MQB Flashcards
(459 cards)
1
Q
Main source of inflight electrical power?
A
Main Gen
2
Q
How many electrical generators onboard?
A
2
2
Q
Below what voltage will the HDFD shutdown?
A
18V
3
Q
What is the order of priority of electrical supply to the busbars?
A
Main Gen, External Power, Aux Gen
4
Q
Highest electrical load PDMC vs Pitot probes?
A
Pitot Heaters
5
Q
What provides AC power?
A
Generators
6
Q
Where are the inertia switches located?
A
In each mainwheel bay
7
Q
Which of the following are powered from the battery busbar:
- Normal cockpit lights
- DC Starter pump
- Map lights
- ACP
A
Map lights
8
Q
Below what voltage is reversion to BUOXY automatic?
A
20V
9
Q
When batt switches are ON/FRONT, what is the battery busbar connected to?
A
Essential Services bus
10
Q
Power output of main and aux Gens?
A
Main: 25kVA
Aux: 12kVA
11
Q
With batt switches off, do the map lights still work?
A
Yes
12
Q
Two CWS captions still enabled with external power applied and the LP cock closed:
A
FIRE and APU FIRE
13
Q
What powers the CWS
A
Essential Services bus
14
Q
Does pushing the attention getter cancel the flashing in the other cockpit?
A
Yes
15
Q
Is the tone that precedes “HEIGHT”, “LOW HEIGHT”, “PULL UP” and “ALTITUDE” alerts the same?
A
No
16
Q
What does PINS caption indicate?
A
Pin still in seat with canopy LOCKED (operates independently in each cockpit)
17
Q
What switches are required to be made to close the LP fuel cock?
A
At least one LP Cock switch closed, and one Fuel Pump switch off.
18
Q
With C/Line fitted, what does the TRANS/O’RIDE switch do?
A
Removes CL EMP indications, ensures pressurisation to fuselage tank maintaned. (Quiz answer D-All of the above)
19
Q
Why are the tanks pressurised?
A
Reduce vaporisation, and assist fuel transfer
20
Q
The C/LINE tank cannot be jettisoned TRUE/FALSE
A
TRUE i.e. cannot be jettisoned
21
Q
If the FUEL caption comes on with EITHER flaps or LG down, will it stay on?
A
Yes i.e. TRUE
22
Q
With C/LINE fitted & CL showing in the PORT window of EMP, what would a blank STBD window indicate?
A
C/LINE contents signal failure
23
Q
FUEL caption time delay?
A
10sec
24
If you suspect the FADEC has lost control of the engine, which checklist should be actioned?
Abnormal engine behaviour
25
Min RPM for a cold windmill relight?
10%
26
How long should you wait between APU starts?
3 min
27
How many APU starts are allowed before having the fault investigated?
3
28
How long are igniters energised for after relight button is pressed?
30sec
29
EMP data is independent in each cockpit TRUE/FALSE
True
30
Actions on EMP showing corrupt/frozen data?
Press EMP reset
31
Will the standby lane of the EEC automatically take control if the dominant lane fails?
Yes
32
How long should you wait, after setting the throttle to idle during an immediate relight, and before setting the throttle to OFF, for the engine to start?
30sec
33
Above what Nh RPM will the EMP blank?
120%
34
If a self-clearing surge is detected, the FADEC will activate the igniters, causing EMP IGN caption to illuminate TRUE/FALSE
True
35
Does the APU have its own oil system that it's contents can be checked preflight
Yes
36
After confirmed APU fire, how long should you wait prior to ejecting?
Eject immediately
37
What effect does pressing the relight button have on Main Gen if pressed when airborne?
Trips Main gen offline
38
How can a blocked Hyd filter be detected?
Red-edged telltails through fuselage inspection holes
39
Below what Nh RPM is Hyd2 automatically offloaded?
42%
40
What speed is the RAT effective down to?
<105KCAS
41
What side is Hyd2 routed?
Left
42
Which hyd system powers aileron/tailplane PFCU's?
Both Hyd1 and 2
43
What is the purpose of the Hyd accumulators
Instantaneous supply, pressure damping, emergency supply (quiz answer D-all of the above)
44
Does the RAT have it's own accumulator
Yes
45
What does the RAT caption indicate
RAT has deployed
46
How many flying control accumulators are there
2
47
If both Gens are offline, will the yaw damper fail
Yes
48
What is the recommended approach technique if airbrake has failed in the out position
Shallower than normal Straight-In approach and do NOT flare
49
Restriction on flap use if airframe icing visible?
Full flap prohibited
50
What will the airbrake do if it is out when LG is selected down
Auto retract
51
COMBAT illuminated - does this indicate flap position or selection
Selection only
52
Which controls are powered by a PFCU?
Ailerons, rudder, tailplane
53
Trim switch cockpit priority
Rear overrides front
54
Can the brake control valve be damaged if parking brake is applied at the same time as the toe brakes
Yes
55
What does the gear CONFIRM button do?
Transmits 1kHz tone confirming gear locked down, on the radios selected on the front ACP
56
Min wheel speed before Antiskid functions
35kts
57
Max speed with flaps 1/2
250KCAS
58
If gear handle light illuminates when batts are switched on, should you continue or U/S
U/S as it could indicate gear is unlocked, or STBY lowering explosive start valves aren't connected
59
Tailplane feel proportional to G is provided by an inertia weight in addition to the spring feel unit TRUE/FALSE
True
60
If OAT 32degC or greater the APU should be left running TRUE/FALSE
True
61
Does the DEMIST function increase the proportion of air delivered to the canopy demist sprays
Yes
62
Does the gear need to be selected down for the Aux cooling fan to operate
Yes
63
How many separate oxygen supplies are there in each cockpit
3
64
Can the seat penetrate the canopy if the MDC fails
Yes
65
What does the IFF CODES - SINGLE/TWIN switch do?
Sets the number of seats that need to eject prior to erasing IFF codes
66
Oxy pressure felt at the mask is constant to 38,000', then increases linearly with altitude TRUE/FALSE
True
67
What does an amber BUOXY caption indicate
Backup oxy supply is operating correctly after either a manual or auto selection
68
Where does the OBOGS supply come from?
Either HP bleed air from the engine, or LP air from the APU
69
What is the minimum safe ejection height if above 350kts, zero bank and between 5,000 and 10,000'
100'AGL
70
Actions on seeing a flare from the RCO on a hot pass
Go dry
71
20deg Auto recovery G and attitude?
5G to 15deg NU
72
Planned release height for 10deg CCIP?
3,500’
73
Planned release height for 20deg Auto?
5,300'
74
Planned release height as #2 in an echelon 20deg Auto?
6,300'
75
How many BDU's can be carried in each CBLS?
4
76
What QNH should be set when on BADR range
Tabuk local
77
Requirements for "switches safe"
Late arm - Safe
WSR - press
78
When can Late arm-ARM be selected when on BADR
RCO "cleared hot", wings level on attack direction, correct target identified (Quiz answer D-all of the above)
79
Min spacing on BADR?
15sec
80
Low level mission RADALT setting
180'
81
Max degrees of turn allowed before terminating a pop attack during the roll in
90deg
82
If carrying CBLS and operating on RWY06, can the MASS be set to LIVE in front of the sun shelters?
No
83
10deg Strafe/application bombing pattern altitude?
5,400'
84
20deg application pattern altitude?
9,600'
85
Downwind altitude for application pops?
4,000'
86
Off target HDG for lead post a 20/10 split attack at BADR?
130deg
87
BADR pop attack ingress speed
440KCAS
88
Roll in altitude for a 20/10 pop attack on BADR
4,100'
89
Roll in altitude for a 30/20 pop attack on BADR
7,500'
90
How is STT commanded when cursor is over a trackfile
Castle in
91
If 'radar bumped', how long is the previously selected entity rejected for?
5sec
92
What is the HOTAS for dispensing flares only
Throttle dispense switch aft
93
What is the HOTAS for dispensing chaff only
Throttle dispense switch forward
94
What is the HOTAS for dispensing both chaff and flare
Throttle dispense switch in
95
How is radar elevation adjusted?
HOTAS stadiametric ranging control
96
How are SRM's selected
HOTAS A/A weapon select down
97
Alternate airfield visibility requirements?
3k vis OR published minimums +1600m (whichever is higher)
(ETA +/- 1hour)
98
During intercepts, you may enter the hostile’s block if he is outside 10 nm.
True
99
Aircrew who have been sick are grounded until cleared by the flight surgeon TRUE/FALSE
True
100
Minimum crew rest period
12hrs
101
At low level you must avoid towns and built up areas by ____ or climb to ____ by day or _____ by night.
2nm, 2,000'AGL (MSA at night)
102
What is the minimum authorized height for solo aerobatics by a trainee?
8,000'AGL
103
For air combat, the TA is to be a minimum of 5,000'AGL TRUE/FALSE
True
104
HEFOE of clenched fist followed by 2 fingers?
Electrical malfunction
105
How is ESA calculated in mountainous terrain?
+2,000' added to the highest obstacle within 25nm (rounded up to nearest 100')
106
Minimum landing fuel?
130kg
107
Min duration after scuba diving prior to flying
24hrs
108
Can you fly in thunderstorms
Gee let me think
109
Under radar control, with 2 way comms, single seat fighters can perform and log SIMULATED instrument time in VMC TRUE/FALSE
True
110
Can you log ACTUAL instrument time in VMC
No
111
During IFR operation, a suitable alternate airfield must be available TRUE/FALSE
True
112
Ceiling of 1,500', vis 4.5km, are you VFR or IFR
IFR
113
For an alternate to be suitable, what forecast and actual conditions must exist
Ceiling: 1,000', or published IAP+500'
Vis: 3000m, or published IAP+1600m
Both: Whichever is higher
114
Trainee wx minimums to attempt an IAP?
700' ceiling, 5km vis
115
Day VFR airfield wx minimums?
1,500' ceiling
5km vis
116
Trainee MOA (unless specifically cleared by a syllabus)?
500' AGL
117
Moderate bird hazard declared by SOF, and birds observed in the departure lane, formation/solo trainee departures are NOT permitted TRUE/FALSE
True
118
Total comm failure on IMC departure, should you continue with the SID IAW last issued clearance
Yes
119
Min Vis/cloud base before TAC/ILS approach is to be carried out?
5km vis
1,500' AGL
120
Flying the SID from RWY24 to Area 1, you must turn right at 3'500' to intercept the 080deg radial TRUE/FALSE
False
121
Tabuk 100nm MSA
10,000'
122
Tabuk 25nm MSA
6,000'
123
Aircraft may operate VFR or IFR in the Tabuk TMA/CTR TRUE/FALSE
True
124
MSA if operating in Area 1-4
6,300'
125
LL fuel consumption with DI0 and 420KCAS?
21.8kg/min
126
What is the optimum AOA for a normal approach?
5deg
127
Tabuk ILS24 morse ident?
Answer B
128
OWEJ ILS33 morse ident?
Answer D
129
NORDO recovery, steady red light on finals: actions?
Give way to traffic and continue circling
130
Flashing white light from tower after landing: actions?
Return to starting point on airfield
131
The maximum operating level in areas 1-4 between 1800 and 0600 is restricted to below FL260
True
132
At night the maximum number of aircraft in the closed pattern is _____ of which _____ may be solo trainer pilots?
4,2
133
Right intake Nav light colour?
Green
134
Left intake Nav light colour?
Red
135
Normal body balancing mechanisms include:
D-all of the above
136
MAP stands for:
Missed approach point
137
80% of all information is received through which system/organ?
Visual
138
Staring at a stationary light for 6-12sec, what effect will visual autokinesis have on it?
It will appear to move
139
Arcing at 60nm, M0.6, FL200, aiming to intercept the 115deg radial from the north, what is the LR
111deg
140
Flying 0.7M FL200 on 100deg radial, heading 100deg. What range should you begin your turn onto the 80nm arc?
75nm
141
Assisted relight max alt?
20,000'
142
Flaps full, 3/4, or 1/2 G-limits
0 to +2.5G
143
2ship formation T/O and landing xwind limt
15kts
144
Assisted relight can be attempted with a speed 165-250kts and <20,000' TRUE/FALSE
True
145
Max speed/Mach after HYD1 and HYD2 failure
300KCAS/M0.6
146
Max number of turns in a intentional spin
4
147
Max speed and xwind for streaming brakechute
160kts and 25kts xwind
148
Reduced sink-rate landing above what AUW?
5900kg
RoD <624fpm
149
Max combined taxi+wind speed for open canopy
40kts
150
Max airspeed for assisted relight?
250KCAS
151
Is it mandatory to operate the APU with OAT between 18 and 32degC
No
152
Prohibited manouvres
Flick/snap, Stall turns, tailslides
153
If airframe icing visible, landings must be made with 1/2 flap only TRUE/FALSE
True
154
Entry alt for intentional spins
25,000-30,000k' AMSL
155
Max IAS allowed during a spin?
200kts
156
Min height to initiate recovery from a spin?
15,000'AGL
157
Airframe IAS limit between 11,000 and 28,000'
500kts
158
Is intentional spinning permitted with wingtip stores fitted?
No
159
Max Nh RPM before turning batts off on shutdown
10%
160
Deliberate inverted spinning is not permitted TRUE/FALSE
True
161
What captions are illuminated for 10sec following EEC power up?
EEC, SRG, T6NL, (GO)
162
Can combat flap be used for rolling manouvers during aerobatics?
Yes
163
Rapid rolling max G for 360deg at 400kts (basic A/C)
+3G
164
Rapid rolling max G for 180deg at 400kts (AUW between 6200 and 7000kg)
+4.6G
165
Rapid rolling max G for 180deg at 400kts (AUW>6200kg)
+4.6G
166
Immediate Relight max altitude?
None
167
Can you use airbrake after a HYD1 failure?
No
168
After 3 turns in a spin, speed has increased to 170kts. You should immediately recover TRUE/FALSE
False
169
Spinning is permitted with a C/L tank fitted, as long as it is empty TRUE/FALSE
True
170
Flight in icing conditions should be avoided where possible TRUE/FLASE
True..
171
Where is the GPS FOM located?
Top left of MFDs
172
Flashing NAV pressed 4 min after turning INU on - what will happen?
System enters NAV mode
173
HDFD shows AoB up to 60deg, HUD only to 45deg TRUE/FALSE
True
174
Main aircraft system uses most recent hPa setting, irrespective of whether the input source was baro altimeter or DEP TRUE/FALSE
True
175
Head-down Baroalt elevation tolerance with QNH set
+-75'
176
With a valid GPS signal. PP lat/long can be altered before the INU is fully aligned TRUE/FALSE
False
177
Holding pattern speed/AoB
250KCAS , 30deg AoB
178
Outbound radial using 30deg AoB at M0.76, what range should a turn be started to capture the 40DME arc?
34.4nm
179
How can you set both radios to GUARD Rx and Tx
CNI press EMERG so it is red and boxed
180
In ILS steering, the deviation bar shows localiser deviation regardless of CRS bar setting TRUE/FALSE
True
181
Instrument T/O FPA at rotate?
5deg NU
182
VOR stands for..
VHF Omni Directional
183
DEP button presses to enter A/A TAC?
RNAV, MODE (with cursor flashing)
184
DEP button presses to enter a TAC Y channel?
RNAV, enter channel number, MODE (with cursor steady), ENT
185
Which of the Mag variation statements is correct? (variation east, magnetic least)
C
186
Standard instrument descent paramaters?
Power to hold 300KCAS, A/B out, 10deg ND
187
ILS HSI dots indicates how much deviation?
1.25deg per dot
188
TAC HSI dots how much deviation?
4deg per dot
189
Can you enter PP elevation once in NAV mode?
No
190
IMC nose low UA, first priority is to:
Check altitude, if not enough to recover, EJECT
191
Slip ball on HDFD alternate name?
Inclinometer
192
On ejection, when does the SLB2000 beacon activate automatically?
On seat separation
193
To activate the SLB2000 beacon, the function switch must be ON, and activation plug removed TRUE/FALSE
True
194
SLB2000 beacon mode 3 transmission freq in MHz?
406MHz
195
Is the SLB2000 designed for both civilian and military use?
No
196
Max operating time of SLB2000 in Mode 1, when OAT is between -20 and +55degC?
24hrs
197
How long (on average) does it take for the appropriate RCC to be alerted after SLB2000 406MHz transmission is activated?
8-10mins
198
Can the SLB2000 beacon activate during a self test?
No
199
How many modes can the SLB2000 transmit in?
3
200
In mode 2, the SLB2000 transmits in 121.5, 243 and 406MHz TRUE/FALSE
False
201
The two LED's indicate the operation of the SLB2000 TRUE/FALSE
True
202
What is the procedure to turn the SLB2000 off?
Turn the function switch from ON to OFF (two times within 5sec)
203
How many green flashes will be present when homing signals are active and during the time there is no 4-flash pattern present?
1 green flash
204
How long must the function switch be in the off position before a test can be started on the SLB2000?
15sec
205
How many LED lights indicate a self-test is in progress on the SLB2000?
6 green flashes
206
Which CWP captions have duplicate NVIS compatible indicators?
FIRE and APU FIRE
207
Which audio tone within the CWS has the highest priority?
Stall alarm/TCAS
208
How many captions on the CWP should illuminate when you test the CWS?
All
209
What is the trigger for a "Height, height" voice message
Altitude is within 1,000' of the value set on the tone warning height
210
What colour is the NWS CWP caption?
There are two - amber and green
211
Nominal AoA for stall onset tone?
10.5
212
Which green CWP caption is not used?
GO
213
What voice message accompanies an amber STALL caption?
None
214
What is the power rating of the main gen?
25kVa
215
How long should two fully charged batteries support an electrical load (after load shedding and 1 APU start attempt?)
17.5min
216
The VSU de-energises the bus-tie contactor when the Main DC voltage drops below what value, and for how long?
<25V for 1sec
217
Which/what services are supplied by both battery busbars?
LG/flap STBY lowering, IFF, STBY compass/map/emergency cockpit lights
(i.e. D-all of the above)
218
How many batteries are there, and what is their voltage?
2, both 24V
219
Where is the connector for the ground power supply?
Lower left side of the aft fuselage
220
What is the purpose of the inertia switches?
De-energise batt contactor, switch Gens off, erase DTU, cease CSMU recording, initiate IFF emergency transmission (i.e. D-all of the above)
221
How is the main gen's output controlled?
GCU
222
Which avionics are retained during a double generator failure? (HUD, yaw damper, or MFD's)
HUD
223
Lowest voltage indicated on the gauge?
15V
224
How long after a main gen fail before the APU caption should illuminate?
Within 34sec
225
Below what altitude for a guaranteed APU start?
20,000'AMSL
226
What voltage should be seen after start?
26.5-29V
227
What is the output of the generators?
200VAC, 3 phase, 400Hz
228
What is the min voltage before you should deploy STBY gear and flap?
21V
229
What is the min voltage you're checking for pre-start?
23V
230
What is the correct order of fuel transfer?
C/Line - Fuselage - Wing - Collector - negative G compartment (Quiz answer D)
231
How are the fuel tanks pressurised in normal operation?
Engine HP compressor bleed air
232
What should your first action be if a FUEL caption illuminates?
Deselect combat flap
233
With fuel transferring from the C/line, the system automatically keeps the fuselage tank full TRUE/FALSE
True
234
Which pylons can fuel tanks be fitted?
C/Line and inboard
235
What does a TRANS caption indicate?
Fuel transfer air pressure is below normal
236
What triggers an FPR caption?
Low fuel pressure sensed at HP pump, booster pump, OR DC starter pump fault after start.
237
Will the APU run with the LP cock closed?
No
238
What does the APU caption on the EMP indicate?
APU is operating at normal speed
239
At what RPM should the APU shutdown during a normal start sequence?
It doesn't
240
At what T6 does the EMP blank?
>1027degC
241
Below what RPM can you attempt an assisted relight?
20%
242
What is the upper OAT limit for engine start?
50degC
243
Max tailwind for engine start?
15kts
244
How long is the OIL caption delayed to prevent nuisance warnings?
10 +/- 2sec
245
Airborne, above what RPM is the starter motor inhibited if the ENG START switch is actuated?
>20% Nh
246
Max T6 for engine start?
637degC
247
You have a confirmed engine FIRE. What is the maximum length of time you should wait after setting the throttle OFF before ejecting, if the fire is still confirmed?
45sec
248
Red APU caption - min altitude to climb to?
5,000' AGL
249
If Hyd2 fails and the RAT operates correctly, the HYD2 caption will extinguish and the RAT caption will remain on TRUE/FALSE
TRUE
250
What does the HYD2 reset switch do?
Brings HYD2 online after starting/relighting, or initiates RAT retraction if Hyd2 >2000PSI
251
Below what HYD2 pressure will the RAT extend?
1500 +/- 100psi
252
After lowering the LG, you see an unboxed, steady S. What could this mean?
Brake supply over or underpressure
253
How many engine driven Hyd pumps are there?
2
254
How many filters in each Hyd system?
2
255
What is the minimum recommended RPM to stow the RAT, resetting the HYD2 system?
76%
256
Between what pressures should HYD2 cycle when RAT is extended
2400-3000psi
257
Min contents of HYD1?
260 cu in
258
Min contents of HYD2?
250 cu in
259
Brakechute weak link speed?
170kts
260
Anti skid inhibited below what speed?
20kts
261
The rudder is powered by the No 1 hydraulic system. True/false?
True
262
Combat flap auto retract speed?
350 +/- 5 kts
263
Max residual brake pressure in the pre-landing cx?
150psi
264
'Gear not down' conditions?
<160kts, <5,000', <85% Nh
265
The NWS is engaged and disengaged with the same HOTAS button TRUE/FALSE
False
266
How would you retract the LG with WoW?
Pressing EMERG ORIDE then selecting LG up
267
During the external checks, should the red line on the nose undercarriage be above or below the black line?
Above
268
A failure of a brake master cylinder in one cockpit does NOT affect the system in the other cockpit TRUE/FALSE
True
269
There is a nonlinear relationship between pedal input and NWS travel TRUE/FALSE
FALSE
270
Above what RPM will HOOD caption illuminate
81 +/- 2%
271
Approx what altitude does cabin pressurisation begin
5,000'
272
CPR caption trigger altitude
23,650 +/- 410'
273
Range of the cabin altimeter
5 to 50k'
274
Using FLOOD raises the temp of the conditioned air whilst delivering it in the same propertions as DEMIST TRUE/FALSE
TRUE
275
What cabin altitude would you expect at an aircraft altitude of 30000 ft?
16700'
276
Above what G will anti-g system operate?
1.75 - 2.25
277
If auto seat separation fails after ejection, what handle should be pulled?
Right
278
Command eject ejects the rear seater first, and can only be initiated with the rear handle TRUE/FALSE`
True
279
Actions on ejection seat not firing?
Confirm seat pin is removed, re-pull the handle
280
How many safety pins are fitted to each cockpit when it is safe for maintenance?
5
281
Optimum speed range for ejection?
200-250kts
282
Below what altitudes the g-stop inhibited?
7,750' AMSL
283
Where should the quick release connectors on the leg garters be positioned
Inside of legs
284
Red OXFLW caption is inhibited below 10,000' cabin alt TRUE/FALSE
True
285
Aden gun caliber?
30mm
286
IF SEL JETT is selected to COM, what would be jettisoned?
All jettisonable stores except drop tanks and missiles
287
AG mode can be deselected using the AG pushbutton TRUE/FALSE
False
288
Radar's max detect range in ACM modes?
15nm
289
CBLS carriage G limits
-1 to +7G
290
Max number of 30mm rounds that can be loaded?
110
291
Can the Aden be jettisoned
No
292
BDU33 release G limits
0.5 to 5G
293
BDU33 release speed limits
350 to 500KCAS/0.8M
294
Gun WEZ range?
1,000 to 2,500'
295
DBFM objectives?
Defeat hostile's initial shot, deny a further WEZ, separate or go offensive
296
OBFM objectives?
Kill the hostile, maintain the offensive, separate before becoming defensive
297
BFM CZ dimensions?
1,500 to 3,000', 0-45deg TASP
298
MRM TTI boxed indicates what?
Missile is inflight and autonomous
299
FAH restrictions at BADR?
260 +/- 15deg
300
BADR VMC requirements?
Pattern altitude + 1,500' cloud base, 5km vis
301
Unlimited manouvering (above TA) wx requirements?
2,000'/1nm clear of cloud, 8km Vis, visible horizon
302
Emergency jettison of stores requires both armament busbars are to be energised (green A and B on SCIP) TRUE/FLASE?
False
303
6k' BFM perch start spread range
1.7nm
304
Rolling scissor start speed
250KCAS
305
STT indications in the HUD (i.e. TD box)
Solid TD box with diagonal lines from each corner
306
DBFM fundamental skills
Tally
Recognise
React
307
AIM9M 70deg TASP Rmin
6,000'
308
When in lag pursuit, what happens to aspect?
Aspect will decrease
309
SF established on arc workcycle
Height
Speed
Distance
Weapons
310
In ACM, what does 'shooter' mean?
I am offensive
311
4 flares seen from RCO on hot pass, actions?
Go dry, make switches safe and depart the range
312
20deg Dive attack min altitude?
1,000'
313
VTP Wx minimums
3,500'AGL ceiling, 5km vis
314
Solo trainee MOA if cleared by the syllabus?
200'
315
Are maint pers allowed to fly as pax on an FCF?
Yes
316
Pop pattern min spacing?
15sec
317
As number 2 in fingertip in IMC, you lose visual on the inside of a turn. What are your actions?
Reduce power slightly for separation, inform lead & he rolls wings level
318
SOP LL recovery, max allowed altitude prior to departing assigned area?
8,000'
319
Minimum airfield Navaid requirements during IFR ops
Two NAVAIDs (one must be precision)
320
At what OAT does hot weather rules apply?
35degC
321
Non-mountainous area calculation for safe height?
Add 1,000' to highest obstacle (rounded up to nearest 100') within 5nm of your planned course
322
Min T/O interval between elements if RV'ing above cloud?
30sec
323
Brevity for non-safety related ceasing of manouvres
Terminate
324
Wx requirements for restricted manouvering above TA?
2,000' vertical, 1nm horizontal clear of cloud, 5-8km vis
325
Which of the following should be carried on every flight?
FRC's, IFG, $$ & ID card, local area map.
326
Restricted low approach min height?
300'
327
'Low flying' definition altitude
< 5,000' AGL
328
Dual aerobatics min height?
5,000'AGL
329
Min landing distance behind another landing Hawk?
3,000'
330
Dual ACM min height?
5,000'AGL
331
Is a mobile control officer required for all scheduled flying periods?
Yes
332
As #2 during a 2ship IMC recovery, you go blind when wings level. How many degrees and for how long should you turn away for?
15deg for 15sec
333
Max steady wind speed (or frequently gusting) for Hawk day flying?
30kts
334
Min height for an intentional formation low approach?
100'
335
Maximum manouvers below TA? (i.e. None, limited, basic, or unlimited)
Limited
336
RADALT LHW setting for Air Combat missions?
5,000'AGL
337
Alternate airfield ceiling requirements at ETA +/- 1hr?
1,000' or published IAP+500' (whichever is higher)
338
Max endurance at 20,000', DI3.25 and 650kg?
7min / 50 kg (Quiz answer C)
339
Flapless approach speed at AUW 5500kg?
161KCAS (Quiz answer B)
340
DI0, recovering at 20,000', what speed for 95% range?
300 to 285kts (Quiz answer D)
341
DI 3.25, recovering at 10,000', with 1,000kg remaining, how many ANM/100kg should you achieve?
51 (Quiz answer C)
342
How far will you travel climbing from 5,000' to FL250 with 1,500kg fuel at ISA+15degC, DI 7.25?
38nm (Quiz answer A)How long
343
How long will it take to climb from 5,000' to FL300 with 1200kg fuel remaining, at DI0 (ISA conditions)?
5min (Quiz answer C)
344
DI 7.25, how far will you travel in a descent from FL300 to sea level using an Instrument descent profile?
30nm (Quiz answer B)
345
LL fuel consumption at 420KCAS and DI15.25?
27.9 kg/min (Quiz answer C)
346
Wejh VOR or TAC frequency for the 12DME arc?
VOR 113.9 or TAC 86X
347
Min wx required at Wejh to use the ILS DME RWY33 IAP
1,000' ceiling, 3.0km vis
348
Trainee DA to use on the Wejh ILS DME 33?
366' AMSL
349
Circling procedure at Wejh RWY33 minimum ceiling and vis requirement?
850’ Ceiling, 3.6km Vis
350
Radial/DME of the FAF at Wejh ILS/DME33?
146deg, 4.1DME
351
Wejh ILS/DME33 altitude on MAP?
3,000'
352
Ident for ILS/DME33 at Wejh?
IWEJ
353
25nm MSA on the 300deg radial at Wejh?
2,000'
354
Wejh LLZ RWY33, required RoD if GS=140kts?
743fpm
355
TDZE for RWY33 Wejh?
66'
356
Min holding altitude at KIVOB (Wejh ILS/DME33)
1,400'
357
At Wejh, what is the frequency you're required to call at least 15min out?
133.5
358
After passing KIVOB for the Wejh ILS/DME33, can you continue the approach if you get a G/S flag? If so, what is your DA/MDA?
Yes, MDA 480'
359
LLZ approach at WEJH, when do you initiate the MAP?
Upon reaching WEJ VORTAC
360
Wejh TIBA freq?
122.8
361
TIBA stands for?
Traffic Information Broadcast Area
362
Wejh 12DME arc for ILS DME33, what is the lead radial?
R-138deg
363
Position of Wejh from Tabuk?
179deg radial at 128nm
364
Where is the IAF for the Tabuk Hi TAC RWY24?
200 Radial, 10 DME
365
From area 1, what sector entry is required to join the Hi TAC24 holding pattern?
Parallel entry
366
Where is the FAF for the Tabuk Hi TAC RWY24?
062deg radial, 8.0DME
367
What is the MDA for the Tabuk Hi TAC24?
3,000'AMSL
368
What is the ident code for ILS31 at Tabuk?
IPKS
369
What final altitude are you cleared to when conducting the MAP from a Tabuk Hi TAC 06 (not VMC or NORDO)
4,500'AMSL
370
When OED65 is active, aircraft requesting an ILS31 must self position to 10nm final and remain visually clear TRUE/FALSE
True
371
From area 7, what sector entry is required to join the Hi TAC06 holding pattern?
Teardrop entry
372
Trainee's DA for ILS31 at Tabuk?
2839'AMSL
373
Practice circling approaches may only be conducted when the closed pattern is clear of other aircraft TRUE/FALSE
True
374
Formula for RoD on a 3deg glidepath?
(GSx10) /2
375
If PAPI shows 4 reds, are you above or below the ideal glidepath?
Below
376
A relatively wide RWY may give the impression of being (above or below) a normal approach?
Below
377
A relatively narrow RWY may give the impression of being (above or below) a normal approach?
Above
378
Night Flying in area 1 at 40nm, VMC and visual with Tabuk and you become NORDO. Should you follow the Day NORDO recovery procedures
Yes
379
Operating an A/C at night requires a mix of visual and instrument flight procedures TRUE/FALSE
True
380
If within 70deg of the inbound heading, the hold entry is a?
Direct entry
381
Above what alt are VFR flights prohibited?
13,000'AMSL
382
When are the leans most likely to occur?
Following a prolonged turn
383
Unrecognised spatial disorientation MOST often occurs:
During periods of high workload
384
Airspeed is the difference between dynamic and ambient pressure TRUE/FALSE
True
385
Radio failure IFF code?
7700 for 1 minute, then 7600
386
If recognising you have the leans whilst on an IAP, what are your actions?
Re-establish a proper instrument scan using your central focal vision
387
Only inexperienced pilots are susceptible to illusions whilst night flying TRUE/FALSE
False
388
Night flying restrictions, which are true:
- No aeros
- Taxi on c/line
- Carry a torch
- All of the above
All
389
If diversion is held for night ops, aircraft must hold instrument diversion fuel regardless of the forecast wx TRUE/FALSE
True
390
Max groundspeed with wheels in contact?
180kts
391
Max cleared alt?
48,000'
392
Max ground level OAT for Hawk ops?
+50degC
393
G limits for basic aircraft, >0.9M?
0 to +5G
394
Max Mach no for clean A/C between 2,000' and 11,000'?
M0.9
395
G-limits for SCN5, C/Line full, below 500KCAS/0.8M
-3 to +5.5G
396
Max Mach no for clean A/C above 28,000'?
1.2M
397
Turbulence penetration speed?
300-325kts
398
Max T/O AUW at sea level?
8561kg
399
What speed should you trample a cable?
Walking pace
400
Max recommended G when recovering from a high MN dive?
2.5G
401
LG speed limit?
200kts
402
Flaps up to 1/2 speed limit?
250kts
403
Flaps 1/2 to down speed limit?
200kts
404
Basic A/C speed limit at sea level (clean)
575kts
405
Are stall turns allowed?
No
406
Taxiing is only allowed with canopy fully open or closed and locked TRUE/FALSE
True
407
Negative G time limit and restriction
30sec max, then apply positive G for at least as long
408
Time limit for engine at max rating?
No limit
409
Combat flap G limits
-2 to +8
410
What are the ‘g’ limits for an SCN 5 aircraft, centreline empty and KCAS below 500 knots?
+8.0 / -3.0
411
Maximum combined taxi and wind speed with canopy open?
40kts
412
Max alt to attempt a cold windmill relight?
25,000'
413
In a spin, the aircraft is to be abandoned if recovery has not been achieved by:
5,000' AGL
414
Max T6 for relighting
840deg
415
Under what flight conditions can an immediate relight be attempted?
Any flight condition
416
Max T6 for a ground engine start?
637deg
417
Single A/C xwind limit?
30kts
418
Standard instrument climb is 350kts into what MN?
0.76M
419
Max speed you should aim for when flying on HDFD?
250KCAS
420
If both VOR and ILS freq's have been entered via the DEP, which one(s) are identified when VOR/ILS is depressed on the ACP?
Both
421
A segment of blue or brown is always shown on the HDFD regardless of attitude TRUE/FALSE
True
422
Which of the following combinations approximates a rate 1 turn?
250KCA, 30deg AoB (Quiz answer B)
423
Min DH for a precision approach on HUD and HDFD?
Both 200'
424
Precision approach, if the RWY environment is not sighted at DA, a MAP must be carried out TRUE/FALSE
True
425
What equipment does the PROBE HEATER switch control?
Pitot/static, AoA, TOAT, Smart probes (Quiz answer D- all of the above)
426
When correcting arcing range, what is the RoT
Use 5deg for each 0.5nm inside, 10deg for each 0.5nm outside
427
RADALT test, what should HUD baroalt indicate?
1,000 +/- 100'
428
Missed approach should be carried out on a non-precision if?
- RWY landing environment not seen
- Unable to make a safe landing
- Directed by ATC
429
'RAD ALT LOW HT' appears in the HUD whenever the A/C reduces to , or is below the value set in the LHW TRUE/FALSE
True
430
What does the GPWS staple provide?
Indication of the time until recovery is required
431
SOP TCAS range setting?
20nm
432
HDFD power up initialisation time?
180sec
433
How does the TCAS display vertical separation i.e. relative or absolute
Relative in hundreds of ft
434
What type of manouvre will be commanded during a TCAS RA (lateral, vertical, speed or none)
Vertical
435
If the RADALT fails, TCAS RA will be unavailable TRUE/FALSE
True
436
The system will automatically display ILS DME in the HUD when ILS steering is selected TRUE/FALSE
False
437
What yardstick channel is required if the other player is on 104X?
41X
438
What RoD on a NPA to ensure MDA is achieved prior to the MAP?
1,000fpm
439
ILS approach, what RoD required for 3deg, 150kts GS?
750fpm
440
Pushing STD on the HDFD sets the millibar to 1013.25 and displays STD on the baro display TRUE/FALSE
True
441
Amber box around FOM, what does this mean?
Less than 4 satellites being tracked
442
How many activation methods are there for the SLB2000?
3 methods:
1. Manual activation
2. Automatic activation in ACES mode (e.g. Hawk lanyard pulls on man/seat sep).
3. Automatic activation in BA-22 (parachute only) mode, when back riser pulls on tab (not in Hawk).
443
How many LED flashes indicate a battery failure during the self-test of the SLB2000?
1 red flash
444
How many LED red flashes indicate a transmission failure during the self test of the SLB2000?
2 red flashes
445
If mode 3 of the SLB2000 is activated, it is decoded by a ground station or local user terminal designed by EMS sitcom TRUE/FALSE
True
446
In mode 2, the SLB2000 transmits in which freqs?
121.5 and 243MHz
447
On the SLB2000, how many LED red flashes indicate a GPS failure?
3 red flashes
448
In mode 3, the SLB2000 can last for 48hrs transmitting at 406MHz TRUE/FALSE
True
449
What is the indication for a successful self-test of the SLB2000?
3 green flashes
450
When the SLB200 has been turned OFF successfully, the red and green LED's will illuminate for 5-6sec then stop TRUE/FALSE
False
451
In which mode will the SLB2000 transmit on 125.5 and 243MHz only?
Mode 2
452
In SLB2000 Mode 1, 406MHz transmissions are sent for reception by the COSPAS-SARSAT system TRUE/FALSE
True
453
Under optimal conditions the GPS is able to acquire a position fix of an SLB2000 within 60sec TRUE/FALSE
True
454
Max operating time of the SLB2000 in Mode 3?
48hrs
455
What is likely to happen if the vapour relief valve sticks closed?
FUEL caption on above 185kg indicated.
456
BADR range LHW setting?
180’
457
What DA would a Hawk IP use at WEJH ILS Z RWY33?
267’ AMSL
458
At Wejh, what is the frequency you must call at least 15 mins before entering the Wejh ATZ during AFIS operating hours?
Wejh Tower - 118.7
