Molecular and Genetics Flashcards

(19 cards)

1
Q

What are the steps of DNA extraction, what are the different methods, what is one overarching consideration

A

Steps:
- Cell lysis
- Digest the proteins
- Purify the DNA

Method 1: Liquid phase extraction
- Proteinase K is added to sample to remove organic matter and proteins
- Ethanol (removes salts) and isopropropanol (precipitate) is added -> when centrifuged together with the sample this will create a nucleic acid pellet (or DNA bead)
- Can be washed further with ethanol to further purify

Method 2: Solid phase extraction (faster and safer, more commonly used)
- Cell is lysed
- Then either
–> DNA is adsorbed to silica at a specific pH in the presence of specific salts, OR
–> DNA is reversibly bound to magnetic beads coated in anti-DNA-Ab
- No centrifuge = minimisation of shearing forces that may damage the DNA

Consideration = Keep clean and decontaminated (clean area with bleach, change gloves frequently)

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2
Q

How do you evaluate the DNA concentration and quality after DNA extraction

A

Nanodrop UV spectrophotometer is used to determine the nucleic acid to protein ratio to determine the purity (absorb different nM of light)

Gel electrophoresis is used to determine DNA integrity - single band of high molecular weight substance if intact

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3
Q

What are the indications for cytogenetics

A
  1. Diagnosis
    - Clinically urgent cases (PML-RARA)
    - WHO genetically defined entities
    - Demonstrate clonality
  2. Prognosis
    - Entity specific risk stratification
  3. Response to therapy
    - Including clonal evolution or cytogenetic remission
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4
Q

Steps in Karyotype preparation

A
  1. Amount of particles/viscosity determines how much of specimen is used
  2. Two cultures are set up in different incubators just in case there is an issue/to give different mitogenic stimulus
  3. Culture set up is lineage specific but generally always have a 24h and then the 2nd culture (another 24h for ALL vs 96h for plasma cells)
  4. Synchronisation
    - Fluorodeoxyuridine is used to arrest cells in S phase to coordinate them in the same part of the cell cycle
    - Then thymidine is added to release
    - 6-10 hours after release (depends on cell line), cells will approach metaphase
    - Then add mitotic inhibitor like colchicine
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5
Q

Simplified steps of karyotype harvest/dropping

A
  • Add colchicine to stop mitosis
  • Add hypotonic solution to lyse the red cells
  • Add acetic acid to harden wbcs and preserve chromosomes
  • Add Carnoys fixative to preserve the WBCs and centrifuge x3 to firm up the cell membrane (dont want there to be holes as then chromosomes escape)
  • Dilute cell pellet to optimal concentration
  • Wet the slides a few times to help with spread
  • Then drop the cells onto the slide
  • Fix and dry
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6
Q

Karyotype banding

A

G banding with trypsin and giemsa

Trypsin
- Eats away at chromosome to produce light bands (euchromatin)
- Too long = overbanding

Giemsa
- Stains dark areas heterochromatin

Silver staining
- Identifies centromere

Phytohaemaglutinin
- Can be added to peripheral blood chromosomes to stretch the chromatin and produce a higher resolution

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7
Q

Resolution in karyotype

A

Number of bands you see
Typical resolution is ~400 bands
Single chromosome band is ~150 genes
High resolution banding = cells are arrested in prometaphase

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8
Q

How do you determine a clone on karyotype

A

Clone = found in 2 or more metaphases except if it is a loss of a whole chromosome in which case it must be found in 3 or more metaphases

Loss of Y chromosome is only considered clonal in older men if it is seen in >85% of cells

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9
Q

What are the benefits of a karyotype

A
  • Genome wide
  • Best way to identify balanced translocations (where there is no loss of genentic product)
  • Can be used to monitor disease (e.g. additional chromosomal abnormalities as seen in CML disease progression)
  • Cheap and safe to perform
  • Can be used to identify critical disease associated regions on chromosomes (e.g. ch 13 in myeloma)
  • Can identify specific WHO entities
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10
Q

What are the disadvantages of karyotype

A
  • Low resolution, can only detect major structural abnormalities
  • Often needs to be performed in conjunction with another test (FISH, array, NGS)
  • Interpretation is subjective and dependent on operator experience (though note usually 2 people interpreting 1/2 each)
  • Only a small number of cells analysed (20) - very low compared to other methods and low level clones can be missed
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11
Q

Discuss quality checks in karyotyping

A

Add from notes

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12
Q

Discuss FLT-3 ITD wild type and variants

A
  • Mutation in FLT3 gene on chromosome 13
  • Results from internal tandem duplications in exon 14 and 15
  • This causes activation of the FLT3 protein
  • Wild type FLT3 is 329 base pairs
  • If there is an ITD there will be >330 base pairs (3 or a multiple of 3)
  • Generally patient will have the wild type and the variant (however this would be extremely rare as all cells would be leukaemic and the mutation would be homozygous)
  • Different ITD peaks indicate different AML subclones
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13
Q

Discuss the diagnosis of FLT3-ITD

A

PCR capillary electrophoresis
- Samples are run twice (two separate PCR reactions and then both are run twice through CE) = 4x replicates
- Controls: positive control, wild type control, NTC
- Fluorescently labelled PCR primers amplify exon 14 and 15 of the FLT3 gene
- Following PCR capillary electrophoresis is used to separate ssDNA by size
- Fluorescence detection is used to detect the target ssDNA
- Every patient will have one peak for wildtype and then a further peak if they have a mutant with the height of the peak indicating the amount of mutant ITD
- Variant must be present in 2/4 replicates
- Then calculate ratio and mutational burden (see notes)

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14
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of capillary electrophoresis in FLT-3 ITD testing

A

Advantages
- Quick
- Accurate detection of almost all ITD mutations regardless of size (whereas NGS can detect smaller but usually not larger ITDs)
- Generally perform 2-4 replicated thereby having a high standard of quality/confidence

Disadvantages
- Level of detection of 5%
- Can be affected by “Bleed through” and “stutter”
- DNA based assay so quantification is not as sensitive as other assays

Bleed through = if one capillary is heavily positive this can affect samples on either side. But this can be detected by an experienced analyst

Stutter = small peaks occur when there should be no peak - this is from bleed through, poor CE protocol or excessive PCR sample loading

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15
Q

NPM1 mutation in AML (general)

A
  • Account for ~1/3 of adult AML
  • Most cases is due to a net 4 base pair insertion in exon 12 of NPM1
  • 3 most common mutations account for 90% of cases
  • A (75%) = Duplication of preceding 4 bases TCTG
  • B (15%) = Insertion of CATG
  • C (5%) = Insertion of CCTG
  • Associated with a normal karyotype
  • AML defining
  • Morphology: Cup shaped myeloblasts, multi-lineage dysplasia in 25%
  • Prognosis = Favourable. If with FLT3-ITD intermediate.
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16
Q

NPM1 mutation in AML (diagnosis)

A

Screening (determine presence)
- Capillary electrophoresis (cant determine type), OR
- High resolution melt curve analysis, OR
- Myeloid NGS

Subtype determination
- Sanger sequencing, OR
- NGS

MRD
- Reverse transcriptase PCR (either standard RT-qPCR or GeneXpert)

HRM sensitive down to 5%
NGS sensitive down to 1
CE sensitive down to 2%

17
Q

FLT3-TKD mutations (general)

A

Mutations occur in the TKD2 domain
90% of mutations are at the D835 site

18
Q

FLT3-TKD mutations (diagnosis)

A
  • Restriction enzyme (EcoRV) is used to cut the sequence at D835 site
  • Digested length of TKD wild type should be 80bp if unmutated
  • If D835 is mutated the restriction enzyme fails and the expected shorter fragment is not seen
19
Q

Significance of CEBPA mutations

A

Only in frame mutations affecting the basic leucine zipper (bZIP) region of CEBPA (monoallelic or biallelic) have been associated with favourable outcome