Module 6 and Module 0 quizzes and kahoot Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

Based on the word parts, what does the term glycolysis mean?

A

The process of breaking down glucose for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following best defines the word root spir/o?

A

Air or Breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Based on its word parts, what does the term anabolic mean?

A

Related to the buildup or synthesis of complex molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the suffix -ase indicate in medical terminology?

A

A type of enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Based on its word parts, what does the term endergonic mean?

A

A reaction that absorbs or requires energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most enzymes are ________.

A

proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Temperature, pH, certain ions, and regulatory measures affect the function of enzymes by

A

affecting their conformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For an enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when [S] is doubled, ______ is/are altered. Hint: Think about constants and variables in the Michaelis-Menten equation:

V0= Vmax[S]/Km+[S]

A

neither Km nor Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following types of regulations is non-reversible?

A

Proteolytic cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In ____ inhibition, the structure of the inhibitor resembles the structure of the substrate of the affected enzyme.

A

competitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a pathway like the one depicted below, which enzyme is inhibited in the classic feedback inhibition process?

e1       e2        e3      e4 A ----> B <----> C <----> D ----> E
A

Enzyme 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following types of regulations is typical for extracellular space?

A

Proteolytic cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Activation of the digestive proteases trypsin and chymotrypsin is an example of _____ regulation.

A

covalent, nonreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The higher the pH, the higher the enzyme catalyzed reaction rate.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Warfarin, the active ingredient in the blood-thinning drug ‘Coumadin’

A

inactivates glutamate carboxylase by competitively binding instead of Vitamin K.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following metabolites is the point of convergence of carbohydrate, fate, and protein catabolism for the purpose of ATP production?

A

Acetyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following coenzymes relies on riboflavin?

A

FAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fermentation converts NADH to NAD+ so it can be used in .

A

glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The sum of degradative reactions is called .

A

catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In which of the following is carbon the most oxidized?

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anabolic pathways

A

require ATP and reduced electron carriers

22
Q

Citrate is a C___ compound.

23
Q

______________ catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups from one organic molecule to another.

24
Q

In the CAC cycle, acetyl-CoA gets combined with to form citrate.

25
In which processes is oxidation of carbon occurring? Choose the best answer. A. Krebs cycle B. Glycolysis C. Beta-oxidation D. Oxidative phosphorylation E. PDH (pyruvate dehydrogenase) complex
A, B, C, and E
26
Which of the following CANNOT be a cofactor or coenzyme?
a polypeptide
27
Enzymes increase reaction rates by
lowering the activation energy.
28
Based on these experimental enzyme kinetics results, what is the estimated Km?
2 mmol/L
29
A competitive inhibitor binds
at the active site instead of the S.
30
Vmax for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction
is 2x the rate observed when the [S] is equal to Km.
31
The linear (double-reciprocal) graph below shows a case of ________ inhibition.
mixed
32
Feedback inhibition is an example of _______ inhibition.
non-covalent reversible
33
Glutamate carboxylase involved in blood clotting is _______.
vitamin K dependent
34
Which of the following describes the typical feedback inhibition the best?
allosteric
35
Which of the following best defines the term “encephalopathy”?
Disease of the brain
36
What does the term “polyneuropathy” refer to?
A disorder affecting multiple nerves
37
True or False: The combining form “myel/o” can refer to the spinal cord.
True
38
Which one of these describes the dermatome affected most by an L5-S1 disc herniation.
S1
39
The Achilles reflex would be lost in an __ nerve root lesion.
S1
40
Besides entrapment at the intervertebral disc by disc herniation, what other structure may be responsible for the pain syndrome called sciatica?
Entrapment by the piriformis muscle
41
There is an orthopedic test that is well-known to be specific to diagnosis of spinal root involvement and disc herniation. What is it:
Tension test called the Straight Leg Raise (SLR)
42
Do disc herniations always require surgery to reduce them?
No
43
During the history, what symptoms would indicate radiculopathy? Choose all that apply. A. Pain that is unrelieved by rest B. Paresthesia in a cutaneous pattern C. Muscle weakness in a peripheral nerve pattern D. Paresthesia in a dermatomal pattern
A and D
44
What is the significance of the endoneurium in the context of positive axonal repair? Endoneurium acts:
as a guide conduit for the sprouting axons
45
Define Wallerian Degeneration. Choose all that apply. A. A process at the distal stump of a damaged axon, preparing the way for axonal sprouting B. A process organized by Schwann cells following a lesion of an axon. C. A process only occurring in central nervous system axonal damage D. A process involving the breakdown of the proximal stump of a damaged axon
A and B
46
Define transneuronal degeneration.
When one neuron is lost, the neuron ahead or behind in the synaptic chain may also be lost
47
Define axonotmesis.
Axonal disruption of some of the axons in a nerve, without displacement of the endoneurium
48
The axon reaction refers to:
The total effect on the cell body due to the loss of its axon
49
Describe the process of chromatolysis. Choose TWO. A. Dispersal of the Nissl Substance B. Displacement of the nucleus C. Dispersal of the nucleolus D. Dispersal of the rER
A and D
50
Axonal sprouting of PNS axons occurs due to growth factors released from:
Schwann cells
51
What is a neuroma? Choose all that apply. A. Malignant tumor of neurons B. Tissues created in a nerve affected by Neurotmesis. C. Enlarged knot of axonal sprouts and scar tissue D. Incomplete sprouting of axons unable to enter the endoneurial tube
B, C, and D
52
Describe the process of recovery following axonal damage in the CNS. Choose the best single answer.
Neuroplasticity