MTAP Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What is the dilution of the CSF specimen should it appear clear upon reception in the lab?

A

Undiluted

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2
Q

Indirect test for the presence of excess ammonia in the
CSF

A

Glutamine

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3
Q

Which of the following is/are the cause/s of oligoclonal bands in the csf but not in serum?
i. Multiple sclerosis
ii. Lymphoma
iii. HIV
iv. Guillain- barre syndrome

A

I and iv

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4
Q

Which of the following findings is consistent with a subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a traumatic tap?

A

Xanthochromia

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5
Q

In peritoneal injuries, at what RBC value is indicative of blunt trauma injuries?

A

> 100,000/ml

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6
Q

Which of the following are recommended in testing for tubercular peritonitis?

A

Acid-fast stain and adenosine deaminase

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7
Q

Anticoagulant for peritoneal fluid submitted for chemistry test

A

Heparin

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8
Q

Requested when a ruptured bladder or accidental puncture of the bladder during the paracentesis is of concern

A

Bun and Creatinine

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9
Q

Recommended for differentiating exudates and transudates of hepatic origin

A

SAAG

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10
Q

Normal volume of gastric fluid

A

20 to 50 ml

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11
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the nose

A

Levine tube

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12
Q

Basal acid output of a person with pernicious anemia

A

0

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13
Q

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?

A

Z-E syndrome

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14
Q

Normal appearance of gastric fluid

A

Pale gray slightly mucoid

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15
Q

Which crystal causes “pseudogout”?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

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16
Q

What type of cell is a ragocyte?

A

A PMN with inclusions formed by immune
complexes

LE cell - Neutrophil containing characteristic ingested “round body”
Reiter cell - Macrophage with ingested neutrophils
Ragocyte - Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes
Cartilage - Large, multinucleated cells
Rice bodies - Macroscopic ally resembles polished rice, Microscopically show collagen and fibrin
Fat droplets - Refractile intracellular and extracellular globukes, Stain with Sudan dyes

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17
Q

All of the following may be used as diluting fluid for WBC counting in synovial fluid except:

A

Acetic acid

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18
Q

Synovial fluid clarity if there is presence of crystals

A

Milky

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19
Q

Pretreatment for very viscous synovial fluid

A

0.05% hyaluronidase

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20
Q

Which of the following semen analysis results is abnormal?

A

Volume 1.0 mL

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21
Q

Motility grading of 2.0b

A

Slow forward progression noticeable lateral
movement

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22
Q

Using a 1:20 dilution, an average of 20 sperm counted in the five RBC counting squares on both sides of the hemocytometer. What is the total sperm count in a specimen with a volume of 5mL?

A

100,000,000 sperm/ejaculate

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23
Q

In semen analysis, a viscosity grading of 0 means:

A

Watery

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24
Q

Which morphological abnormality of sperm is most often associated with varicocele?

A

Tapering of the head

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25
This is a test performed primarily on a peritoneal lavage fluid
RBC count
26
Subtract 1 CCC for every __ RBC seen in the CSF
700
27
Limulus lysate test detects
Gram-negative endotoxin
28
Detection of which tumor marker in the peritoneal fluid indicates ovarian carcinoma
CA-125
29
Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated
Anaerobically
30
Given the following results, classify this peritoneal fluid: Serum albumin: 3.2 g/dl Serum protein: 6.0 g/dl Fluid albumin: 1.6 g/dl (Subtract serum albumin and fluid albumin, a difference (gradient) of 1.1 or greater suggests a transudate effusion of hepatic origin, and lower gradients are associated with exudative effusions)
Transudate
31
Production of serous fluid is controlled by; a.) capillary osmotic pressure, b.) capillary hydrostatic pressure, c.) capillary conductivity
All of these
32
Debris or pieces of pigmented cartilage in the synovial fluid that resembles grounded pepper
Ochronotic shards
33
Confirms the type of birefringence
Polarizing microscope
34
A significant cell found in pericardial or pleural fluid that should be referred to cytology is a:
Mesothelioma cell
35
Normal synovial fluid glucose should be ___ than the blood value
< 10 mg/dl lower
36
An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or exudate is the
Fluid to serum protein gradient
37
A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is:
Decreased mesothelial cells
38
All of the following are characteristics of malignant cells except
Absence of the nucleolus
39
Negative or weakly positive for Sudan III staining
Pseudochylous effusion
40
Length of the tail
45 um
41
Test for spermine
Barbiero’s test
42
Earliest form of sperm
Spermatogonium
43
Semenalysis after vasectomy shall be done __ to ensure complete absence of sperm
After 2 months and continued until 2 consecutive months shows no sperm
44
Computer-assisted semen analysis provides objective determination of
Sperm trajectory or velocity
45
Produces intrinsic factor
Parietal cells
46
Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF glucose and protein?
Viral meningitis
47
Which organism is the most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?
Group B streptococcus
48
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?
Malignancy TRANSUDATES - due to disruption of balance in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures 1. CHF 2. Nephrotic Syndrome 3. Fluid: Serum protein ratio <0.5 4. Fluid: Serum LD ratio <0.6 EXUDATES - due to conditions directly affecting the cavities. 1. Infections 2. Malignancies 3. Fluid: Serum protein ratio >0.5 4. Fluid: Serum LD ratio >0.6
49
The term effusion refers to:
An increased volume of serous fluid (between membranes (parietal and visceral))
50
Which of the following crystals is the cause of gout?
Uric Acid (MSU)
51
Synovial fluid clarity if there is presence of crystals
Milky (turbidity is frequently associated with the presence of WBCs, however, synovial cell debris and fibrin also produce turbidity. The fluid may appear milky when crystals are present)
52
Tumor marker for lung cancer and breast cancer
CYFRA 21-1 (CYtokeratin FRAgment: lung cancer and breast cancer, urinary bladder cancer) (CEA: colon cancer) (CA125: ovarian/ metastatic uterine cancer) (CA15-3: breast cancer)
53
How to differentiate hemothorax and hemorrhagic exudate?
Run a hematocrit on the pleural fluid
54
At what pH level of pleural fluid is highly indicative of esophageal rupture?
< 6.0
55
Single best test to differentiate chylous effusion from pseudochylous effusion
Triglycerides
56
Normal appearance of pleural fluid
Clear pale yellow
57
Color of living sperm cells on Eosin Nigrosin stain
Bluish-white/ unstained
58
Most common cause of male infertility?
Varicocele
59
Normal value of semen volume
2-5 mL
60
A long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid is closely associated to which type of crystal
Hippuric acid
61
Which of the following disorders frequently occurs following a bacterial infection of the skin or throat?
Acute glomerulonephritis
62
Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?
Nephrotic syndrome
63
A negative blood test and an increase in urine urobilinogen is correlated with:
extravascular hemolytic anemia
64
Constant production of urine with a specific gravity of 1.008 to 1.010 is likely associated with
Renal Tubular Failure
65
Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?
Ammonium Biurate
66
The average renal plasma flow is
600ml/min
67
Which of the following substances may inhibit the reaction of glucose oxidase aside from ascorbate?
Acetoacetic Acid
68
What is the major component of whewellite and weddellite kidney stones?
Calcium Oxalate
69
Which of the following tests is a specific measure of glomerular filtration?
Cystatin C
70
Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?
WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin
71
Which of the following statements about renal diseases is true?
Glomerular renal diseases are usually immune mediated
72
Chronic renal failure usually presents which type of cast?
Waxy Cast
73
Positive result for Guthrie test
Growth of bacteria
74
Primary inorganic component of urine
Chloride
75
Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?
p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
76
The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:
1.010
77
Many particulates, print is blurred
Cloudy
78
>200 ug/min
Clinical albuminuria
79
Which of the following may cause black or brown pigment in urine?
Homogentisic acid
80
It attaches to amorphous urates when the urine is refrigerated
Uroerythrin
81
Which of the following best describes the tests for microalbuminuria?
testing may detect early renal involvement in diabetes mellitus
82
Primary organic component of urine
Urea
83
If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen the:
specimen must be recollected and is falsely elevated
84
In a refractometer, in every 3 deg C above calibration temperature, one should:
none of the choices (it does not require any temperature adjustment)? OR Subtract 0.001? PS: actually di alam sagot nyan yan sabe nila eh sorisori hehe palakasan na lang ng kutob ^_^
85
Which of the following ketone/s is/are not being detected by the conventional reagent strip test for ketones?
B-hydroxybutyric acid
86
Which of the following utilizes a bacteria inhibition test as a screening test
Phenylketonuria
87
Orange diaper syndrome
Lesch-Nyhan disease
88
CTAB test is a screening for
Mucopolysaccharides
89
Disruption of electrical charges that produce the tightly fitting podocyte barrier resulting in massive loss of proteins and lipids
Nephrotic syndrome
90
How much urine sediment shall be used for microscopic examination?
0.02
91
Sweaty feet odor of the urine
Isovaleric acidemia and glutaric acidemia
92
Yellow-brown/ colorless elongated prisms in the urine: I. By-products of benzoate and toluene II. Are soluble in H2O and ether III. Hippuric acid and crystals IV. Are abnormal crystals
I, II, III
93
Expected result of the boiling point should there be an additional 1 mole of solute in the solution?
Raised by 0.52 C
94
True about urothelium: I. Syncytia is seen in catheterization II. Centrally located nucleus III. Derived from the linings of the lower portion of the urethra IV. Eccentrically located nucleus
I and II only
95
Which of the following statement correctly describes formalin: I. Interferes with leukocyte esterase, protein, and glucose. II. Reducing agents III. Interferes with hormonal analysis IV. Excellent sediment preservative
II and IV
96
Which of the following is actively reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle?
Chloride
97
Reported in Rare, Few, Moderate, Many per HPF: I. Trichomonas II. RBCs III. RTE IV. Transitional E.C. V. Normal Crystals
I, IV, V
98
Given the following data, compute for the creatinine clearance: Urine creatinine= 110 mg/dL Plasma creatinine= 1 mg/dL Urine volume in 24 hrs= 1500mL Patient of average body surface area.
115 mL/min
99
Which of the following chemical/s can be used for the exact calibration of a refractometer? I. Glucose II. Distilled water III. 9% sucrose IV. 5% NaCl
II, III, IV
100
Urine Urobilinogen of Bile duct obstruction
Normal