Module 3: Hospital Pharmacy

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT included in the treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis?
A. Implement appropriate environmental controls.
B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching and rhinorrhea.
C. Administer intranasal steroids if with sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion.
D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms.
E. If symptoms still not controlled, consider Montelukast.

Answer 1

Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms

Question 2

Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure includes:
A. Edema
B. Orthostatic Hypotension
C. Foamy urine
D. A, B, C
E. A and B

Answer 2

A, B, C

Question 3

Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of the following?
A. Clubbing
B. Cyanosis
C. Trauma
D. All of these
E. None of these

Answer 3

All of these

Question 4

Why is the Rinne Test performed?
A. To assess equilibrium.
B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds.
C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears better in one ear than in the other.
D. To compare air and bone conduction.
E. All of these

Answer 4

D. To compare air and bone conduction

Question 5

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:
A. Excoriation
B. Lichenification
C. Millium
D. Nevus
E. Bulla

Answer 5

Bulla

Question 6

Method of assessing the sinuses:
A. Inspection
B. Percussion
C. Transillumination
D. Expression
E. Auscultation

Answer 6

Transillumination

Question 7

Which body position allows longer retention times for enemas?
A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Sitting
D. Erect
E. Prone

Answer 7

Supine

Question 8

Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired calculation ability.
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3
E. Grade 4

Answer 8

Grade 2

Question 9

The following are factors that may exacerbate established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT:
A. Hypotension
B. Prostatic hypertrophy
C. Increased renal blood flow
D. Nephrotoxins
E. Hypertension

Answer 9

Increased renal blood flow

Question 10

Another term for nearsightedness:
A. astigmatism
B. hyperopia
C. exophthalmos
D. Presbyopia
E. Myopia

Answer 10

Myopia

Question 11

Which of the following may cause “hairy tongue”?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Measles
D. Liver disease
E. Aging

Answer 11

Antibiotic therapy

Question 12

Which strategy may be advised to a patient who considers Beta blockers unpleasant to take?
A. Change the dosage regimen.
B. Consider verapamil.
C. Encourage patient to use regularly.
D. A and B
E. All of these

Answer 12

All of these

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Captopril?
A. Taken once daily.
B. First-dose hypotension may occur
C. May worsen renal failure
D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur
E. Hyperkalemia may be expected

Answer 13

Taken once daily

Question 14

The following drugs may increase anticoagulant effect, EXCEPT:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Estrogen
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Erythromycin
E. Zafirlukast

Answer 14

Estrogen

Question 15

Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex bronchoconstriction:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Aspirin
C. Lactose dry powder
D. Direct percussion
E. Timolol

Answer 15

Lactose dry powder

Question 16

Physical assessment technique of creating a note by tapping a finger placed on the body:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Ballotement
D. Direct percussion
E. Indirect percussion

Answer 16

Indirect percussion

Question 17

Koilonychia is due to deficiency of ___________?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Calcium
D. Water
E. Vitamin C

Answer 17

Iron

Question 18

Example of a Scale skin lesion:
A, Hives
B. Dandruff
C. Measles rash
D. Mouth sore
E. Wart

Answer 18

Dandruff

Question 19

Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used among elderly patients?
A. Diazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Lorazepam
E. Clonazepam

Answer 19

Diazepam

Question 20

First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Acetazolamide
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproate
E. Topiramate

Answer 20

Valproate

Question 21

A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian syndrome if patient has bradykinesia, plus one or more of the following:
A. Classic rest tremor
B. Muscular rigidity
C. Postural instability
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C

Answer 21

A, B, and C

Question 22

These are orders for in-patients in hospitals and other institutions written by physicians on forms:
A. Physician’s Order Sheet
B. Prescription
C. Medication Order
D. Recipe
E. Patient’s Chart

Answer 22

Medication Order

Question 23

The following are types of information under social/ economic database, EXCEPT:
A. Daily activities
B. Ethnic background
C. Living arrangement
D. Sexual history
E. A and D

Answer 23

A and D

Question 24

“Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” This condition is according to which model?
A. Environmental model
B. Wellness model
C. World Health Organization model
D. Medical model
E. All of these

Answer 24

World Health Organization model

Question 25

Patients of psychiatric conditions usually stay in which type of hospital? A. Non-governmental B. General C. Long-term D. 400-499 bed-capacity E. Short-term

Answer 25

Long-term

Question 26

Which function of the hospital is geared towards the improvement of hospital services and advancement of medical knowledge against disease? A. Research B. Wellness C. Education D. Patient care E. Expansion

Answer 26

Research

Question 27

Type of questioning: “What medication do you take for a headache?” A. Direct Questioning B. Indirect Questioning C. Probing D. Open-ended E. Close-ended

Answer 27

Direct Questioning`

Question 28

“Spell WORLD backwards” is an example of a test for what area of mental state? A. Orientation B. Attention C. Recall D. Registration E. Language

Answer 28

Attention

Question 29

Which information is under the Demographic database? A. Patient Identification Number B. Physician and prescribers C. Occupation D. Personality type E. Ethnic background

Answer 29

Occupation

Question 30

Volunteer service belongs to which department in the hospital? A. Pharmacy service B. Medical Library C. Business office D. Medical Social Service E. Administrative

Answer 30

Medical Social Service

Question 31

When using the standardized outline approach, which of the following is NOT followed when writing Progress Notes? A. Subjective data B. Objective data C. Recommendation D. Impression E. None of these

Answer 31

None of these

Question 32

The question “Are agents available in commercial formulation?” represents which request classification for drug information? A. Adverse Drug Reaction B. Availability C. Compounding/ Formulation D. Identification E. Compatibility/ Stability

Answer 32

Compounding/Formulation

Question 33

When looking for information regarding method of administration, which of the following drug information sources may be the most useful? A. Drug Facts and Comparisons B. RPS C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference E. USP DI

Answer 33

Drug Facts and Comparisons

Question 34

If the answer to the question “Do you cough up blood?” is negative, which of the following is to be noted that the patient denied of? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea B. Hemoptysis C. Shortness of breath D. Exertional SOB E. Rales

Answer 34

Hemoptysis

Question 35

This is an important tool for assuring the quality of drug use and controlling its cost in an institution such as the hospital. A. Essential drug list B. Formulary system C. Formulary D. P&T Committee E. Core list

Answer 35

Formulary system

Question 36

A facility where ambulatory patients are seen for appointments and treated by a group of physicians practicing together. A. Long-term health care facility B. Clinic C. Hospital D. County hospital E. Resident treatment facility

Answer 36

Clinic

Question 37

Which of the following belongs to the business management or administrative side of the hospital? A. Medical Records B. Medical Library C. Biomedical Engineering D. Pharmacy Service E. Dietary and Nutrition Service

Answer 37

Biomedical Engineering

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding questioning strategies for the pharmacist-patient encounter is CORRECT? A. Probing questions are assertive and aggressive. B. Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions. C. Open-ended questions are for narrow-focused answers. D. Direct questions encourages patient to elaborate. E. All except A

Answer 38

Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.

Question 39

Which of the following body areas is last in the sequence followed for physical examination? A. HEENT B. Genitals C. Rectum D. Neurogical System E. Lower extremities

Answer 39

Neurological System

Question 40

The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface area (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use the nomogram? A. Age and height B. Age and weight C. Height and creatinine clearance D. Height and weight E. Weight and sex

Answer 40

Height and weight

Question 41

Which of the following is a comprehensive, unbiased source of current information on drugs often used as hospital nursing stations, and serves as a basis for pharmacists to extend their role as pharmaceutical consultants to the medical profession? A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts D. American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy E. Drug Information

Answer 41

Drug information

Question 42

Which class of stock system consists of a predetermined list of medications that are usually used in large quantities and are prepackaged in standardized containers? A. Unit-dose system B. Charge floor stock C. Free floor stock D. Inpatient prescription system E. Coordinated control system

Answer 42

Free floor stock

Question 43

Aside from Policy Development, what is the other primary purpose of the P & T committee? A. Operation B. Organization C. Community Health D. Education E. Drug Administration

Answer 43

Education

Question 44

Water for injection is an example of drugs dispensed in which type of stock system? A. Unit dose system B. Charge floor stock C. Free floor stock D. Inpatient prescription system E. Coordinated control system

Answer 44

Free floor stock

Question 45

Which of the following drug information may not be found in Physician’s Desk Reference? A. Lactation B. Drug of choice C. ADR D. Dosage E. Product availability

Answer 45

Drug of choice

Question 46

Which of the following journals cover medical news and original articles? A. Drug Information Journal B. Archives of Internal Medicine C. New England Journal of Medicine D. Medical Letter E. Annals of Pharmacotherapy

Answer 46

Medical Letter

Question 47

Which of the following describes a medium intensity of feeling, which can be used in a medical interview? A. Marvelous B. Upset C. Distraught D. Blue E. Gloomy

Answer 47

Gloomy

Question 48

The following statements regarding arterial blood gases are true, EXCEPT: A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2 <4.5 kPaB. Oxygen saturation is measured by pulse oximetry C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate PaCO2 D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation. E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa may indicate hypoxaemia

Answer 48

Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.

Question 49

Which term refers to a decreased number of cell types is synonymous with aplastic anemia? A. Microcytic B. Pancytopenia C. Aplastic D. Thrombocytopenia E. Neutrophilia

Answer 49

Pancytopenia

Question 50

Which of the following is an invasive test or procedure? A. Insertion of a central venous catheter B. Taking of chest x-ray films C. Collection of spontaneously voided urine D. Comparative measurements of body parts E. All except B

Answer 50

Insertion of a central venous catheter

Question 51

Which one of the following uses high frequency sound waves imperceptible to the human ear to create images of organs? A. Standard Radiography B. Echocardiography C. Echography D. Echocardiogram E. Radionuclide studies

Answer 51

Echography

Question 52

Sexual history is under what patient information type/ section? A. Demographic B. Medical C. Social D. Behavioral E. Administrative

Answer 52

Behavioral

Question 53

Assessment of pancreatic function may be determined by the following, EXCEPT: A. Glucose B. Amylase C. Thyroxine D. Insulin E. None of these

Answer 53

Thyroxine

Question 54

Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an example of what data type? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan E. Either A or B

Answer 54

Objective

Question 55

Which one of the following is useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver disease? A. Amylase B. Hematocrit C. Hemoglobin D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin E. Bilirubin

Answer 55

Bilirubin

Question 56

What color of the stool is generally associated with upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding? A. Black B. Gray C. Light Gray D. Brown E. Red

Answer 56

Black

Question 57

Which one of the following may indicate longer prothrombin time? A. Hepatic dysfunction B. Increased Vitamin K C. Increased production of clotting factors D. All of these E. None of these

Answer 57

Hepatic dysfunction

Question 58

Which of the following is TRUE regarding patient chart preparation? A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be used. B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil. C. Blue ink is conventional. D. The patient should be identifiable by at least one (1) demographic characteristic. E. All of the choices except B

Answer 58

Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.

Question 59

Which one of the following may be an indication of the presence of white blood cells in the stool? A. Bile duct obstruction B. Gastrointestinal infection C. Measles D. Dehydration E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit

Answer 59

Gastrointestinal infection

Question 60

Which dosage form is utilized in barium studies? A. Troches B. Enema C. Implant D. Ointment E. Dressing

Answer 60

Enema

Question 61

Using the Scratch Test, which one of the following is not a criterion for evaluation of the skin indicating the patient’s sensitivity to an allergen? A. Itchiness B. Swelling C. Redness D. No change/reaction E. B and C

Answer 61

Itchiness

Question 62

A bronchoscope is introduced through the following openings, EXCEPT: A. Nose B. Endotracheal tube C. Rectum D. Mouth E. None of these

Answer 62

Rectum

Question 63

Which one of the following is a noninvasive test or procedure? A. Venipuncture B. Radionuclide studies C. Paracentesis D. Ultrasonography E. pH stimulation tests

Answer 63

Ultrasonography

Question 64

Parameter of fecalysis that is used in the diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage: A. Consistency B. Fecal parasites C. Occult blood D. Amount E. pH

Answer 64

Occult blood

Question 65

Drug that may cause brown-colored urine: A. Methyldopa B. Rifampicin C. Indomethacin D. Doxorubicin E. Metronidazole

Answer 65

Metronidazole

Question 66

Major component of plasma proteins and indicates severity in chronic liver disease A. Albumin B. Creatinine C. Hemoglobin D. Glucose E. Bilirubin

Answer 66

Albumin

Question 67

Test to evaluate the absorption of Vitamin B12: A. Schilling Test B. Rinne Test C. Weber’s Test D. Romberg Test E. Schamroth Technique

Answer 67

Schilling Test

Question 68

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is TRUE? A. Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0 B. Hypothyroidism – FTI4: 6.4 C. Warfarin therapy – Bleeding time: 2 min D. Primary hyperparathyroidism – Serum chloride: 128 mEq/L E. Previous myocardial infarction – CK- MB: 5.7 ng/mL

Answer 68

Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0

Question 69

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is FALSE? A. Hepatocellular damage – Female patient: ALT: 50 U/L B. Folic acid deficiency – Male patient: 76% C. Lithium carbonate therapy – Serum Potassium: 2.1 mEq/L D. Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/d E. Diabetes mellitus – GIT: 180 mg/dL at 2 hrs

Answer 69

Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL

Question 70

Test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:A. Edrophonium tensilon test B. Ventilation Scanning C. Scratch and Patch TestD. Romberg TestE. Stress Test

Answer 70

Edrophonium tensilon

Question 71

Test of choice in patients suspected of having iron deficiency anemia:A. Coomb’s Test B. Serum ferritin C. ZPP fluorescenceD. C-reactive proteinE. Haptoglobulin

Answer 71

Serum ferritin

Question 72

This refers to the technique of manipulating unconscious or involuntary bodily processes made perceptible to the senses by conscious mental control:A. Naturopathy B. Auscultation C. AcupunctureD. BiofeedbackE. Holistic Health

Answer 72

Biofeedback

Question 73

BMI category indicating a Possible likelihood of chronic protein-energy under nutrition:A. <10 kg/ m2 B. <18 kg/ m2 C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2D. 20-35 kg/ m2E. >35 kg/ m2

Answer 73

18.5-20 kg/ m2

Question 74

In parenteral nutrition, which supplies Chloride the most per mL?A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium chloride C. Calcium chlorideD. Iron chlorideE. None of these

Answer 74

Sodium chloride

Question 75

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic drugs:A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock fittings are recommended.B. Syringes should be large enough to accommodate the total dose needed.C. Syringes should not be three-quarters full when containing the total drug dose.D. B and CE. None of these

Answer 75

None of these

Question 76

Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the therapeutic relationship between the patient and the pharmacist?A. Equality B. Trust C. EmpathyD. AuthenticityE. Responsiveness

Answer 76

Equality

Question 77

Example of metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:A. ThrombocytopeniaB. Lipid intoleranceC. Thrombophlebitis D. Essential fatty acid deficiencyE. Refeeding syndrome

Answer 77

Thrombophlebitis

Question 78

An important clinical skill that refers to the continuous process of deliberation and reflection during problem solving:A. Metacognition B. Ethnocentricity C. AdherenceD. GenuinenessE. Manipulation

Answer 78

Metacognition

Question 79

Which clinical finding is associated to Measles? A. Hairy tongue B. Chvostek’s sign C. Osler’s node D. Koplik spots E. Xanthelesma

Answer 79

Koplik spots

Question 80

A small, circumscribed, elevated solid lesion:A. Papule B. Vesicle C. PatchD. MaculeE. Comedo

Answer 80

Papule

Question 81

What body organ is associated with fetor hepaticus?A. Kidney B. Uterus C. Oral mucosaD. SkinE. Liver

Answer 81

Liver

Question 82

Practice sites for Ambulatory Care Setting:A. Nursing homes B. Patient’s residence C. Clinic environmentD. A, B, CE. B and C

Answer 82

Clinic environment

Question 83

Conditions that can affect vision, EXCEPT:A. Astigmatism B. Muddy sclera C. Conical corneaD. Corneal arcusE. All except B

Answer 83

Muddy sclera

Question 84

Which of the following describes a macule? A. Wart B. Colored lesion C. Less than 1cm D. A and C E. B and C

Answer 84

B and C

Question 85

Which among the given characteristics is NOT true regarding a Social interaction as to space boundaries with patient?A. Patient is 4-12 feet away.B. Body contact is described as out of reach.C. Eye contact is important.D. Low and frequent vocalizationE. None of these

Answer 85

Low and frequent vocalization

Question 86

Herpes zoster is an example of ________A. Patch B. Scale C. VesicleD. PapuleE. Macule

Answer 86

Vesicle

Question 87

Which of the following databases is published by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)? A. MEDLARS B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts C. Index Medicus D. Toxline E. EMBASE

Answer 87

International Pharmaceutical Abstracts

Question 88

What is deficiency in scurvy?A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. CalciumD. IronE. Phosphorus

Answer 88

Vitamin C

Question 89

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:A. Excoriation B. Lichenification C. MilliumD. VesicleE. Bulla

Answer 89

Bulla

Question 90

Volume of air inspired or expired with normal breathing:A. Tidal volumeB. Residual volumeC. Peak expiratory flowD. Forced tidal capacityE. A and B

Answer 90

Tidal volume

Question 91

Comparative measurements of parts of the body are used to assess nutritional status: A. Manometry B. Anthropometrics C. Schilling Test D. EMG E. ESR

Answer 91

Anthropometrics

Question 92

Which of the following is NOT a primary literature for drug information?A. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly ReportB. Annals of Internal MedicineC. Clin-AlertD. LancetE. Pharmacotherapy

Answer 92

Clin-Alert

Question 93

Electrolyte level is increased due to spironolactone use: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. SodiumD. CalciumE. Chloride

Answer 93

Potassium

Question 94

Drugs that may cause dyspepsiaA. Corticosteroids B. Iron C. AntibioticsD. Either A or BE. A, B, C

Answer 94

A, B, C

Question 95

The following are precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT:A. Constipation B. High-protein diet C. HyperkalemiaD. Bacterial peritonitisE. Benzodiazepines

Answer 95

Hyperkalemia

Question 96

Contraindications to thrombolysis as an intervention to acute coronary syndrome:A. One week postpartum B. CNS Neoplasm C. Oral anticoagulant therapyD. A, B, CE. A and C

Answer 96

A, B, C

Question 97

When organizing a patient’s Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR), which of the following may be found on the last pages/ sections?A. Graphic charts B. Laboratory data C. Progress notesD. Medication ListE. Physicians Orders

Answer 97

Medication List

Question 98

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of heart failure?A. Bradycardia B. Pallor C. FatigueD. ConfusionE. Hepatomegaly

Answer 98

Bradycardia

Question 99

What is the interaction of Tetracycline and milk?A. Potentiation B. Drug displacement C. Complexation D. Enzyme inhibitionE. Addition

Answer 99

Complexation

Question 100

In what section of the medical chart can one find the patient’s Past Medical History (PMH)? A. Flow sheet B. Admit summary C. Admission formD. Progress notesE. Patient interview

Answer 100

Admit summary

Question 101

Which of the following decreases theophylline clearance?A. Cigarette smoking B. Viral pneumoniaC. PhenytoinD. Age (1-12 years old)E. High-protein, low carbohydrate diet

Answer 101

Viral pneumonia

Question 102

Who among the following is under the Chief Pharmacist but above the other positions based on the organizational chart of a hospital?A. Staff PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Senior PharmacistD. Supervising PharmacistE. Associate Pharmacist

Answer 102

Supervising Pharmacist

Question 103

Which of the following is a qualification for a Senior Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 3 years work experienceB. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice C. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examinationD. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentE. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies

Answer 103

With at least 3 years work experience

Question 104

Which of the following is a qualification for a Supervising Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice B. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studiesC. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentD. With at least 3 years work experienceE. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examination

Answer 104

With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies

Question 105

Who among the following personnel prepares reports of monthly consumption and balance of stocks?A. Senior Pharmacist B. Staff Pharmacist C. Administrative AideD. Chief PharmacistE. Laboratory Pharmacy Aide

Answer 105

Administrative Aide

Question 106

Which of the following drugs is deemed inappropriate for use in elderly patients? A. Secobarbital B. Meprobamate C. Gluthetimide D. Only A E. A, B, C

Answer 106

A, B, C

Question 107

In the pharmacy functional chart, Poison Control is part of which service?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative

Answer 107

Clinical

Question 108

Investigational Drug Study is part of which service among the hospital pharmacy services?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative

Answer 108

Research

Question 109

Physical Examination results may be found in which section of the medical chart?A. Admit summary B. Progress Notes C. Flow sheetD. A, B, CE. B and C

Answer 109

A, B, C

Question 110

Who is considered as the head of the Nutrition Support Team? A. Pharmacist B. Physician C. Nurse D. Dietitian E. All of these

Answer 110

Physician

Question 111

Carcinogenesis is an example of what type of ADR?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

Answer 111

Type D

Question 112

Syndromes that are typical of drug-induced pulmonary disease, EXCEPT:A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edemaB. AsthmaC. Plural effusionsD. Interstitial fibrosisE. Pulmonary vascular disease

Answer 112

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Question 113

Ethambutol- optic neuropathy is an example of what type of ADR?A. Ending of use B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. Failure of efficacyE. Augmented

Answer 113

Continuous

Question 114

Deteriorated or outdated medication is a cause of what type of medication error?A. Prescribing error B. Dispensing error C. Administration errorD. B and CE. A, B, C

Answer 114

Administration error

Question 115

Which among the categories of medication error has the presence of error but poses no harm?A. Type A B. Type C C. Type FD. Type GE. Type I

Answer 115

Type C

Question 116

Prescriptions for Phenobarbital tablet is filed for how long?A.6 months B. 1 year C. 2 yearsD. 3 yearsE. 5 years

Answer 116

2 years

Question 117

Drugs that are implicated in disorders of mood:A. Oral contraceptives B. Analgesics C. SteroidsD. B and CE. A, B, C

Answer 117

A, B, C

Question 118

The following are found on the Flow Sheet section of the medical chart, EXCEPT: A. Physical Examination B. Pulmonary Function Test C. Chief Complaint D. Laboratory tests E. None of these

Answer 118

Pulmonary Function Test

Question 119

What does a Category I Medication Error mean?A. No error B. Error, No Harm C. Error, With HarmD. Error, DeathE. No error, With Harm

Answer 119

Error, Death

Question 120

The green color coding for the medication cards is for drugs administered:A. O.D B. B.I.D C. T.I.DD. Q.I.DE. H.S

Answer 120

Q.I.D

Question 121

To which government agency should the hospital submit the report on empty vials and ampoules crushed and used as specimen container?A. DOH B. PDEA C. FDAD. DTIE. A and B

Answer 121

FDA

Question 122

Prescriptions for Phenobarbital ampule should be filed for how long?A. 6 months B. 1 year B. 2 yearsD. 5 yearsE. It is not filed

Answer 122

1 year

Question 123

Effects more pronounced in Haloperidol than in Benperidol as antipsychotic agent:A. SedationB. Reduce sexual driveC. Tardive dyskinesia with long-term useD. Hormonal effectsE. All except B

Answer 123

All except B

Question 124

Which of the following may cause Extrapyramidal Symptoms as its adverse effect?A. Atropine B. Codeine C. PhenothiazineD. StreptomycinE. Nitroglycerin

Answer 124

Phenothiazine

Question 125

Which of the following age groups is considered as High-risk factor for atrial fibrillation?A. 20 to 35 years old B. Below 65 years old C. 65 to 75 years oldD. Above 75 years oldE. No risk seen or proven

Answer 125

Above 75 years old

Question 126

Benzodiazepine- caused rebound insomnia is an example of what category of Adverse Drug Reaction?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. Ending of use

Answer 126

Ending of use

Question 127

Which of the following is NOT considered as Class A bioterrorism agent? A. Anthrax B. Boil C. TularemiaD. Viral hemorrhagic feverE. Botulinum toxin

Answer 127

Boil

Question 128

Which antiepileptic drug has the smallest starting dose (in mg)?A. Carbamazepine B. Clonazepam C. ValproateD. GabapentinE. Phenytoin

Answer 128

Clonazepam

Question 129

This reflects the expansion of the role of the hospital as to care programs and facilities:A. Organized health-care B. Heath-system C. Institutional careD. Patient care E. Pharmaceutical care

Answer 129

Institutional care

Question 130

Headache as an adverse effect of nitroglycerin belongs to what category of ADR?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. End of use

Answer 130

Augmented

Question 131

Which is an add-on therapy to the standard pharmacotherapy to hypertension with diabetes mellitus?A. DiureticB. ACE-inhibitorC. Calcium Channel BlockerD. Angiotensin II Receptor BlockerE. Aldosterone Antagonist

Answer 131

Diuretic

Question 132

Blood Coagulation factor XII is also known as _____________ A. Proaccelerin B. Christmas factor C. Hageman factor D. Stuart-Power factor E. Von Willebrand factor

Answer 132

Hageman factor

Question 133

The following are indications for TPN because enteral intake is inadvisable, EXCEPT: A. Short gut syndrome B. Renal failure C. Acute hepatitisD. Acute pancreatitisE. Severe cachexia

Answer 133

Short gut syndrome

Question 134

Possible solution when pain and immobility oocurs during the night in a Parkinson’s disease patient:A. Reduce antiparkinsonian therapyB. Use of slow-release levodopaC. Consider therapyD. Drug holiday for 1 weekE. More frequent doses of levodopa

Answer 134

Use of slow-release levodopa

Question 135

A positive finding for which test may indicate antibody-mediated hemolysis?A. Indirect Coomb’s TestB. Direct Coomb’s TestC. Schilling TestD. Serum ferritinE. Total Reticulocyte Count

Answer 135

Direct Coomb's Test

Question 136

Which of the following is recommended for severe refractory atopic dermatitis condition?A. Emollient B. Topical calcineurin inhibitor C. Topical corticosteroidD. Tacrolimus BIDE. Phototherapy

Answer 136

Phototherapy

Question 137

Which is NOT to be followed when given a prescription of “Gentamicin 80 mg IV PB q 8 hr”? A. Gentamicin is added to amni-bottle containing 100 mL 5% Dextrose Inj. B. Dose is given every 8 hours C. Drug administration is by piggyback technique. D. Flow rate required is at least 30 minutes. E. None of these

Answer 137

None of these

Question 138

Which of the following symptoms is specifically controlled with intranasal anticholinergics?A. Nasal congestion B. Sneezing C. ItchingD. RhinorrheaE. Ocular symptoms

Answer 138

Rhinorrhea

Question 139

This is the most common associated symptom for Osteoarthritis.A. Joint stiffness B. Crepitus C. PainD. Joint deformityE. Joint enlargement

Answer 139

Pain

Question 140

Which of the following is LEAST considered as a risk factor for Osteoporosis?A. Low calcium intakeB. Male sexC. Current cigarette smoking D. Minimal sun exposureE. Estrogen deficiency before age 45

Answer 140

Male sex

Question 141

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Drug Usage Evaluation?A. It is the same as the Drug Utilization Review.B. It is the same as drug therapy monitoring.C. It can be a research tool.D. It is a justification of both distributive and clinical functions.E. It considers patterns of drug usage.

Answer 141

It is the same as drug therapy monitoring

Question 142

Which of the following drugs/ agents will cause skin reactions the most?A. Penicillin G B. Amoxicillin C. BloodD. ErythtomycinE. Ampicillin

Answer 142

Amoxicillin

Question 143

Which among the following chemotherapeutic drugs would LEAST induce emesis?A. Fluorouracil B. Cisplatin C. CarboplatinD. PaclitaxelE. Bleomycin

Answer 143

Bleomycin

Question 144

When the medication card is color coded violet, the administration of the drug is:A. Per orem B. B.I.D C. H.SD. StatE. Round the clock

Answer 144

Round the clock

Question 145

Which among the following is NOT a required utensil/ apparatus/ equipment in a 25-bed capacity hospital? A. Filing cabinet B. Funnel C. Hot plateD. Tablet counterE. Analytical balance

Answer 145

Analytical balance

Question 146

This refers to the direct, responsible provision of medication-related care for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s quality of life:A. Clinical Pharmacy B. Pharmaceutical CareC. Patient CareD. Pharmaceutical ServiceE. Pharmacy

Answer 146

Pharmaceutical Care

Question 147

The following drugs/ agents may increase blood glucose level, EXCEPT:A. Oral contraceptives B. Phenytoin C. SalicylatesD. Nicotinic acidE. Diuretics

Answer 147

Salicylates

Question 148

For chronic illnesses, what is the maximum number of months to be supplied in a single dispensing of medicines?A. 1 B. 3 C. 6D. 12E. Nothing specified

Answer 148

3

Question 149

Which of the following parenteral antibiotics used for pyelonephritis may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?A. Co-amoxiclav B. Cefuroxime C. GentamicinD. CiprofloxacinE. Meropenem

Answer 149

Gentamicin

Question 150

What procedure provides information about the circulatory system at the back of the eye not attainable with a routine examination?A. Fundus photographsB. Ocular UltrasoundC. Fluorescein AngiographyD. Optic Clearance TomographyE. Indocyamine Green Angiography

Answer 150

Fluorescein Angiography

Question 151

What is the standard time to be followed for “q12”?A. 6 am – 6 pm B. 7 am – 7 pm C. 8 am – 8 pmD. 9 am - 9 pmE. 12 nn - 12 mn

Answer 151

8 am - 8 pm

Question 152

Which among the following utensils/ equipment/ apparatus is found in a 100-bed capacity, but not in a 10- or 15-bed capacity hospital? A. Mixer 2-L capacity B. Calculating machine C. Rough balance D. Ring stand E. Ribbed funnel

Answer 152

Mixer 2-L capacity

Question 153

Which may be considered as an alternative drug for social anxiety disorder?A. Buspirone B. Fluvoxamine C. SertralineD. ParoxetineE. Clonazepam

Answer 153

Buspirone

Question 154

Which is NOT a category under the Laboratory Data of the Patient Medical Chart? A. Microbiology B. Urinalysis C. Arterial Blood Gases D. Consults E. Type and Screens

Answer 154

Consults

Question 155

This refers to a radiograph examination of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with the use of contrast media:A. Barium EnemaB. Barium SwallowC. CholangiogramD. Intravenous PyelographyE. Retrograde Pyelography

Answer 155

Retrograde Pyelography

Question 156

Drugs used in the treatment of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) infection in HIV patient, EXCEPT:A. Azithromycin B. Flucytosine C. DapsoneD. PrimaquineE. Co-trimoxazole

Answer 156

Flucytosine

Question 157

Which of the following is NOT a dietary restriction for patients using monoamine oxidase inhibitors?A. Ripe avocado B. Soy sauce C. SnailsD. CeleryE. Beer

Answer 157

Celery

Question 158

Which of the following characteristics is FALSE regarding Tourette’s Disorder?A. Echolalia B. Facial twitching C. Age of onset after 60 yearsD. Shoulder shruggingE. Throat clearing

Answer 158

Age of onset after 60 years

Question 159

This procedure is used to evaluate the size, shape, and motion of the valves, septum and walls and changes in chamber size during the cardiac cycle.A. Echo CardiographyB. Electrocardiogram C. Coronary AngiographyD. Fluorescein AngiographyE. Indocyamine Green angiography

Answer 159

Echo Cardiography

Question 160

What is the best definition for the abbreviation AUC? A. Area under the time curve B. Area under the curve C. Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve D. Area under blood concentration curve E. Area under serum- or blood- concentration curve

Answer 160

Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve

Question 161

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?A. Predominantly secretory defectB. Beta cell destructionC. AutoimmuneD. IdiopathicE. Absolute insulin deficiency

Answer 161

Predominantly secretory defect

Question 162

A platelet count of 1200 x 103 /mm3 may indicate which condition? A. Vit B12 deficiency B. Leukemia C. Hemorrhage D. Aplastic bone marrow E. Immune disorder

Answer 162

Hemorrhage

Question 163

Which among the following is a SIGN of cardio pulmonary arrest?A. Anxiety B. Cyanosis C. DiaphoresisD. Nausea and vomitingE. Dyspnea

Answer 163

Cyanosis

Question 164

Which of the following is NOT an indication of a WBC Count of 25 x 103/mm3?A. Bone marrow suppression B. Tissue necrosis C. RubellaD. Typhoid feverE. Influenza

Answer 164

Tissue necrosis

Question 165

Characteristic of a Stage 1 Hypertension:A. DPB 80-89 B. SBP >160 C. DBP 90-99D. DBP >100E. SBP 120-139

Answer 165

DBP 90-99

Question 166

The following are required books in a hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:A. RPSB. PNDFC. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of TherapeuticsD. USP-NFE. Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia

Answer 166

Martindale's Extra Pharmacopeia

Question 167

Example of macrovascular complication in Type 2 Diabetes?A. Nephropathy B. Ischemic skin changes C. RetinopathyD. Abnormal ECGE. Erectile dysfunction

Answer 167

Abnormal ECG

Question 168

Recommended drug therapy for Stage 2 Hypertension: A. Thiazide diuretic B. ACE inhibitor + ARB agent C. ACE inhibitor or ARB agent D. ACE inhibitor or ARB + CCB E. Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB

Answer 168

Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB

Question 169

Clinical circumstance where hospitalization should be considered and not just recommended for patient presenting with acute decompensated heart failure?A. Dyspnea at restB. Acute coronary syndromesC. HypotensionD. Altered mentationE. Major electrolyte disturbance

Answer 169

Major electrolyte disturbance

Question 170

Risk factors for major bleeding while on anticoagulant factor, EXCEPT: A. Renal failure B. Age <60 years C. Heavy alcohol use D. Malignancy E. Recent history of surgery

Answer 170

Age <60 years

Question 171

The following are just suggested references for pharmacists in the hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT: A. Cross Reference Index B. Clinical Laboratory Medicine C. Medical Dictionary D. Hospital formulary E. None of these

Answer 171

Hospital formulary

Question 172

A female patient presents a 55% Hct value. What does this mean? A. Polycythemia B. Hemoconcentration C. Anemia D. Hemodilution E. A and/or B

Answer 172

A and/or B

Question 173

Which of the following required record books is DOH hospital pharmacies exempted of?A. Dangerous Drug Book B. Prescription BookC. Poison BookD. Red BookE. Exempt Dangerous Drugs Book

Answer 173

Prescription Book

Question 174

What is elevated in a stage IV Hyperlipoproteinemia? A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. HDL D. VLDL E. IDL

Answer 174

VLDL

Question 175

Which oral hypoglycaemic agent will be administered the MOST frequent?A. Gliquidone B. Pioglitazone C. GlimeprideD. ChlorpropamideE. Rosiglitazone

Answer 175

Gliquidone

Question 176

This term is defined as “the extent to which a person’s behavior-taking medication…corresponds with agreed recommendations from a health care provider.”A. Patient complianceB. Medication adherenceC. Medication consumptionD. Drug complianceE. Medication counselling

Answer 176

Medication adherence

Question 177

Which patient classification makes the patient pay only 50% of the charges of medicines given and ancillary services rendered?A. Class C-1 B. Class C-2 C. Class C-3D. Class DE. Class E

Answer 177

Class C-2

Question 178

The following are monitored when patient is under erythropoietis stimulant therapy, EXCEPT:A. Blood pressure B. Iron level C. Complete blood countD. Blood sugar levelsE. Ferritin level

Answer 178

Blood sugar levels

Question 179

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heart failure?A. Hemoptysis B. S2 gallop C. NocturiaD. BloatingE. Exercise intolerance

Answer 179

S2 gallop

Question 180

What form of economic analyses estimates the ratio between the cost of health-related intervention and the benefit it produces in terms of number oy years lived in full health by the beneficiaries?A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Benefit AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Effectiveness Analysis

Answer 180

Cost Utility Analysis

Question 181

Which among the following is NOT part of the Administrative Service of the hospital pharmacy?A. Internship ProgramB. Financial ManagementC. Compliance to regulatory requirementsD. Drug supply managementE. Records and reports

Answer 181

Internship Program

Question 182

Which is NOT a contraindication for cardiopulmonary exercise testing?A. Uncontrolled hypertensionB. Congestive heart failureC. Severe aortic stenosisD. Acute pericarditisE. Dyspnea upon exertion

Answer 182

Dyspnea upon exertion

Question 183

ThiazolidinedioneA. TZLD B. TLD C. TZDD. TLD4E. TADD

Answer 183

TZD

Question 184

Forced expiratory volume in 1 secondA. FEV1S B. FEV C. FexpV1secD. FEV1E. FExV1

Answer 184

FEV1

Question 185

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the gastrointesitinal adverse effects of sulfonylureas?A. Most commonly nausea and vomitingB. Dose-relatedC. Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapyD. Affects approximately 2% of usersE. May be avoided when taken with food

Answer 185

Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapy

Question 186

At what stage of stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder is a short acting bronchodilator added in the therapy?A. 0 B. I C. IID. IIIE. IV

Answer 186

I

Question 187

AAT stands for __________A. Amino Acid TreatmentB. Alpha Acid ToleranceC. Alpha1- antitrypsinD. Active Aortic TachycardiaE. Alveolar Activity Test

Answer 187

Alpha1- antitrypsin

Question 188

What form of economic analysis compares the relative expenditure and outcomes of two or more courses of action?A. Cost Benefit Analysis B. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Minimization Analysis

Answer 188

Cost Effectiveness Analysis

Question 189

Pharmaceutical care requires a direct relationship between ___________.A. Medical doctor and pharmacistB. Pharmacist and patientC. Pharmacist and colleaguesD. Patient and Heath care teamE. Patient, Doctor, and Pharmacist

Answer 189

Pharmacist and patient

Question 190

Anemia may be possible condition for the following values, EXCEPT: A. Male patient 30% Hct B. Platelet count 70 x 109L C. Female patient 6g/dL Hb D. Male patient 2.2 mill/mm3 RBC E. Hb 80 g/L

Answer 190

Platelet count 70 x 109L

Question 191

Laboratory investigations as part of annual review for diabetes, EXCEPT:A. Fasting lipid profile B. HbA1C C. Liver function testsD. CreatinineE. Amylase test

Answer 191

Amylase test

Question 192

Which of the following drugs may NOT cause gastrointestinal mucosa injury?A. Estrogen B. Ethanol C. AspirinD. ReserpineE. Warfarin

Answer 192

Estrogen

Question 193

What is fundamental to the pharmacy profession’s purpose of helping people make the best use of medication?A. Clinical PharmacyB. Medication therapy managementC. Pharmaceutical careD. CommitmentE. Professional responsibility

Answer 193

Pharmaceutical care

Question 194

Endoscopy-negative reflux diseaseA. ENRD B. E (-) C. E-RDD. (-) ERDE. ERD-Neg.

Answer 194

ENRD

Question 195

An increase in Sodium values may mean the following conditions, EXCEPT:A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes insipidusC. AldosteronismD. Impaired renal functionE. None of these

Answer 195

Adrenal insufficiency

Question 196

Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is NOT commercially available as a tablet? A. Omeprazole B. Pantoprazole C. Lansoprazole D. Esomeprazole E. None of the given choices

Answer 196

Pantoprazole

Question 197

This compares the cost of therapies that achieve the same outcome: A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Operational AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Benefit AnalysisE. Cost Utility Analysis

Answer 197

Cost Minimization Analysis

Question 198

Which of the following antiemetic preparations may NOT be given OTC?A. Cimetidine B. Dimenhydrinate C. FamotidineD. DiphenhydramineE. Cyclizine

Answer 198

Diphenhydramine

Question 199

Which of the following drugs may cause diarrhea?A. Tetracycline B. Methyldopa C. NeostigmineD. A and BE. A, B, and C

Answer 199

A, B, and C

Question 200

The following are Ex-Officio members of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, EXCEPT:A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief NurseC. Chief Administrative OfficerD. PHIC RepresentativeE. None of the choices

Answer 200

Chief Pharmacist

Question 201

Which is NOT a clinical manifestation of liver cirrhosis?A. Pruritus B. Increased libido C. Weight lossD. HyperpigmentationE. Spider angioma

Answer 201

Increased libido

Question 202

The patient has a medication indication but is taking the wrong medication. What category of medication-related problem is indicated?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Medication use without indication C. Subtherapeutic dosageD. Improper drug selectionE. Untreated indications

Answer 202

Improper drug selection

Question 203

Which is NOT included in the treatment approach for ascites?A. Diuretics B. Diet C. ParacentesisD. Antibiotic therapyE. Intrahepatic shunt

Answer 203

Antibiotic therapy

Question 204

The following are possible medical conditions related to a triglyceride value of 185 mg/dL, EXCEPT:A. DiabetesB. Overconsumption of alcoholC. Nephritic syndromeD. Biliary obstructionE. Pancreatitis

Answer 204

Biliary obstruction

Question 205

Which of the following drugs has a definite association with acute pancreatitis?A. Furosemide B. Propofol C. RifampinD. PaclitaxelE. Ciprofloxacin

Answer 205

Furosemide

Question 206

Cushing’s syndrome may be a possible condition as indicated by an increased value of which diagnostic test?A. FBS B. HDL C. Triglyceride D. CalciumE. Potassium

Answer 206

FBS

Question 207

Somatic diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), EXCEPT:A. Headache B. DepressionC. Abdominal bloatingD. Swelling of extremitiesE. Breast tenderness

Answer 207

Depression

Question 208

Para-amino hippuric acidA.pHa B. p-aha C. PAHD. PAHAE. pAHA

Answer 208

PAH

Question 209

Which of the following is NOT included in a hospital formulary?A. Table of sodium content of antacidsB. Metric conversion scales or tablesC. Table of drug interactionsD. Poison antidote chartsE. None of these

Answer 209

None of these

Question 210

The most appropriate initial therapy for the management of dyslipidemia of patients with chronic kidney disease?A. Maximum-dose statinB. NiacinC. FibrateD. Low-dose statinE. Therapeutic lifestyle changes

Answer 210

Therapeutic lifestyle changes

Question 211

The most common manifestation of drug-induced kidney disease:A. Decrease in serum creatinine B. Decline in GFRC. Increased BUND. B and CE. A, B, and C

Answer 211

B and C

Question 212

Which of the following is a Nephritic sign?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. FatigueD. HematuriaE. All except D

Answer 212

Hematuria

Question 213

Of the following steps of drug procurement cycle, which comes first?A. Locate and select suppliersB. Reconcile needs and fundsC. Choose procurement methodD. Review drug selectionE. Collect consumption information

Answer 213

Review drug selection

Question 214

Which of the following has the highest Potassium content?A. Avocado B. Molasses C. Banana D. CarrotsE, Ground beef

Answer 214

Molasses

Question 215

Gout may be possible for a male patient with a Uric Acid Value of?A. 0.13 mg/dL B. 1 mg/dL C. 3 mg/dLD. 8 mg/dLE. 11 mg/dL

Answer 215

11 mg/dL

Question 216

Drugs with negligible risk when breastfeeding full-term healthy babies:A. Paracetamol B. Digoxin C. CodeineD. InsulinE. All of these

Answer 216

All of these

Question 217

The patient has a medical problem that requires medication therapy but is not receiving a medication for that indication. What category of medication-related problem is involved?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Improper drug selectionC. Untreated indicationsD. Medication use without indicationE. Subtherapeutic dosage

Answer 217

Untreated indications

Question 218

For fast moving drugs, the preparation of request is at ______ stock level. A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% E. Any

Answer 218

75%

Question 219

Which of the following is NOT associated with a high Total Cholesterol value? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Pancreatitis C. CAD D. Hyperthyroidism E. Hepatitis

Answer 219

Hyperthyroidism

Question 220

Pharmaceutical care is applicable and achievable by pharmacists in which practice setting?A. Community setting B. Marketing C. ResearchD. A onlyE. A, B, C

Answer 220

A, B, C

Question 221

In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who approves the purchase request?A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Chief Medical Professional StaffD. Chief of HospitalE. Supply Officer

Answer 221

Chief of Hospital

Question 222

Which is NOT an example of Microcytic Anemia? A. Thalassemia B. IDA C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Anemia of chronic disease E. A and C

Answer 222

Thalassemia

Question 223

Which of the following indicates a favorable prognosis for multiple sclerosis?A. <40 years oldB. Male genderC. Cerebellar initial symptomsD. Progressive course of diseaseE. High attack frequency

Answer 223

<40 years old

Question 224

In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who prepares the Purchase Order?A. Chief of HospitalB. Chief PharmacistC. Staff PharmacistD. Supply OfficerE. Pharmacy Administrative Aide

Answer 224

Supply Officer

Question 225

Which of the following is NOT a type of generalized seizure?A. Absence B. Atonic C. Status epilepticusD. Infantile spasmsE. Myoclonic

Answer 225

Status epilepticus

Question 226

Basis of Glassgow Coma Scale in defining level of consciousness:A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. A and BE. A, B, C

Answer 226

A, B, C

Question 227

Which of the following is a CORRECT measure followed regarding proper storage in the hospital pharmacy?A. Heavier items should be placed in smaller pile.B. Varnish wood.C. Bind sharp corners with tape.D. A and CE. A, B, C

Answer 227

A, B, C

Question 228

The following drugs may cause secondary parkinsonism, EXCEPT:A. Haloperidol B. Olanzapine C. CinnarizineD. α-methyldopaE. Carbidopa

Answer 228

Carbidopa

Question 229

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain?A. InsomniaB. DepressionC. Organic causeD. Dependence to medicationE. Functionality treatment goal

Answer 229

Organic cause

Question 230

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about classic migraine? A. Migraine with auraB. Basilar-type auraC. At least two attacksD. Not attributed to another disorderE. Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours

Answer 230

Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours

Question 231

What drug classification usually serves as a starting point for Drug Usage Evaluation in a hospital?A. Anticoagulants B. Antibiotics C. CNS drugsD. Cardiac drugsE. Insulin therapy

Answer 231

Antibiotics

Question 232

Who is responsible for arranging dangerous drugs systematically in a secured cabinet?A. Laboratory Aide B. Pharmacy technician C. Staff PharmacistD. Senior PharmacistE. Pharmacy Aide

Answer 232

Senior Pharmacist

Question 233

Features of megaloblastic anemia, EXCEPT:A. Sterility B. Anorexia C. Severe jaundiceD. Angular stomatitisE. Diarrhea

Answer 233

Severe jaundice

Question 234

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Rivastigmine as drug for Alzheimer’s Disease?A. Available as tablet B. Take with food C. 1.5 hours half-lifeD. 40% protein bindingE. Available as Patch

Answer 234

Available as tablet

Question 235

Which of the following pharmacologic agents is NOT used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?A. Clonidine B. Fibrate C. LabetalolD. MultivitaminsE. Alcohol IV

Answer 235

Fibrate

Question 236

Drug NOT associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia:A. Cyclosporine B. Quinine C. LevodopaD. ClarithromycinE. Mefenamic acid

Answer 236

Clarithromycin

Question 237

Pharmaceutical care outcomes include:A. Cure of patient’s diseaseB. Reduction of patient’s symptomatologyC. Prevention of the diseaseD. A and CE. A, B, C

Answer 237

A, B, C

Question 238

In a hospital setting, who among the following is responsible for the detection of TPN complications?A. Gastroenterologist B. Primary care physician C. PharmacistD. NurseE. Dietitian

Answer 238

Nurse

Question 239

Which of the following is considered as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?A. Hallucinations B. Affective flattening C. AvolitionD. AlogiaE. Anhedonia

Answer 239

Hallucinations

Question 240

Which of the following is NOT included among the contents of Cytotoxic Spill Kit?A. Overshoes B. Absorbent material C. DetergentD. Head coveringE. None of these

Answer 240

None of these

Question 241

A dopamine agonist used to treat extrapyramidal side effects:A. Benztropine B. Biperiden C. LorazepamD. AmantadineE. Trihexyphenidyl

Answer 241

Amantadine

Question 242

Which of the following vaccines is ideally stored in a -15 degree celcius to -25 degree celcius?A.DTP B. Oral Polio C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. Tetanus Toxoid

Answer 242

Oral Polio

Question 243

Which among the following therapies may pose more toxicity?A. Methotrexate + sulfasalazineB. Cyclosporine + hydroxychloroquineC. PenicillamineD. Cyclosporine + methotrexateE. Methotrexate + sulfasalazine + hydroxychloroquine

Answer 243

Penicillamine

Question 244

Which is NOT TRUE regarding Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?A. B-cell destructionB. IdiopathicC. Relative insulin deficiencyD. Immune-mediatedE. Absolute insulin deficiency

Answer 244

Relative insulin deficiency

Question 245

Which of the following is the most sensitive to heat?A. Tetanus toxoid B. DTP C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. A and C

Answer 245

DTP

Question 246

What model defines Health as “the absence of disease or disability”?A. Medical modelB. World Health Organization modelC. Wellness modelD. Environmental modelE. All except D

Answer 246

Medical model

Question 247

Which type of ADR may be prevented by adjustment of dosage regimen?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

Answer 247

Type A

Question 248

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Adrenal Carcinoma Cushing’s syndrome?A. Slow courseB. Dominant among childrenC. Atypical symptomsD. Mild to moderate symptomsE. Dominant among males

Answer 248

Dominant among children

Question 249

“I hear you saying it bothers you that your headaches don’t respond to aspirin,” is an example of what type of questioning strategy?A. Open-ended B. Close-ended C. DirectD. IndirectE. Probe

Answer 249

Indirect

Question 250

Which of the following is NOT considered as a pharmacotherapeutic option in patients with urinary incontinence due to stress?A. Alpha adrenergic agonistB. Tricyclic antidepressantC. EstrogenD. ImipramineE. Duloxetine

Answer 250

Tricyclic antidepressant

Question 251

Which method is used for the computation of dose for infants up to 2 years old? A. Clark’s Rule B. Fried’s Rule C. Young’s Rule D. All of these E. A and C

Answer 251

Fried's Rule

Question 252

An ADR that has little or no relation to usual pharmacological effects of the drug is of what type?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E

Answer 252

Type B

Question 253

Which of the following is a clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis?A. Dyspepsia B. Constipation C. SteatorrheaD. DiarrheaE. All of these

Answer 253

All of these

Question 254

Type II Allergic Drug Reaction:A. Cytotoxic B. Immune complex C. Cell-mediatedD. AnaphylacticE. Tuberculin reaction

Answer 254

Cytotoxic

Question 255

Which of the following may decrease Cyclosporine levels when given concomitantly?A. Verapamil B. Ketoconazole C. PhenytoinD. ErythromycinE. Nicardipine

Answer 255

Phenytoin

Question 256

Constipation is an ADR of which drug?A. Tetracycline B. Propanolol C. CodeineD. CaptoprilE. Streptomycin

Answer 256

Codeine

Question 257

The following are clinical presentation of acute acetaminophen poisoning, EXCEPT:A. JaundiceB. OliguriaC. Abdominal discomfortD. Left upper abdominal quadrant tendernessE. Nausea and vomiting

Answer 257

Left upper abdominal quadrant tenderness

Question 258

Which is NOT a test for cardiac electrical rhythm?A. AngioscopyB. Holter monitoringC. Nuclear imagingD. Electrophysiologic studiesE. ECG

Answer 258

Nuclear imaging

Question 259

Which of the following is NOT included in the clinical presentation of cardiopulmonary arrest?A. Hypertension B. Dyspnea C. DiaphoresisD. CyanosisE. Anxiety

Answer 259

Hypertension

Question 260

The following medicines are maintained stocks in the emergency room, EXCEPT:A. Naloxone B. Furosemide C. AmilorideD. Regular InsulinE. Calcium gluconate

Answer 260

Amiloride

Question 261

Which of the following is an add-on pharmacotherapy to hypertension with post-myocardial infarction condition?A. DiureticB. Aldosterone antagonistC. Calcium channel blockerD. Angiotensin II receptor blockerE. Beta blocker

Answer 261

Aldosterone antagonist

Question 262

This alternative antihypertensive agent is to be used only once weekly:A. Doxazosin B. Minoxidil C. MethyldopaD. ClonidineE. Aliskiren

Answer 262

Clonidine

Question 263

Which of the following information is classified under the Medical Section?A. Past medical history B. Medication regimen C. Health planD. Home remediesE. Medication allergies

Answer 263

Past medical history

Question 264

Which antihypertensive agent is administered in most hypertensive emergencies except in acute heart failure?A. Labetalol HClB. Sodium nitroprussideC. Fenoldopam mesylateD. Hydralazine HClE. Esmolol HCl

Answer 264

Labetalol HCl

Question 265

An error occurred that resulted in permanent patient harm; this belongs to which category of medication error?A. Category A B. Category D C. Category ED. Category GE. Category I

Answer 265

Category G

Question 266

Which of the following can cause negative inotropic effect and may precipitate heart failure?A. Ethanol B. Cocaine C. TerbinafineD. RosiglitazoneE. Glucocorticoids

Answer 266

Terbinafine

Question 267

The maximum number of vials of Demerol that may be prescribed in a single applicable prescription by a licensed physician:A. 3 B. 10 C. 14D. 20E. 30

Answer 267

14

Question 268

Which is NOT a good source of protein?A. Cheese B. Peas C. EggD. FishE. Potatoes

Answer 268

Peas

Question 269

Which of the following Amiodarone side effects may NOT be managed by discontinuation of the drug?A. Hypothyroidism B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. BradycardiaD. TremorsE. Optic neuropathy

Answer 269

Hypothyroidism

Question 270

Hospital reports on Adverse Drug Reactions are submitted to which government agency?A. PDEA B. DOH C. FDAD. B and CE. A, B, C

Answer 270

B and C

Question 271

What is considered as the gold standard for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?A. Computed tomography B. Complete Blood CountC. Chest X-RayD. Pulmonary angiographyE. Ventilation-perfusion

Answer 271

Pulmonary angiography

Question 272

Which is NOT found on the flow sheets and graphic chart section of the medical record?A. Blood pressureB. Respiratory rateC. Fluid intake and outputD. Heart rateE. Arterial blood gas analysis

Answer 272

Arterial blood gas analysis

Question 273

Which of the following is an example of an objective data?A. Decreased swelling of feetB. Decreased edema on CXRC. Increased SOBD. Increase exercise toleranceE. Sleeps with fewer pillows

Answer 273

Decreased edema on CXR

Question 274

For medication cards, what is the color coding for “at bedtime” drugs? A. White B. Yellow C. Orange D. Pink E. Red

Answer 274

White

Question 275

Which body language implies receptiveness? A. Leaning toward the speaker B. Rising the hand C. Shifting body position D. Frequent throat clearing E. Steepling the hands

Answer 275

Leaning toward the speaker

Question 276

Who among the following is an allied health care professional?A. Athletic trainer B. Medical illustrator C. Exercise scientistD. A and BE. A, B, C

Answer 276

A, B, C

Question 277

What kind of questions should be asked early during a patient interview?A. Questions that can be answered by Yes or NoB. Multiple questionsC. Long, complex questionsD. Leading questionsE. Open-ended questions

Answer 277

Open-ended questions

Question 278

What is the alcohol use category of a male patient who drinks three drinks on average each week? A. Binge B. Moderate C. Light D. Infrequent E. Current

Answer 278

Light

Question 279

A patient states that he has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. What is the patient’s pack-year smoking history?A. 3 pk-yr B. 6 pk-yr C. 10 pk-yrD. 20 pk-yrE. 60 pk-yr

Answer 279

60 pk-yr

Question 280

A patient is troubled by shortness of breath when hurrying on a level surface. What does he have?A. No dyspneaB. Slight dyspneaC. Moderate dyspneaD. Severe dyspneaE. Very Severe Dyspnea

Answer 280

Slight dyspnea

Question 281

Which of the following drugs will most likely induce apnea? A. Anesthetics B. Ketamine C. Barbiturates D. Antihistamines E. Digitalis

Answer 281

Barbiturates

Question 282

Which of the following drugs would least likely induce bronchospasm?A. Cimetidine B. Penicillin C. CephalosphorinD. PapainE. Bisulfite

Answer 282

Cimetidine

Question 283

Which of the following would LEAST worsen GERD symptoms?A. Dopamine B. Onions C. TetracyclineD. MilkE. Peppermint

Answer 283

Milk

Question 284

For intermittent, mild heartburn, which of the following approaches is NOT appropriate?A. Ranitidine twice dailyB. Gaviscon 2 tabs before mealsC. Maalox 30 mL as neededD. Omeprazole once dailyE. Calcium carbonate 2 tabs as needed

Answer 284

Gaviscon 2 tabs before meals

Question 285

Thiopurine S-methyltransferaseA. TS-M B. TPSMT C. TPMTD. TMTE. TSMT

Answer 285

TPMT

Question 286

Which of the following is a cause of Ascites?A. Hyperdynamic circulationB. Sodium and water retentionC. Renal vasoconstrictionD. GravityE. A, B and C

Answer 286

A, B and C

Question 287

Which of the following drug information does not belong to the group?A. Current symptomsB. Compliance with therapyC. Laboratory informationD. Weight and heightE. Past medical history

Answer 287

Compliance with therapy

Question 288

Which of the following is present in a severe acute pancreatitis?A. Pseudocyst B. Necrosis C. Abscess D. B and CE. A, B, and C

Answer 288

A, B, and C

Question 289

Which is NOT true regarding steatorrhea?A. It is mostly seen among chronic pancreatitis patients.B. It is the loss of excess proteins in feces.C. It is associated with diarrhea.D. Bloating is associated with such.E. It is the loss of excess fat in the feces.

Answer 289

It is the loss of excess proteins in feces

Question 290

Hepatitis C Virus genotype 6 is mostly distributed in which region?A. Africa B. India C. WorldwideD. Middle EastE. Southeast Asia

Answer 290

Southeast Asia

Question 291

Which of the following physical examination findings in person with acute renal failure may indicate endocarditis?A. Splinter hemorrhages B. New heart murmur E. A, B, and CC. Roth spotsD. RalesE. A, B, and C

Answer 291

A, B, and C

Question 292

Which of the following may NOT indicate a chronic kidney disease?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. GERDD. GoutE. Hyperkalemia

Answer 292

Weight gain

Question 293

Which of the following is characteristic of hyponatremia?A. Increased skin turgorB. Dry mucous membranesC. BradycardiaD. Increased JVPE. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Answer 293

Dry mucous membranes

Question 294

Which of the following statements regarding hypokalemia is FALSE?A. Mild hypokalemia is often asymptomatic.B. Moderate hypokalemia is associated with malaise.C. In severe hypokalemia, ECG often changes.D. Digitalis-induced arrhythmia may be caused by severe hypokalemia.E. Hypermagnesemia is also present.

Answer 294

Hypermagnesemia is also present

Question 295

In which domain of the neurologic examination is myasthenia gravis tested?A. Gait B. Reflexes C. Cranial nervesD. Mental statusE. Sensory function

Answer 295

Cranial nerves

Question 296

Which of the following pairs of patient information and category is CORRECT? A. Consent Forms – Administrative B. Vital Signs – Demographic C. Living arrangement – Lifestyle D. Medication regimen – Medical E. Occupation – Economic

Answer 296

Consent Forms - Administrative

Question 297

Type of Question: “Does your headache respond to aspirin?”A. Open-ended question B. Close-ended question C. Direct questionD. Indirect questionE. Probe

Answer 297

Close-ended question

Question 298

Which interview questions may be used to assess mania?A. Do you cry without any reason?B. Do you have a lot of extra energy?C. Do you have any guilty feelings?D. Has your weight changed recently?E. Do you still enjoy the same hobbies that you once did?

Answer 298

Do you have a lot of extra energy?

Question 299

When a patient has difficulty remembering recent events, what stage of Alzheimer’s disease does he exhibit? A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Very Severe E. Relapsing

Answer 299

Mild

Question 300

Color coding for medication card for STAT drugs:A. White B. Red C. YellowD. PinkE. Orange

Answer 300

Red