monday 14th Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

what length of time determines if its A premature rupture of membranes

A

> 4hr between ROM and contractions = PROM

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2
Q

minimum dilatation for amniotomy

A

2cm

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3
Q

what type of decelrations are bad in labour on CTG

A

late decelerations reduced FHR for 15 beats fro 15 secs

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4
Q

a foetal scalp pH of what would indicate delivery

A

<7.2

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5
Q

after how long in maternal arrest do you deliver baby

A

3 mins

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6
Q

initial mangement in any maternal collapse

A

left tilt

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7
Q

how long does puerperium last

A

6 weeks post partum

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8
Q

the three types of dicharge post birth and how long they last + colour

A

rubra - red -3-4 days
serosa- brown - 4-14
alba- yellow - 10-20

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9
Q

what hormones in hibit milk production

A

progesterone adn oestrogen

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10
Q

how long should someone breastfeed for

A

first 6 months exclusively then add solids +breast for up to 2 years

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11
Q

causes adn treatment of mastitis

A

staph - aureus
continue breast feed plus analgesia
if sys unwell or does not improve for 2 days oral fluclox

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12
Q

where do abscesses unrelated to breast feeding tend to be

A

sub areolar

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13
Q

levels of PPH

A

minor = 500-1L
major > 1L or shock

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14
Q

how to work out someones blood volume

A

100ml per kg

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15
Q

mangement of PPH uterine atony

A
  • ABCDE
  • catheterise
  • bimanual massage
  • syntocin
  • ergometrine
    -carboprost
  • misoprostol
    -TXA ?
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16
Q

surgicla mangement of PPH

A

ballon
b-lynch sutures
artery ligation
hysterectomy

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17
Q

desrcibe degree of perineal tears

A

first - skin only
second - skin and levator ani
third- involving anal spinchter
fourth 0 involving sphincter and rectal mucosa

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18
Q

what level of tears require theatre

A

3rd and 4th

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19
Q

lifestsyle advice for stress incontinence

A

weight loss, smoking cessation, avoid constipation, heavy lifting avoid and reduce caffeine

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20
Q

treatment fo UTI in pregnant women

A

1/2 trimestetr - nitrofurantoin
3- trimepthoprim

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21
Q

role of sertoli cells

A

secrete aeminiferous fluid, androgen globuli, inhibin adn activin

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22
Q

role of leydig cells

A

secrete testpsterone

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23
Q

what pituitary hormone regulates spermatogeneisis

A

FSH

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24
Q

how can diabetes impact fertiliy

A

reduces testosetrone in men

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25
what hormones are high in PCOS
LH and testosterone
26
describe duct system in breast
terminal ductules- intralobular collecting duct - lactiferous duct - lactiferous sinus - nipple
27
what is involved in breast triple assessment
- clinical - imaging eg- mam, us , MRI - biopsy
28
blue doems breast lump with pale fluid
fibrocystic change
29
treatment of kawasaki
high dose aspirin IVIG do an echo
30
complications of kawaski
cornornary artery aneurysm
31
management of duct ectasia
abx stop smoking excise
32
leaf breast tumout
phyloddes
33
what breast cancer can be seen only through screening
intraductal papilloma
34
what is the precursor to Ductal carcinoma in situ
intraductal papilloma
35
what child rash causes spots on uvula and high fever with maculopapular rash
roseola infantum
36
what virus casues roseola
HHV6
37
most common complication of chicekn pox in adults
varicella pneumonia
38
tx for impetigo
1% hydro peroxide
39
diff between lobular carcinoma in situ and atypical lobular hyperplasia
atypical lobular hyperplasia <50% of lobule involved in situ > =50% involved
40
most common type of breast cancer
invasive ductal carcinoma
41
what type of malignant breast cancer is not palpable and seen on mammogram
lobular in situ
42
what type of breast cancer is more common ductal or lobular
ductal
43
what is a DCIS called when it involves the nipple
pagets disease of nipple
44
A DCIS of what size indicates mastectomy over wide local excision
>4cm = mastectomy
45
risk factors for breast cancer
nulliparity early menarche, late meno cocp obestity BRCA/p53
46
examples fo anti oestrogen therapies
tamoxifen aromatase inhibitors - letrozole/anastrozole GnRh analogues - goserelin oophrecetomy
47
side effects of anti-oestrogen therapy in breast cancer
hot flushes VTE Endometrial cancer menstrual disturbances
48
side effects of aromatase inhibiots
osteoporosis hot flushes insomnia
49
What therpay is used after breast cancer wide local excision
radiotherapy
50
anti-oestrogen therapy used in pre and post menopausal women
pre- tamocifen post-aromatse inhibitos (more effective so reserved for these women )
51
what therapy is used in HER2+ve breats cancer and when is it contraindicated
trastuzamab (HERCEPTIN) contra in hx of heart problems
52
is +ve HER2 good or bad
BAD
53
what is the best hormone profile to have in breast cancer
OE+, PR+ HER2-ve
54
what therapy can be done pre-surgery in breast cancer
chemo
55
do breast cancers have incresaed or decresaed vascularity
increased
56
what is USS bad for seeing - breast cancer
DCIS
57
difference between partial and complete mole
partial - 3 sets of DNA - 1 egg, 2 sperm - may have foetus completet - no maternal DNA in egg -no foestu
58
how long post molar pregancy before can get pregnant
12 months
59
risk following molar preg
choriocarcinoma
60
features of threatened misscariiage vs inevitble
threatened - closed os light bleeding inevitable - open os - heavy bleed +clots
61
what is a missed/delayed miscarriage
gestational sac present but no foetus
62
what is classed as recurrent miscarriages
3 or more consec losses - screen for phosph and thrombophilia
63
indications for medical or surgical miscarriage managment over conservative
increased risk of haemorrhage prev traumatic experience eg still birth infection
64
medical management of miscarriage
vaginal misoprostol - see doctor if no bleeding in 24 hrs
65
a b-HCG of what points towards ectopic preg
>1,500
66
indication for surgical management of ectopic
>35mm foetal heart beat pain hcg>5000
67
if b-hecg >1000 but<1500 what management is indicated
medical amangeemnt - mehtotrexate- follow up
68
pneumonia with hyponatraemia + deranged LFT and dx test
legionella - urine antigen test
69
raised antibodies in autoimmune hepatitis
ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels
70
plateelt transfusion thresholds
<30 <100 if significant bleeding
71
how long after acute stroke should AF meds be started
2 weeks
72
ECG changes in hyperkaalemis
tall t , widened QRS , flat p waves
73
most common organism from line infections
staph epidermidis
74
seizure following sleep deprivation
juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
75
first line screening test in those with iron deficient anaemia
anti -ttg