MSK - Liam Flashcards

1
Q

I band

A

Zone of filament that is not superimposed by thick filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A band

A

Contains entire length of single thick filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

H zone

A

Zone of thick filament not superimposed by thin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Titin

A

Connects Z line to thick filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First line for raynauds phenomenon

A

Calcium channel blockers - nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tendons involved in De Quervains tenosynovitis

A

Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Joints in RA

A

3+ joints

Symettrical

Spares distal IPJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pulled elbow in children cause

A

Subluxation of radial head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osler nodes

A

Painful red raised lesions on hands and feet, due to deposition of immune complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bouchards nodes

A

Hard bony outgrowths on PIPJ

Sign of IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heberdens nodes

A

Chronic swelling of affected joints, leaving permanent bony outgrowths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ganglion

A

Swelling in association with tendon sheath near a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Blood test for SLE

A

Antinuclear antibodys (ANA) positive 99% time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What syndrome is associated with gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common joints in gout

A

70 % with MTP joint

Ankle

Wrist

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Signs of hip fracture

A

Pain

Shortened and externally roated leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Garden system for hip fracture

A

1 - stable fracture with impaction in valgus

2 - complete fracture but not displaced

3 - displaced fracture but still has bony contact

4 - complete bony disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Target for pANCA

A

Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Barlows test

A

For development dysplasia hip

Attempts to dislocated articulated femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ortolani test

A

Test for developmental dysplasia of hip

Attemps to reclocated a disloated femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Typical joints affected by RA

A

MCP, PIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Typical joints affected by OA

A

Large weight bearing joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lift off test

A

Internal roation - subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Scarf test

A

Examines acromioclavicular joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Empty can test
Supraspinatus
26
Hawkins test
Subacromial impingement
27
Neers test
Acromial impingement
28
Marfans syndrome due to problem with what
Fibrillin-1
29
Ehler-Danlos syndrome has increased risk of what serious pathology
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
30
Most common fingers affected by Dupuytrens contracture
Ring and little fingers
31
Smiths fracture
Fracrture of distal radius with anterior displacement of distal fragment
32
Colles fracture
Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement of distal fragment
33
Monteggia fracture
Fracture of proximal third of ulnar with dislocation of proximal head of radius
34
Galeazzi fracture
Fracture of distal third of radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
35
What ligament usually sprained in inversion injuries of ankle
Anterior talofibular ligament
36
What position is leg in with posterior hip dislocation
Internally rotated
37
What position is leg in with anterior hip dislocation
Externally rotated
38
Antibody in Sjorens syndrome
Anti-La
39
Antibody in x-associated vasculitis disease
ANCA
40
Unhappy triad injury
Medial collateral ligament Medial meniscus Anterior cruciate ligament
41
Microbiology of osteomyelitis
Staph aureus
42
Antibiotic for osteomylitis
Flucloxacillin
43
Froments sign
Assesses for ulnar nerve palsy
44
Damange to ulnar nerve
Claw appearance of hand
45
Damage to median nerve
Inability to abduct and oppose thumb
46
Damage to axillary nerve
Deltoid muscle dysfunction, affecting arm abduction
47
Damage to musculocutaneous nerve
Impaired bicep brachi muscle, affecting arm flexion
48
Damage to radial nerve
Paralsysis of extensor muscles, leading to wrist drop
49
Dermatomyositis is associated with what antibody
Anti-Jo-1 antibody
50
Toddlers fracture
Oblique tibial fracture in infants
51
Plastic deformity
Stress on bone resulting in deformity without cortical disruption
52
Greenstick fracture
Unilateral cortical breach only
53
Bucky fracture
Incomplete cortical disruption resulting in periosteal haematoma only
54
Salter-Harris system
1 - thought physis only 2 - physis and metaphysis 3 - physis and epiphysis to include the joint 4 - physis, metaphysis and epiphysis 5 - crush injury
55
WHat is used to assess risk oif osteoporosis
FRAX (estimates 10 year risk) QFracture (estimates 10 year risk)
56
Osteogenesis imperfecta is abnormality in what
Type 1 collagen
57
Main treatment for vasculitides
Immunosuppresion
58
Which of Herberdens and Bouchards is distal and proximal
PIP - Bouchards nodes DIP - Heberdens nodes
59
What antibodyt in JIA
Antinuclear antibody position oligoarthritis
60
What serological marker is more specific for rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-CCP antibodies
61
FIrst line for SLE
Hydroxychloroquine
62
Gustilo classification system
For open fractures 1 - \<1cm 2 - \>1cm, moderate soft tissue damage 3A - extensive soft tissue damage, adaquate periosteal coverage 3B - tissue loss requiring tissue coverage procedure 3C - vascular injury requireing surgery