased source of current information on drugs often used as hospital nursing stations, and serves as a basis for pharmacists to extend their role as pharmaceutical consultants to the medical profession?
A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals
B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy
C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
D. American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy
E. Drug Information

A

Drug information

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42
Q

Which class of stock system consists of a predetermined list of medications that are usually used in large quantities and are prepackaged in standardized containers?
A. Unit-dose system
B. Charge floor stock
C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
E. Coordinated control system

A

Free floor stock

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43
Q

Aside from Policy Development, what is the other primary purpose of the P & T committee?
A. Operation
B. Organization
C. Community Health
D. Education
E. Drug Administration

A

Education

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44
Q

Water for injection is an example of drugs dispensed in which type of stock system?
A. Unit dose system
B. Charge floor stock
C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
E. Coordinated control system

A

Free floor stock

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45
Q

Which of the following drug information may not be found in Physician’s Desk Reference?
A. Lactation
B. Drug of choice
C. ADR
D. Dosage
E. Product availability

A

Drug of choice

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46
Q

Which of the following journals cover medical news and original articles?
A. Drug Information Journal
B. Archives of Internal Medicine
C. New England Journal of Medicine
D. Medical Letter
E. Annals of Pharmacotherapy

A

Medical Letter

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47
Q

Which of the following describes a medium intensity of feeling, which can be used in a medical interview?
A. Marvelous
B. Upset
C. Distraught
D. Blue
E. Gloomy

A

Gloomy

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48
Q

The following statements regarding arterial blood gases are true, EXCEPT:
A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2 <4.5 kPaB.
Oxygen saturation is measured by pulse oximetry
C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate PaCO2
D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.
E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa may indicate hypoxaemia

A

Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.

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49
Q

Which term refers to a decreased number of cell types is synonymous with aplastic anemia?
A. Microcytic
B. Pancytopenia
C. Aplastic
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Neutrophilia

A

Pancytopenia

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50
Q

Which of the following is an invasive test or procedure?
A. Insertion of a central venous catheter
B. Taking of chest x-ray films
C. Collection of spontaneously voided urine
D. Comparative measurements of body parts
E. All except B

A

Insertion of a central venous catheter

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51
Q

Which one of the following uses high frequency sound waves imperceptible to the human ear to create images of organs?
A. Standard Radiography
B. Echocardiography
C. Echography
D. Echocardiogram
E. Radionuclide studies

A

Echography

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52
Q

Sexual history is under what patient information type/ section?
A. Demographic
B. Medical
C. Social
D. Behavioral
E. Administrative

A

Behavioral

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53
Q

Assessment of pancreatic function may be determined by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Glucose
B. Amylase
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin
E. None of these

A

Thyroxine

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54
Q

Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an example of what data type?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
E. Either A or B

A

Objective

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55
Q

Which one of the following is useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver disease?
A. Amylase
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
E. Bilirubin

A

Bilirubin

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56
Q

What color of the stool is generally associated with upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding?
A. Black
B. Gray
C. Light Gray
D. Brown
E. Red

A

Black

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57
Q

Which one of the following may indicate longer prothrombin time?
A. Hepatic dysfunction
B. Increased Vitamin K
C. Increased production of clotting factors
D. All of these
E. None of these

A

Hepatic dysfunction

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58
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding patient chart preparation?
A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.
B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil.
C. Blue ink is conventional.
D. The patient should be identifiable by at least one (1) demographic characteristic.
E. All of the choices except B

A

Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.

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59
Q

Which one of the following may be an indication of the presence of white blood cells in the stool?
A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. Measles
D. Dehydration
E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit

A

Gastrointestinal infection

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60
Q

Which dosage form is utilized in barium studies?
A. Troches
B. Enema
C. Implant
D. Ointment
E. Dressing

A

Enema

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61
Q

Using the Scratch Test, which one of the following is not a criterion for evaluation of the skin indicating the patient’s sensitivity to an allergen?
A. Itchiness
B. Swelling
C. Redness
D. No change/reaction
E. B and C

A

Itchiness

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62
Q

A bronchoscope is introduced through the following openings, EXCEPT:
A. Nose
B. Endotracheal tube
C. Rectum
D. Mouth
E. None of these

A

Rectum

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63
Q

Which one of the following is a noninvasive test or procedure?
A. Venipuncture
B. Radionuclide studies
C. Paracentesis
D. Ultrasonography
E. pH stimulation tests

A

Ultrasonography

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64
Q

Parameter of fecalysis that is used in the diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage:
A. Consistency
B. Fecal parasites
C. Occult blood
D. Amount
E. pH

A

Occult blood

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65
Q

Drug that may cause brown-colored urine:
A. Methyldopa
B. Rifampicin
C. Indomethacin
D. Doxorubicin
E. Metronidazole

A

Metronidazole

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66
Q

Major component of plasma proteins and indicates severity in chronic liver disease
A. Albumin
B. Creatinine
C. Hemoglobin
D. Glucose
E. Bilirubin

A

Albumin

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67
Q

Test to evaluate the absorption of Vitamin B12:
A. Schilling Test
B. Rinne Test
C. Weber’s Test
D. Romberg Test
E. Schamroth Technique

A

Schilling Test

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68
Q

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is TRUE?
A. Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0
B. Hypothyroidism – FTI4: 6.4
C. Warfarin therapy – Bleeding time: 2 min
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism – Serum chloride: 128 mEq/L
E. Previous myocardial infarction – CK- MB: 5.7 ng/mL

A

Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0

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69
Q

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is FALSE?
A. Hepatocellular damage – Female patient: ALT: 50 U/L
B. Folic acid deficiency – Male patient: 76%
C. Lithium carbonate therapy – Serum Potassium: 2.1 mEq/L
D. Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/d
E. Diabetes mellitus – GIT: 180 mg/dL at 2 hrs

A

Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL

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70
Q

Test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:A. Edrophonium tensilon test B. Ventilation Scanning C. Scratch and Patch TestD. Romberg TestE. Stress Test

A

Edrophonium tensilon

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71
Q

Test of choice in patients suspected of having iron deficiency anemia:A. Coomb’s Test B. Serum ferritin C. ZPP fluorescenceD. C-reactive proteinE. Haptoglobulin

A

Serum ferritin

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72
Q

This refers to the technique of manipulating unconscious or involuntary bodily processes made perceptible to the senses by conscious mental control:A. Naturopathy B. Auscultation C. AcupunctureD. BiofeedbackE. Holistic Health

A

Biofeedback

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73
Q

BMI category indicating a Possible likelihood of chronic protein-energy under nutrition:A. <10 kg/ m2 B. <18 kg/ m2 C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2D. 20-35 kg/ m2E. >35 kg/ m2

A

18.5-20 kg/ m2

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74
Q

In parenteral nutrition, which supplies Chloride the most per mL?A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium chloride C. Calcium chlorideD. Iron chlorideE. None of these

A

Sodium chloride

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75
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic drugs:A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock fittings are recommended.B. Syringes should be large enough to accommodate the total dose needed.C. Syringes should not be three-quarters full when containing the total drug dose.D. B and CE. None of these

A

None of these

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76
Q

Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the therapeutic relationship between the patient and the pharmacist?A. Equality B. Trust C. EmpathyD. AuthenticityE. Responsiveness

A

Equality

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77
Q

Example of metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:A. ThrombocytopeniaB. Lipid intoleranceC. Thrombophlebitis D. Essential fatty acid deficiencyE. Refeeding syndrome

A

Thrombophlebitis

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78
Q

An important clinical skill that refers to the continuous process of deliberation and reflection during problem solving:A. Metacognition B. Ethnocentricity C. AdherenceD. GenuinenessE. Manipulation

A

Metacognition

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79
Q

Which clinical finding is associated to Measles?
A. Hairy tongue
B. Chvostek’s sign
C. Osler’s node
D. Koplik spots
E. Xanthelesma

A

Koplik spots

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80
Q

A small, circumscribed, elevated solid lesion:A. Papule B. Vesicle C. PatchD. MaculeE. Comedo

A

Papule

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81
Q

What body organ is associated with fetor hepaticus?A. Kidney B. Uterus C. Oral mucosaD. SkinE. Liver

A

Liver

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82
Q

Practice sites for Ambulatory Care Setting:A. Nursing homes B. Patient’s residence C. Clinic environmentD. A, B, CE. B and C

A

Clinic environment

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83
Q

Conditions that can affect vision, EXCEPT:A. Astigmatism B. Muddy sclera C. Conical corneaD. Corneal arcusE. All except B

A

Muddy sclera

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84
Q

Which of the following describes a macule?
A. Wart
B. Colored lesion
C. Less than 1cm
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

B and C

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85
Q

Which among the given characteristics is NOT true regarding a Social interaction as to space boundaries with patient?A. Patient is 4-12 feet away.B. Body contact is described as out of reach.C. Eye contact is important.D. Low and frequent vocalizationE. None of these

A

Low and frequent vocalization

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86
Q

Herpes zoster is an example of ________A. Patch B. Scale C. VesicleD. PapuleE. Macule

A

Vesicle

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87
Q

Which of the following databases is published by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)?
A. MEDLARS
B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
C. Index Medicus
D. Toxline
E. EMBASE

A

International Pharmaceutical Abstracts

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88
Q

What is deficiency in scurvy?A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. CalciumD. IronE. Phosphorus

A

Vitamin C

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89
Q

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:A. Excoriation B. Lichenification C. MilliumD. VesicleE. Bulla

A

Bulla

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90
Q

Volume of air inspired or expired with normal breathing:A. Tidal volumeB. Residual volumeC. Peak expiratory flowD. Forced tidal capacityE. A and B

A

Tidal volume

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91
Q

Comparative measurements of parts of the body are used to assess nutritional status:
A. Manometry
B. Anthropometrics
C. Schilling Test
D. EMG
E. ESR

A

Anthropometrics

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92
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary literature for drug information?A. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly ReportB. Annals of Internal MedicineC. Clin-AlertD. LancetE. Pharmacotherapy

A

Clin-Alert

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93
Q

Electrolyte level is increased due to spironolactone use: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. SodiumD. CalciumE. Chloride

A

Potassium

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94
Q

Drugs that may cause dyspepsiaA. Corticosteroids B. Iron C. AntibioticsD. Either A or BE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

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95
Q

The following are precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT:A. Constipation B. High-protein diet C. HyperkalemiaD. Bacterial peritonitisE. Benzodiazepines

A

Hyperkalemia

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96
Q

Contraindications to thrombolysis as an intervention to acute coronary syndrome:A. One week postpartum B. CNS Neoplasm C. Oral anticoagulant therapyD. A, B, CE. A and C

A

A, B, C

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97
Q

When organizing a patient’s Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR), which of the following may be found on the last pages/ sections?A. Graphic charts B. Laboratory data C. Progress notesD. Medication ListE. Physicians Orders

A

Medication List

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98
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of heart failure?A. Bradycardia B. Pallor C. FatigueD. ConfusionE. Hepatomegaly

A

Bradycardia

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99
Q

What is the interaction of Tetracycline and milk?A. Potentiation B. Drug displacement C. Complexation D. Enzyme inhibitionE. Addition

A

Complexation

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100
Q

In what section of the medical chart can one find the patient’s Past Medical History (PMH)? A. Flow sheet B. Admit summary C. Admission formD. Progress notesE. Patient interview

A

Admit summary

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101
Q

Which of the following decreases theophylline clearance?A. Cigarette smoking B. Viral pneumoniaC. PhenytoinD. Age (1-12 years old)E. High-protein, low carbohydrate diet

A

Viral pneumonia

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102
Q

Who among the following is under the Chief Pharmacist but above the other positions based on the organizational chart of a hospital?A. Staff PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Senior PharmacistD. Supervising PharmacistE. Associate Pharmacist

A

Supervising Pharmacist

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103
Q

Which of the following is a qualification for a Senior Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 3 years work experienceB. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice C. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examinationD. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentE. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies

A

With at least 3 years work experience

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104
Q

Which of the following is a qualification for a Supervising Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice B. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studiesC. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentD. With at least 3 years work experienceE. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examination

A

With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies

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105
Q

Who among the following personnel prepares reports of monthly consumption and balance of stocks?A. Senior Pharmacist B. Staff Pharmacist C. Administrative AideD. Chief PharmacistE. Laboratory Pharmacy Aide

A

Administrative Aide

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106
Q

Which of the following drugs is deemed inappropriate for use in elderly patients?
A. Secobarbital
B. Meprobamate
C. Gluthetimide
D. Only A
E. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

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107
Q

In the pharmacy functional chart, Poison Control is part of which service?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative

A

Clinical

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108
Q

Investigational Drug Study is part of which service among the hospital pharmacy services?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative

A

Research

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109
Q

Physical Examination results may be found in which section of the medical chart?A. Admit summary B. Progress Notes C. Flow sheetD. A, B, CE. B and C

A

A, B, C

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110
Q

Who is considered as the head of the Nutrition Support Team?
A. Pharmacist
B. Physician
C. Nurse
D. Dietitian
E. All of these

A

Physician

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111
Q

Carcinogenesis is an example of what type of ADR?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

A

Type D

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112
Q

Syndromes that are typical of drug-induced pulmonary disease, EXCEPT:A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edemaB. AsthmaC. Plural effusionsD. Interstitial fibrosisE. Pulmonary vascular disease

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

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113
Q

Ethambutol- optic neuropathy is an example of what type of ADR?A. Ending of use B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. Failure of efficacyE. Augmented

A

Continuous

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114
Q

Deteriorated or outdated medication is a cause of what type of medication error?A. Prescribing error B. Dispensing error C. Administration errorD. B and CE. A, B, C

A

Administration error

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115
Q

Which among the categories of medication error has the presence of error but poses no harm?A. Type A B. Type C C. Type FD. Type GE. Type I

A

Type C

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116
Q

Prescriptions for Phenobarbital tablet is filed for how long?A.6 months B. 1 year C. 2 yearsD. 3 yearsE. 5 years

A

2 years

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117
Q

Drugs that are implicated in disorders of mood:A. Oral contraceptives B. Analgesics C. SteroidsD. B and CE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

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118
Q

The following are found on the Flow Sheet section of the medical chart, EXCEPT:
A. Physical Examination
B. Pulmonary Function Test
C. Chief Complaint
D. Laboratory tests
E. None of these

A

Pulmonary Function Test

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119
Q

What does a Category I Medication Error mean?A. No error B. Error, No Harm C. Error, With HarmD. Error, DeathE. No error, With Harm

A

Error, Death

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120
Q

The green color coding for the medication cards is for drugs administered:A. O.D B. B.I.D C. T.I.DD. Q.I.DE. H.S

A

Q.I.D

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121
Q

To which government agency should the hospital submit the report on empty vials and ampoules crushed and used as specimen container?A. DOH B. PDEA C. FDAD. DTIE. A and B

A

FDA

122
Q

Prescriptions for Phenobarbital ampule should be filed for how long?A. 6 months B. 1 year B. 2 yearsD. 5 yearsE. It is not filed

A

1 year

123
Q

Effects more pronounced in Haloperidol than in Benperidol as antipsychotic agent:A. SedationB. Reduce sexual driveC. Tardive dyskinesia with long-term useD. Hormonal effectsE. All except B

A

All except B

124
Q

Which of the following may cause Extrapyramidal Symptoms as its adverse effect?A. Atropine B. Codeine C. PhenothiazineD. StreptomycinE. Nitroglycerin

A

Phenothiazine

125
Q

Which of the following age groups is considered as High-risk factor for atrial fibrillation?A. 20 to 35 years old B. Below 65 years old C. 65 to 75 years oldD. Above 75 years oldE. No risk seen or proven

A

Above 75 years old

126
Q

Benzodiazepine- caused rebound insomnia is an example of what category of Adverse Drug Reaction?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. Ending of use

A

Ending of use

127
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered as Class A bioterrorism agent? A. Anthrax B. Boil C. TularemiaD. Viral hemorrhagic feverE. Botulinum toxin

A

Boil

128
Q

Which antiepileptic drug has the smallest starting dose (in mg)?A. Carbamazepine B. Clonazepam C. ValproateD. GabapentinE. Phenytoin

A

Clonazepam

129
Q

This reflects the expansion of the role of the hospital as to care programs and facilities:A. Organized health-care B. Heath-system C. Institutional careD. Patient care E. Pharmaceutical care

A

Institutional care

130
Q

Headache as an adverse effect of nitroglycerin belongs to what category of ADR?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. End of use

A

Augmented

131
Q

Which is an add-on therapy to the standard pharmacotherapy to hypertension with diabetes mellitus?A. DiureticB. ACE-inhibitorC. Calcium Channel BlockerD. Angiotensin II Receptor BlockerE. Aldosterone Antagonist

A

Diuretic

132
Q

Blood Coagulation factor XII is also known as _____________
A. Proaccelerin
B. Christmas factor
C. Hageman factor
D. Stuart-Power factor
E. Von Willebrand factor

A

Hageman factor

133
Q

The following are indications for TPN because enteral intake is inadvisable, EXCEPT: A. Short gut syndrome B. Renal failure C. Acute hepatitisD. Acute pancreatitisE. Severe cachexia

A

Short gut syndrome

134
Q

Possible solution when pain and immobility oocurs during the night in a Parkinson’s disease patient:A. Reduce antiparkinsonian therapyB. Use of slow-release levodopaC. Consider therapyD. Drug holiday for 1 weekE. More frequent doses of levodopa

A

Use of slow-release levodopa

135
Q

A positive finding for which test may indicate antibody-mediated hemolysis?A. Indirect Coomb’s TestB. Direct Coomb’s TestC. Schilling TestD. Serum ferritinE. Total Reticulocyte Count

A

Direct Coomb’s Test

136
Q

Which of the following is recommended for severe refractory atopic dermatitis condition?A. Emollient B. Topical calcineurin inhibitor C. Topical corticosteroidD. Tacrolimus BIDE. Phototherapy

A

Phototherapy

137
Q

Which is NOT to be followed when given a prescription of “Gentamicin 80 mg IV PB q 8 hr”?
A. Gentamicin is added to amni-bottle containing 100 mL 5% Dextrose Inj.
B. Dose is given every 8 hours
C. Drug administration is by piggyback technique.
D. Flow rate required is at least 30 minutes.
E. None of these

A

None of these

138
Q

Which of the following symptoms is specifically controlled with intranasal anticholinergics?A. Nasal congestion B. Sneezing C. ItchingD. RhinorrheaE. Ocular symptoms

A

Rhinorrhea

139
Q

This is the most common associated symptom for Osteoarthritis.A. Joint stiffness B. Crepitus C. PainD. Joint deformityE. Joint enlargement

A

Pain

140
Q

Which of the following is LEAST considered as a risk factor for Osteoporosis?A. Low calcium intakeB. Male sexC. Current cigarette smoking D. Minimal sun exposureE. Estrogen deficiency before age 45

A

Male sex

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Drug Usage Evaluation?A. It is the same as the Drug Utilization Review.B. It is the same as drug therapy monitoring.C. It can be a research tool.D. It is a justification of both distributive and clinical functions.E. It considers patterns of drug usage.

A

It is the same as drug therapy monitoring

142
Q

Which of the following drugs/ agents will cause skin reactions the most?A. Penicillin G B. Amoxicillin C. BloodD. ErythtomycinE. Ampicillin

A

Amoxicillin

143
Q

Which among the following chemotherapeutic drugs would LEAST induce emesis?A. Fluorouracil B. Cisplatin C. CarboplatinD. PaclitaxelE. Bleomycin

A

Bleomycin

144
Q

When the medication card is color coded violet, the administration of the drug is:A. Per orem B. B.I.D C. H.SD. StatE. Round the clock

A

Round the clock

145
Q

Which among the following is NOT a required utensil/ apparatus/ equipment in a 25-bed capacity hospital? A. Filing cabinet B. Funnel C. Hot plateD. Tablet counterE. Analytical balance

A

Analytical balance

146
Q

This refers to the direct, responsible provision of medication-related care for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s quality of life:A. Clinical Pharmacy B. Pharmaceutical CareC. Patient CareD. Pharmaceutical ServiceE. Pharmacy

A

Pharmaceutical Care

147
Q

The following drugs/ agents may increase blood glucose level, EXCEPT:A. Oral contraceptives B. Phenytoin C. SalicylatesD. Nicotinic acidE. Diuretics

A

Salicylates

148
Q

For chronic illnesses, what is the maximum number of months to be supplied in a single dispensing of medicines?A. 1 B. 3 C. 6D. 12E. Nothing specified

A

3

149
Q

Which of the following parenteral antibiotics used for pyelonephritis may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?A. Co-amoxiclav B. Cefuroxime C. GentamicinD. CiprofloxacinE. Meropenem

A

Gentamicin

150
Q

What procedure provides information about the circulatory system at the back of the eye not attainable with a routine examination?A. Fundus photographsB. Ocular UltrasoundC. Fluorescein AngiographyD. Optic Clearance TomographyE. Indocyamine Green Angiography

A

Fluorescein Angiography

151
Q

What is the standard time to be followed for “q12”?A. 6 am – 6 pm B. 7 am – 7 pm C. 8 am – 8 pmD. 9 am - 9 pmE. 12 nn - 12 mn

A

8 am - 8 pm

152
Q

Which among the following utensils/ equipment/ apparatus is found in a 100-bed capacity, but not in a 10- or 15-bed capacity hospital?
A. Mixer 2-L capacity
B. Calculating machine
C. Rough balance
D. Ring stand
E. Ribbed funnel

A

Mixer 2-L capacity

153
Q

Which may be considered as an alternative drug for social anxiety disorder?A. Buspirone B. Fluvoxamine C. SertralineD. ParoxetineE. Clonazepam

A

Buspirone

154
Q

Which is NOT a category under the Laboratory Data of the Patient Medical Chart?
A. Microbiology
B. Urinalysis
C. Arterial Blood Gases
D. Consults
E. Type and Screens

A

Consults

155
Q

This refers to a radiograph examination of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with the use of contrast media:A. Barium EnemaB. Barium SwallowC. CholangiogramD. Intravenous PyelographyE. Retrograde Pyelography

A

Retrograde Pyelography

156
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) infection in HIV patient, EXCEPT:A. Azithromycin B. Flucytosine C. DapsoneD. PrimaquineE. Co-trimoxazole

A

Flucytosine

157
Q

Which of the following is NOT a dietary restriction for patients using monoamine oxidase inhibitors?A. Ripe avocado B. Soy sauce C. SnailsD. CeleryE. Beer

A

Celery

158
Q

Which of the following characteristics is FALSE regarding Tourette’s Disorder?A. Echolalia B. Facial twitching C. Age of onset after 60 yearsD. Shoulder shruggingE. Throat clearing

A

Age of onset after 60 years

159
Q

This procedure is used to evaluate the size, shape, and motion of the valves, septum and walls and changes in chamber size during the cardiac cycle.A. Echo CardiographyB. Electrocardiogram C. Coronary AngiographyD. Fluorescein AngiographyE. Indocyamine Green angiography

A

Echo Cardiography

160
Q

What is the best definition for the abbreviation AUC?
A. Area under the time curve
B. Area under the curve
C. Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve
D. Area under blood concentration curve
E. Area under serum- or blood- concentration curve

A

Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve

161
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?A. Predominantly secretory defectB. Beta cell destructionC. AutoimmuneD. IdiopathicE. Absolute insulin deficiency

A

Predominantly secretory defect

162
Q

A platelet count of 1200 x 103 /mm3 may indicate which condition?
A. Vit B12 deficiency
B. Leukemia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Aplastic bone marrow
E. Immune disorder

A

Hemorrhage

163
Q

Which among the following is a SIGN of cardio pulmonary arrest?A. Anxiety B. Cyanosis C. DiaphoresisD. Nausea and vomitingE. Dyspnea

A

Cyanosis

164
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of a WBC Count of 25 x 103/mm3?A. Bone marrow suppression B. Tissue necrosis C. RubellaD. Typhoid feverE. Influenza

A

Tissue necrosis

165
Q

Characteristic of a Stage 1 Hypertension:A. DPB 80-89 B. SBP >160 C. DBP 90-99D. DBP >100E. SBP 120-139

A

DBP 90-99

166
Q

The following are required books in a hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:A. RPSB. PNDFC. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of TherapeuticsD. USP-NFE. Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia

A

Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia

167
Q

Example of macrovascular complication in Type 2 Diabetes?A. Nephropathy B. Ischemic skin changes C. RetinopathyD. Abnormal ECGE. Erectile dysfunction

A

Abnormal ECG

168
Q

Recommended drug therapy for Stage 2 Hypertension:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor + ARB agent
C. ACE inhibitor or ARB agent
D. ACE inhibitor or ARB + CCB
E. Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB

A

Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB

169
Q

Clinical circumstance where hospitalization should be considered and not just recommended for patient presenting with acute decompensated heart failure?A. Dyspnea at restB. Acute coronary syndromesC. HypotensionD. Altered mentationE. Major electrolyte disturbance

A

Major electrolyte disturbance

170
Q

Risk factors for major bleeding while on anticoagulant factor, EXCEPT:
A. Renal failure
B. Age <60 years
C. Heavy alcohol use
D. Malignancy
E. Recent history of surgery

A

Age <60 years

171
Q

The following are just suggested references for pharmacists in the hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:
A. Cross Reference Index
B. Clinical Laboratory Medicine
C. Medical Dictionary
D. Hospital formulary
E. None of these

A

Hospital formulary

172
Q

A female patient presents a 55% Hct value. What does this mean?
A. Polycythemia
B. Hemoconcentration
C. Anemia
D. Hemodilution
E. A and/or B

A

A and/or B

173
Q

Which of the following required record books is DOH hospital pharmacies exempted of?A. Dangerous Drug Book B. Prescription BookC. Poison BookD. Red BookE. Exempt Dangerous Drugs Book

A

Prescription Book

174
Q

What is elevated in a stage IV Hyperlipoproteinemia?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. VLDL
E. IDL

A

VLDL

175
Q

Which oral hypoglycaemic agent will be administered the MOST frequent?A. Gliquidone B. Pioglitazone C. GlimeprideD. ChlorpropamideE. Rosiglitazone

A

Gliquidone

176
Q

This term is defined as “the extent to which a person’s behavior-taking medication…corresponds with agreed recommendations from a health care provider.”A. Patient complianceB. Medication adherenceC. Medication consumptionD. Drug complianceE. Medication counselling

A

Medication adherence

177
Q

Which patient classification makes the patient pay only 50% of the charges of medicines given and ancillary services rendered?A. Class C-1 B. Class C-2 C. Class C-3D. Class DE. Class E

A

Class C-2

178
Q

The following are monitored when patient is under erythropoietis stimulant therapy, EXCEPT:A. Blood pressure B. Iron level C. Complete blood countD. Blood sugar levelsE. Ferritin level

A

Blood sugar levels

179
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heart failure?A. Hemoptysis B. S2 gallop C. NocturiaD. BloatingE. Exercise intolerance

A

S2 gallop

180
Q

What form of economic analyses estimates the ratio between the cost of health-related intervention and the benefit it produces in terms of number oy years lived in full health by the beneficiaries?A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Benefit AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Effectiveness Analysis

A

Cost Utility Analysis

181
Q

Which among the following is NOT part of the Administrative Service of the hospital pharmacy?A. Internship ProgramB. Financial ManagementC. Compliance to regulatory requirementsD. Drug supply managementE. Records and reports

A

Internship Program

182
Q

Which is NOT a contraindication for cardiopulmonary exercise testing?A. Uncontrolled hypertensionB. Congestive heart failureC. Severe aortic stenosisD. Acute pericarditisE. Dyspnea upon exertion

A

Dyspnea upon exertion

183
Q

ThiazolidinedioneA. TZLD B. TLD C. TZDD. TLD4E. TADD

A

TZD

184
Q

Forced expiratory volume in 1 secondA. FEV1S B. FEV C. FexpV1secD. FEV1E. FExV1

A

FEV1

185
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the gastrointesitinal adverse effects of sulfonylureas?A. Most commonly nausea and vomitingB. Dose-relatedC. Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapyD. Affects approximately 2% of usersE. May be avoided when taken with food

A

Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapy

186
Q

At what stage of stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder is a short acting bronchodilator added in the therapy?A. 0 B. I C. IID. IIIE. IV

A

I

187
Q

AAT stands for __________A. Amino Acid TreatmentB. Alpha Acid ToleranceC. Alpha1- antitrypsinD. Active Aortic TachycardiaE. Alveolar Activity Test

A

Alpha1- antitrypsin

188
Q

What form of economic analysis compares the relative expenditure and outcomes of two or more courses of action?A. Cost Benefit Analysis B. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Minimization Analysis

A

Cost Effectiveness Analysis

189
Q

Pharmaceutical care requires a direct relationship between ___________.A. Medical doctor and pharmacistB. Pharmacist and patientC. Pharmacist and colleaguesD. Patient and Heath care teamE. Patient, Doctor, and Pharmacist

A

Pharmacist and patient

190
Q

Anemia may be possible condition for the following values, EXCEPT:
A. Male patient 30% Hct
B. Platelet count 70 x 109L
C. Female patient 6g/dL Hb
D. Male patient 2.2 mill/mm3 RBC
E. Hb 80 g/L

A

Platelet count 70 x 109L

191
Q

Laboratory investigations as part of annual review for diabetes, EXCEPT:A. Fasting lipid profile B. HbA1C C. Liver function testsD. CreatinineE. Amylase test

A

Amylase test

192
Q

Which of the following drugs may NOT cause gastrointestinal mucosa injury?A. Estrogen B. Ethanol C. AspirinD. ReserpineE. Warfarin

A

Estrogen

193
Q

What is fundamental to the pharmacy profession’s purpose of helping people make the best use of medication?A. Clinical PharmacyB. Medication therapy managementC. Pharmaceutical careD. CommitmentE. Professional responsibility

A

Pharmaceutical care

194
Q

Endoscopy-negative reflux diseaseA. ENRD B. E (-) C. E-RDD. (-) ERDE. ERD-Neg.

A

ENRD

195
Q

An increase in Sodium values may mean the following conditions, EXCEPT:A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes insipidusC. AldosteronismD. Impaired renal functionE. None of these

A

Adrenal insufficiency

196
Q

Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is NOT commercially available as a tablet?
A. Omeprazole
B. Pantoprazole
C. Lansoprazole
D. Esomeprazole
E. None of the given choices

A

Pantoprazole

197
Q

This compares the cost of therapies that achieve the same outcome: A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Operational AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Benefit AnalysisE. Cost Utility Analysis

A

Cost Minimization Analysis

198
Q

Which of the following antiemetic preparations may NOT be given OTC?A. Cimetidine B. Dimenhydrinate C. FamotidineD. DiphenhydramineE. Cyclizine

A

Diphenhydramine

199
Q

Which of the following drugs may cause diarrhea?A. Tetracycline B. Methyldopa C. NeostigmineD. A and BE. A, B, and C

A

A, B, and C

200
Q

The following are Ex-Officio members of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, EXCEPT:A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief NurseC. Chief Administrative OfficerD. PHIC RepresentativeE. None of the choices

A

Chief Pharmacist

201
Q

Which is NOT a clinical manifestation of liver cirrhosis?A. Pruritus B. Increased libido C. Weight lossD. HyperpigmentationE. Spider angioma

A

Increased libido

202
Q

The patient has a medication indication but is taking the wrong medication. What category of medication-related problem is indicated?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Medication use without indication C. Subtherapeutic dosageD. Improper drug selectionE. Untreated indications

A

Improper drug selection

203
Q

Which is NOT included in the treatment approach for ascites?A. Diuretics B. Diet C. ParacentesisD. Antibiotic therapyE. Intrahepatic shunt

A

Antibiotic therapy

204
Q

The following are possible medical conditions related to a triglyceride value of 185 mg/dL, EXCEPT:A. DiabetesB. Overconsumption of alcoholC. Nephritic syndromeD. Biliary obstructionE. Pancreatitis

A

Biliary obstruction

205
Q

Which of the following drugs has a definite association with acute pancreatitis?A. Furosemide B. Propofol C. RifampinD. PaclitaxelE. Ciprofloxacin

A

Furosemide

206
Q

Cushing’s syndrome may be a possible condition as indicated by an increased value of which diagnostic test?A. FBS B. HDL C. Triglyceride D. CalciumE. Potassium

A

FBS

207
Q

Somatic diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), EXCEPT:A. Headache B. DepressionC. Abdominal bloatingD. Swelling of extremitiesE. Breast tenderness

A

Depression

208
Q

Para-amino hippuric acidA.pHa B. p-aha C. PAHD. PAHAE. pAHA

A

PAH

209
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in a hospital formulary?A. Table of sodium content of antacidsB. Metric conversion scales or tablesC. Table of drug interactionsD. Poison antidote chartsE. None of these

A

None of these

210
Q

The most appropriate initial therapy for the management of dyslipidemia of patients with chronic kidney disease?A. Maximum-dose statinB. NiacinC. FibrateD. Low-dose statinE. Therapeutic lifestyle changes

A

Therapeutic lifestyle changes

211
Q

The most common manifestation of drug-induced kidney disease:A. Decrease in serum creatinine B. Decline in GFRC. Increased BUND. B and CE. A, B, and C

A

B and C

212
Q

Which of the following is a Nephritic sign?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. FatigueD. HematuriaE. All except D

A

Hematuria

213
Q

Of the following steps of drug procurement cycle, which comes first?A. Locate and select suppliersB. Reconcile needs and fundsC. Choose procurement methodD. Review drug selectionE. Collect consumption information

A

Review drug selection

214
Q

Which of the following has the highest Potassium content?A. Avocado B. Molasses C. Banana D. CarrotsE, Ground beef

A

Molasses

215
Q

Gout may be possible for a male patient with a Uric Acid Value of?A. 0.13 mg/dL B. 1 mg/dL C. 3 mg/dLD. 8 mg/dLE. 11 mg/dL

A

11 mg/dL

216
Q

Drugs with negligible risk when breastfeeding full-term healthy babies:A. Paracetamol B. Digoxin C. CodeineD. InsulinE. All of these

A

All of these

217
Q

The patient has a medical problem that requires medication therapy but is not receiving a medication for that indication. What category of medication-related problem is involved?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Improper drug selectionC. Untreated indicationsD. Medication use without indicationE. Subtherapeutic dosage

A

Untreated indications

218
Q

For fast moving drugs, the preparation of request is at ______ stock level.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E. Any

A

75%

219
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with a high Total Cholesterol value?
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Pancreatitis
C. CAD
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Hepatitis

A

Hyperthyroidism

220
Q

Pharmaceutical care is applicable and achievable by pharmacists in which practice setting?A. Community setting B. Marketing C. ResearchD. A onlyE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

221
Q

In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who approves the purchase request?A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Chief Medical Professional StaffD. Chief of HospitalE. Supply Officer

A

Chief of Hospital

222
Q

Which is NOT an example of Microcytic Anemia?
A. Thalassemia
B. IDA
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. A and C

A

Thalassemia

223
Q

Which of the following indicates a favorable prognosis for multiple sclerosis?A. <40 years oldB. Male genderC. Cerebellar initial symptomsD. Progressive course of diseaseE. High attack frequency

A

<40 years old

224
Q

In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who prepares the Purchase Order?A. Chief of HospitalB. Chief PharmacistC. Staff PharmacistD. Supply OfficerE. Pharmacy Administrative Aide

A

Supply Officer

225
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of generalized seizure?A. Absence B. Atonic C. Status epilepticusD. Infantile spasmsE. Myoclonic

A

Status epilepticus

226
Q

Basis of Glassgow Coma Scale in defining level of consciousness:A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. A and BE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

227
Q

Which of the following is a CORRECT measure followed regarding proper storage in the hospital pharmacy?A. Heavier items should be placed in smaller pile.B. Varnish wood.C. Bind sharp corners with tape.D. A and CE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

228
Q

The following drugs may cause secondary parkinsonism, EXCEPT:A. Haloperidol B. Olanzapine C. CinnarizineD. α-methyldopaE. Carbidopa

A

Carbidopa

229
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain?A. InsomniaB. DepressionC. Organic causeD. Dependence to medicationE. Functionality treatment goal

A

Organic cause

230
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about classic migraine? A. Migraine with auraB. Basilar-type auraC. At least two attacksD. Not attributed to another disorderE. Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours

A

Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours

231
Q

What drug classification usually serves as a starting point for Drug Usage Evaluation in a hospital?A. Anticoagulants B. Antibiotics C. CNS drugsD. Cardiac drugsE. Insulin therapy

A

Antibiotics

232
Q

Who is responsible for arranging dangerous drugs systematically in a secured cabinet?A. Laboratory Aide B. Pharmacy technician C. Staff PharmacistD. Senior PharmacistE. Pharmacy Aide

A

Senior Pharmacist

233
Q

Features of megaloblastic anemia, EXCEPT:A. Sterility B. Anorexia C. Severe jaundiceD. Angular stomatitisE. Diarrhea

A

Severe jaundice

234
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Rivastigmine as drug for Alzheimer’s Disease?A. Available as tablet B. Take with food C. 1.5 hours half-lifeD. 40% protein bindingE. Available as Patch

A

Available as tablet

235
Q

Which of the following pharmacologic agents is NOT used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?A. Clonidine B. Fibrate C. LabetalolD. MultivitaminsE. Alcohol IV

A

Fibrate

236
Q

Drug NOT associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia:A. Cyclosporine B. Quinine C. LevodopaD. ClarithromycinE. Mefenamic acid

A

Clarithromycin

237
Q

Pharmaceutical care outcomes include:A. Cure of patient’s diseaseB. Reduction of patient’s symptomatologyC. Prevention of the diseaseD. A and CE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

238
Q

In a hospital setting, who among the following is responsible for the detection of TPN complications?A. Gastroenterologist B. Primary care physician C. PharmacistD. NurseE. Dietitian

A

Nurse

239
Q

Which of the following is considered as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?A. Hallucinations B. Affective flattening C. AvolitionD. AlogiaE. Anhedonia

A

Hallucinations

240
Q

Which of the following is NOT included among the contents of Cytotoxic Spill Kit?A. Overshoes B. Absorbent material C. DetergentD. Head coveringE. None of these

A

None of these

241
Q

A dopamine agonist used to treat extrapyramidal side effects:A. Benztropine B. Biperiden C. LorazepamD. AmantadineE. Trihexyphenidyl

A

Amantadine

242
Q

Which of the following vaccines is ideally stored in a -15 degree celcius to -25 degree celcius?A.DTP B. Oral Polio C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. Tetanus Toxoid

A

Oral Polio

243
Q

Which among the following therapies may pose more toxicity?A. Methotrexate + sulfasalazineB. Cyclosporine + hydroxychloroquineC. PenicillamineD. Cyclosporine + methotrexateE. Methotrexate + sulfasalazine + hydroxychloroquine

A

Penicillamine

244
Q

Which is NOT TRUE regarding Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?A. B-cell destructionB. IdiopathicC. Relative insulin deficiencyD. Immune-mediatedE. Absolute insulin deficiency

A

Relative insulin deficiency

245
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive to heat?A. Tetanus toxoid B. DTP C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. A and C

A

DTP

246
Q

What model defines Health as “the absence of disease or disability”?A. Medical modelB. World Health Organization modelC. Wellness modelD. Environmental modelE. All except D

A

Medical model

247
Q

Which type of ADR may be prevented by adjustment of dosage regimen?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

A

Type A

248
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Adrenal Carcinoma Cushing’s syndrome?A. Slow courseB. Dominant among childrenC. Atypical symptomsD. Mild to moderate symptomsE. Dominant among males

A

Dominant among children

249
Q

“I hear you saying it bothers you that your headaches don’t respond to aspirin,” is an example of what type of questioning strategy?A. Open-ended B. Close-ended C. DirectD. IndirectE. Probe

A

Indirect

250
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered as a pharmacotherapeutic option in patients with urinary incontinence due to stress?A. Alpha adrenergic agonistB. Tricyclic antidepressantC. EstrogenD. ImipramineE. Duloxetine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

251
Q

Which method is used for the computation of dose for infants up to 2 years old?
A. Clark’s Rule
B. Fried’s Rule
C. Young’s Rule
D. All of these
E. A and C

A

Fried’s Rule

252
Q

An ADR that has little or no relation to usual pharmacological effects of the drug is of what type?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

A

Type B

253
Q

Which of the following is a clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis?A. Dyspepsia B. Constipation C. SteatorrheaD. DiarrheaE. All of these

A

All of these

254
Q

Type II Allergic Drug Reaction:A. Cytotoxic B. Immune complex C. Cell-mediatedD. AnaphylacticE. Tuberculin reaction

A

Cytotoxic

255
Q

Which of the following may decrease Cyclosporine levels when given concomitantly?A. Verapamil B. Ketoconazole C. PhenytoinD. ErythromycinE. Nicardipine

A

Phenytoin

256
Q

Constipation is an ADR of which drug?A. Tetracycline B. Propanolol C. CodeineD. CaptoprilE. Streptomycin

A

Codeine

257
Q

The following are clinical presentation of acute acetaminophen poisoning, EXCEPT:A. JaundiceB. OliguriaC. Abdominal discomfortD. Left upper abdominal quadrant tendernessE. Nausea and vomiting

A

Left upper abdominal quadrant tenderness

258
Q

Which is NOT a test for cardiac electrical rhythm?A. AngioscopyB. Holter monitoringC. Nuclear imagingD. Electrophysiologic studiesE. ECG

A

Nuclear imaging

259
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the clinical presentation of cardiopulmonary arrest?A. Hypertension B. Dyspnea C. DiaphoresisD. CyanosisE. Anxiety

A

Hypertension

260
Q

The following medicines are maintained stocks in the emergency room, EXCEPT:A. Naloxone B. Furosemide C. AmilorideD. Regular InsulinE. Calcium gluconate

A

Amiloride

261
Q

Which of the following is an add-on pharmacotherapy to hypertension with post-myocardial infarction condition?A. DiureticB. Aldosterone antagonistC. Calcium channel blockerD. Angiotensin II receptor blockerE. Beta blocker

A

Aldosterone antagonist

262
Q

This alternative antihypertensive agent is to be used only once weekly:A. Doxazosin B. Minoxidil C. MethyldopaD. ClonidineE. Aliskiren

A

Clonidine

263
Q

Which of the following information is classified under the Medical Section?A. Past medical history B. Medication regimen C. Health planD. Home remediesE. Medication allergies

A

Past medical history

264
Q

Which antihypertensive agent is administered in most hypertensive emergencies except in acute heart failure?A. Labetalol HClB. Sodium nitroprussideC. Fenoldopam mesylateD. Hydralazine HClE. Esmolol HCl

A

Labetalol HCl

265
Q

An error occurred that resulted in permanent patient harm; this belongs to which category of medication error?A. Category A B. Category D C. Category ED. Category GE. Category I

A

Category G

266
Q

Which of the following can cause negative inotropic effect and may precipitate heart failure?A. Ethanol B. Cocaine C. TerbinafineD. RosiglitazoneE. Glucocorticoids

A

Terbinafine

267
Q

The maximum number of vials of Demerol that may be prescribed in a single applicable prescription by a licensed physician:A. 3 B. 10 C. 14D. 20E. 30

A

14

268
Q

Which is NOT a good source of protein?A. Cheese B. Peas C. EggD. FishE. Potatoes

A

Peas

269
Q

Which of the following Amiodarone side effects may NOT be managed by discontinuation of the drug?A. Hypothyroidism B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. BradycardiaD. TremorsE. Optic neuropathy

A

Hypothyroidism

270
Q

Hospital reports on Adverse Drug Reactions are submitted to which government agency?A. PDEA B. DOH C. FDAD. B and CE. A, B, C

A

B and C

271
Q

What is considered as the gold standard for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?A. Computed tomography B. Complete Blood CountC. Chest X-RayD. Pulmonary angiographyE. Ventilation-perfusion

A

Pulmonary angiography

272
Q

Which is NOT found on the flow sheets and graphic chart section of the medical record?A. Blood pressureB. Respiratory rateC. Fluid intake and outputD. Heart rateE. Arterial blood gas analysis

A

Arterial blood gas analysis

273
Q

Which of the following is an example of an objective data?A. Decreased swelling of feetB. Decreased edema on CXRC. Increased SOBD. Increase exercise toleranceE. Sleeps with fewer pillows

A

Decreased edema on CXR

274
Q

For medication cards, what is the color coding for “at bedtime” drugs?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Pink
E. Red

A

White

275
Q

Which body language implies receptiveness?
A. Leaning toward the speaker
B. Rising the hand
C. Shifting body position
D. Frequent throat clearing
E. Steepling the hands

A

Leaning toward the speaker

276
Q

Who among the following is an allied health care professional?A. Athletic trainer B. Medical illustrator C. Exercise scientistD. A and BE. A, B, C

A

A, B, C

277
Q

What kind of questions should be asked early during a patient interview?A. Questions that can be answered by Yes or NoB. Multiple questionsC. Long, complex questionsD. Leading questionsE. Open-ended questions

A

Open-ended questions

278
Q

What is the alcohol use category of a male patient who drinks three drinks on average each week?
A. Binge
B. Moderate
C. Light
D. Infrequent
E. Current

A

Light

279
Q

A patient states that he has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. What is the patient’s pack-year smoking history?A. 3 pk-yr B. 6 pk-yr C. 10 pk-yrD. 20 pk-yrE. 60 pk-yr

A

60 pk-yr

280
Q

A patient is troubled by shortness of breath when hurrying on a level surface. What does he have?A. No dyspneaB. Slight dyspneaC. Moderate dyspneaD. Severe dyspneaE. Very Severe Dyspnea

A

Slight dyspnea

281
Q

Which of the following drugs will most likely induce apnea?
A. Anesthetics
B. Ketamine
C. Barbiturates
D. Antihistamines
E. Digitalis

A

Barbiturates

282
Q

Which of the following drugs would least likely induce bronchospasm?A. Cimetidine B. Penicillin C. CephalosphorinD. PapainE. Bisulfite

A

Cimetidine

283
Q

Which of the following would LEAST worsen GERD symptoms?A. Dopamine B. Onions C. TetracyclineD. MilkE. Peppermint

A

Milk

284
Q

For intermittent, mild heartburn, which of the following approaches is NOT appropriate?A. Ranitidine twice dailyB. Gaviscon 2 tabs before mealsC. Maalox 30 mL as neededD. Omeprazole once dailyE. Calcium carbonate 2 tabs as needed

A

Gaviscon 2 tabs before meals

285
Q

Thiopurine S-methyltransferaseA. TS-M B. TPSMT C. TPMTD. TMTE. TSMT

A

TPMT

286
Q

Which of the following is a cause of Ascites?A. Hyperdynamic circulationB. Sodium and water retentionC. Renal vasoconstrictionD. GravityE. A, B and C

A

A, B and C

287
Q

Which of the following drug information does not belong to the group?A. Current symptomsB. Compliance with therapyC. Laboratory informationD. Weight and heightE. Past medical history

A

Compliance with therapy

288
Q

Which of the following is present in a severe acute pancreatitis?A. Pseudocyst B. Necrosis C. Abscess D. B and CE. A, B, and C

A

A, B, and C

289
Q

Which is NOT true regarding steatorrhea?A. It is mostly seen among chronic pancreatitis patients.B. It is the loss of excess proteins in feces.C. It is associated with diarrhea.D. Bloating is associated with such.E. It is the loss of excess fat in the feces.

A

It is the loss of excess proteins in feces

290
Q

Hepatitis C Virus genotype 6 is mostly distributed in which region?A. Africa B. India C. WorldwideD. Middle EastE. Southeast Asia

A

Southeast Asia

291
Q

Which of the following physical examination findings in person with acute renal failure may indicate endocarditis?A. Splinter hemorrhages B. New heart murmur E. A, B, and CC. Roth spotsD. RalesE. A, B, and C

A

A, B, and C

292
Q

Which of the following may NOT indicate a chronic kidney disease?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. GERDD. GoutE. Hyperkalemia

A

Weight gain

293
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of hyponatremia?A. Increased skin turgorB. Dry mucous membranesC. BradycardiaD. Increased JVPE. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

Dry mucous membranes

294
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hypokalemia is FALSE?A. Mild hypokalemia is often asymptomatic.B. Moderate hypokalemia is associated with malaise.C. In severe hypokalemia, ECG often changes.D. Digitalis-induced arrhythmia may be caused by severe hypokalemia.E. Hypermagnesemia is also present.

A

Hypermagnesemia is also present

295
Q

In which domain of the neurologic examination is myasthenia gravis tested?A. Gait B. Reflexes C. Cranial nervesD. Mental statusE. Sensory function

A

Cranial nerves

296
Q

Which of the following pairs of patient information and category is CORRECT?
A. Consent Forms – Administrative
B. Vital Signs – Demographic
C. Living arrangement – Lifestyle
D. Medication regimen – Medical
E. Occupation – Economic

A

Consent Forms - Administrative

297
Q

Type of Question: “Does your headache respond to aspirin?”A. Open-ended question B. Close-ended question C. Direct questionD. Indirect questionE. Probe

A

Close-ended question

298
Q

Which interview questions may be used to assess mania?A. Do you cry without any reason?B. Do you have a lot of extra energy?C. Do you have any guilty feelings?D. Has your weight changed recently?E. Do you still enjoy the same hobbies that you once did?

A

Do you have a lot of extra energy?

299
Q

When a patient has difficulty remembering recent events, what stage of Alzheimer’s disease does he exhibit?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Very Severe
E. Relapsing

A

Mild

300
Q

Color coding for medication card for STAT drugs:A. White B. Red C. YellowD. PinkE. Orange

A

Red

PACOP VIOLET (9 decks)

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