Musculoskeletal Final

Question 1

What is the pathology of sequestration?

Answer 1

periosteal trauma and loss of vascular supply to the outer cortex –> bone dies –> separates from live bone

Question 2

Does hind limb or forelimb have worse prognosis as far as flexor ligament structure injury?

Answer 2

forelimb

Question 3

What happens when the deep digital flexor tendon is cut in horses?

Answer 3

hyperextension of dital interphalangeal joint - toe in the air

Question 4

What is the treatment for DDF tendon repair?

Answer 4

debridement, no sutures, cast, heel extension shoe

Question 5

WHat is the surgical treatement for suspensory apparatus failure in horses?

Answer 5

arthrodesis with bone plates

Question 6

What are CS of extensor tendon lacerations in horse hindlimbs?

Answer 6

inability to flip toe forward, uncontrolled knuckling

Question 7

What is the signalment for dogs with medial patellar luxations?

Answer 7

miniature and toy breeds, females

Question 8

Which direction of patellar luxation is more common?

Answer 8

medial

Question 9

What are the four grades of patellar luxation?

Answer 9

0 - cannot be completely luxated
1 - returns when released
2 - easily luxated, stays luxated
3 - permanantly luxated, manually returned
4 - cant be manually returned

Question 10

What is the goal of tibial tuberosity transposition in patellar lux repair?

Answer 10

realigns extensor mechanism, repositions patella within trochlear groove

Question 11

What is the goal of soft tissue release in patellar lux repair? (medial retinacular release)

Answer 11

cut soft tissues on medial side to release patella back to lateral side

Question 12

What is the goal of imbrication in patellar lux repair?

Answer 12

tighten left side soft tissue to pull patella over

Question 13

What are the prognosis for the different grades for patellar luxation?

Answer 13

good for lux up to grade 3

guarded for grade 4 - multiple sx

Question 14

What animals usually get hematogenous septic arthritis?

Answer 14

neonates/young animals, predominately enterobacteria

Question 15

What is the pathogenesis of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis/septic arthritis cases?

Answer 15

embolism in metaphyseal, subsynovial or epiphyseal capillary loops

Question 16

What is seen on a radiography for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?

Answer 16

moth eaten appearance of bone

Question 17

What bacteria is most commonly found in iatrogenic septic arthritis?

Answer 17

staph aureus

Question 18

What are some consequences of septic arthritis?

Answer 18

aggrecanolysis = softening, fibrosis, contralateral laminitis

Question 19

What is the most important part of treatment of septic arthritis?

Answer 19

early, effective AB coverage

Question 20

What is the difference between OCD and osteochondrosis?

Answer 20

OC - disruption of endochondral ossification

OCD - cartilage flap

Question 21

What is the typical signalment for OCD?

Answer 21

males, rapidly growing large breeds, bilateral

Question 22

What is the area in the shoulder that gets OCD?

Answer 22

caudal aspect of the humeral head

Question 23

What is the area of OCD in the elbow?

Answer 23

distal trochlear ridge of the medial aspect of the humeral condyle

Question 24

What is the area of OCD in the stifle joint?

Answer 24

medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle

Question 25

What is the area of OCD in the hock?

Answer 25

medial trochlear ridge of the talus

Question 26

What are the different prognosis for OCD affected areas?

Answer 26

shoulder - good to excellent elbow - guarded, djd stifle - guarded, djd hock - poor, severe lameness

Question 27

Where is the most likely place for a cow to have lameness?

Answer 27

outside claw of rear foot

Question 28

What infectious agent causes digital dermatitis (heel wart) in cows?

Answer 28

treponema spp

Question 29

What are the 4 developmental abnormalities that make up elbow dysplasia?

Answer 29

Ununited anconeal process (UAP) fragmented medial coronoid process (FMCP) osteochondrosis of medial humeral condyle elbow incongruity

Question 30

What are the three possible mechanisms that lead to elbow dysplasia?

Answer 30

osteochondrosis - defective cartilage trochlear notch dysplasia asynchronous growth

Question 31

What is the signalment and history for elbow dysplasia?

Answer 31

large breeds, pain and lameness before 1 year, bilateral

Question 32

A patient with elbow dysplasia will adduct or abduct elbow while standing up?

Answer 32

adducted

Question 33

WHen is the bony union of the anconeal process to the ulna?

Answer 33

4-5 months (can diagnose UAP by 5 months of age)

Question 34

What breed is exceptionally predisposed to ununited anconeal process?

Answer 34

GSD

Question 35

What view is best to diagnose UAP?

Answer 35

flexed mediolateral view

Question 36

What imaging technique is preferred for fractured medial coronoid process?

Answer 36

CT - more accurate

Question 37

What is the prognosis for elbow dysplasia?

Answer 37

poor to guarded - DJD

Question 38

What happens during panosteoitis?

Answer 38

bone marrow adipose replaced with fibrous tissue, cause not known

Question 39

What bone is panosteitis most common in?

Answer 39

ulna

Question 40

What age is panosteitis seen? Signalment?

Answer 40

5-18 months, giant breeds, males

Question 41

How is panosteitis diagnosed?

Answer 41

radiographs - may need to repeat as lesions lag behind CS | "clouds" in medullary canal, endosteal bone production

Question 42

How is panosteitis treated?

Answer 42

NSAIDs, exercise restriction

Question 43

What bones are affected by retained cartilagenous core?

Answer 43

distal ulna - most common | distal femur - genu valgum

Question 44

What is the signalment for patients with retained cartilagenous core?

Answer 44

great danes, 3-4 months, mild lameness, valgus deviation of carpus

Question 45

What will be seen on radiographs of a retained cartilagenous core?

Answer 45

flame shape to distal ulnar physis

Question 46

What 2 breeds get hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Answer 46

great danes and weimariners

Question 47

What history is associated with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Answer 47

2-8 months old, acute mild lameness, anorexic, FEBRILE, swollen and painful limb, bilateral

Question 48

What is the pathogenesis of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Answer 48

inflammation of physis, removal of bone

Question 49

What is the pathognomonic sign for hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Answer 49

double physis

Question 50

What bones are associated with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Answer 50

all appendicular metaphyseal regions

Question 51

What are the three stages of pathogenesis of perthes' disease?

Answer 51

ischemic (necrosis) --> early repair stage (clefts and fissures) --> advanced repair stage (articular cartilage thickening, femoral head deformed)

Question 52

What is the signalment for perthes disease?

Answer 52

young toy and miniature breeds, 6-7 months, bilateral

Question 53

What is the pathogen that causes foot rot in cattle?

Answer 53

fusobacterium necrophorum (opportunistic, damage to skin)

Question 54

What are the CS of foot rot?

Answer 54

symmetrical swelling of foot, necrotic tissue

Question 55

What amount of lying time per day should cows have?

Answer 55

10-12 hours

Question 56

What vitamin can be used to improve quality of hoof horn in cows?

Answer 56

biotin (vit B7)

Question 57

What are the treatments/prevention for foot rot?

Answer 57

feeding iodine, chlortetracycline

Question 58

What complete fractures of horses are not repairable?

Answer 58

anything above the carpus or tarsus

Question 59

What type of splint should be used for phalanges to distal MC3 in horses?

Answer 59

dorsal splint from toe to just below carpus | kimzey splint - commercial

Question 60

What type of considerations should be taken for a splint from mid MC3 to distal radius for a horse?

Answer 60

must neutralize bending in 2 places, lateral and caudal splint at 90 degrees from ground to elbow

Question 61

What type of considerations should be taken for a splint from mid to proximal radius in a horse?

Answer 61

flexors and extensors become abductors -->long lateral splint extends above shoulder

Question 62

What considerations should be taken for a splint from proximal to elbow in a horse?

Answer 62

no specific splinting except to re establish triceps apparatus (olecranon fx) (caudal splint)

Question 63

What splint should be used for phalanges to distal MT3 in horse?

Answer 63

plantar splint with limb in flexion

Question 64

What splint should be used for mid to proximal Mt3?

Answer 64

caudal and lateral splint (like front leg)

Question 65

What splint should be used for tarsus to tibia in horses?

Answer 65

stablize reciprocal apparatus - long lateral splint

Question 66

How should a horse be placed in a trailer if it has a forelimb fracture?

Answer 66

face backwards (fracture in back of trailer)

Question 67

When are puncture wounds of the foot in horses life threatening?

Answer 67

caudal 1/3 of foot

Question 68

How is clostridial myositis in horses treated?

Answer 68

fenestration + antibiotics

Question 69

What are the steps in hoof trimming of cows?

Answer 69

``` 1 - measure toe length, should be 3 in on dorsal inside claw 2- exceptions (curvature) 3- remove excess sole 4- balance toes 5 - slope sole 6- balance heels 7- corrective trimming ```

Question 70

How thick should sole be at toe of cow?

Answer 70

5-7mm

Question 71

What slope should the sole be on a cow?

Answer 71

30 degrees

Question 72

How long should a block stay on a cows foot?

Answer 72

4-6 weeks

Question 73

What is the treatment for foot rot in cattle?

Answer 73

systemic antibiotics

Question 74

How long does bone healing take in adult horses?

Answer 74

4 months

Question 75

What is the standard plate for repairing long bone fractures in horses??

Answer 75

locking compression plate

Question 76

What type of fractures are external fixators indicated for horses?

Answer 76

breakdown fracture - biaxial fx of sesamoid bones | comminuted fxs of P1 or P2

Question 77

What is the treatment for deep digital sepsis in cows?

Answer 77

arthrodesis - fuse joints with drill

Question 78

On a radiograph, what is indicated of joint sepsis in cows?

Answer 78

seperation of joint

Question 79

What is a CS of a cow with a stifle injury?

Answer 79

short stride, walk on toes, abducted leg, acute followed by chronic DJD

Question 80

What fractures are most common in the distal phalanx of horses?

Answer 80

wings and extensor processes

Question 81

How are distal phalanx fractures treated in horses?

Answer 81

bar shoe application except extensor process fractures (sx)

Question 82

How are non comminuted proximal phalanx fxs treated in horse?

Answer 82

interfragmentary screw compression

Question 83

How are middle phalanx fractures treated in a horse?

Answer 83

pastern arthrodesis

Question 84

What is the most common fracture of the metacarpus in the horse?

Answer 84

lateral condylar fracture

Question 85

How are lateral condylar fractures treated in horses?

Answer 85

interfragmentary screw compression (lag screws)

Question 86

How are distal splint bone fractures treated in horses?

Answer 86

surgical excision

Question 87

What should you rule out if a horse has distal splint bone fracture?

Answer 87

suspensory ligament desmitis

Question 88

What slab fracture is most common in the carpus of the horse?

Answer 88

C3

Question 89

What slab fracture is the most common in the tarsus of the horse?

Answer 89

T3 and T-C

Question 90

How are slab fractures of carpus and tarsus treated in a horse?

Answer 90

internal fixation by lag screw

Question 91

What equine fractures is NOT managed by a lag screw?

Answer 91

extensor process fracture of distal phalanx (TQ)

Question 92

What is sx tx for complete minimally displaced sagittal proximal phalanx fxx in adult horse?

Answer 92

lag screw fixation (TQ)

Question 93

Where is the most common location of a subchondral bone cyst in a horse?

Answer 93

medial femoral condyle (TQ)

Question 94

OCD and subchondral bone cystic lesions are manifestations of what disease?

Answer 94

osteochondrosis