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VM 611 > Neuro Final > Flashcards

Neuro Final Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the most common pathology of muscular dystrophy?

A

absence of dystrophin

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2
Q

What dog breeds get myotonia?

A

chow chows and mini schnauzers

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3
Q

What is the CS for cushings myopathy?

A

unilateral pelvic limb stiffness

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4
Q

What is the pathology of acute canine polyradiculoneuritis?

A

inflammation of peripheral nerve roots after exposure to raccoon antigen

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5
Q

How is acute canine polyradiculoneuritis diagnosed?

A

albuminocytologic dissociation on CSF, biopsy

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6
Q

What breeds most commonly get acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

akitas, newfies, GSD, labs, goldens

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7
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

AcH receptor antibody test

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8
Q

What is the tensilon test?

A

inject edrophonium chloride to test for myasthenia gravis

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9
Q

What long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor can be used to treat myasthenia gravis?

A

pyridostigmine bromide

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10
Q

Term for nerve injury with no damage to axon and the patient recovers in 1-6 weeks.

A

neuropraxia

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11
Q

Term for nerve injury where there is interruption between axon and cell body.

A

Axonotmesis

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12
Q

Term for nerve injury where there is complete severance.

A

Neurotmesis

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13
Q

What are examples of presynaptic nerver junction toxins?

A

tetanus, botulism, tick paralysis

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14
Q

What are examples of postsynaptic nerve junction toxins?

A

snake bites, organophosphates

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15
Q

What 2 diseases lead to neuro signs in snakes?

A

paramyxovirus

inclusion body disease

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16
Q

Loss of fine movements in a bird would indicate what neurological lesion?

A

cerebral

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17
Q

Hypermetric and intention tremors in a bird would indicate what type of neuro lesion?

A

cerebellar

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18
Q

Paralysis or paresis in a bird would indicate what type of neuro lesion?

A

proprioceptive

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19
Q

What are some possibilities for an ataxic african gray parrot?

A

proventricular dilitation dz

organophosphate toxicity

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20
Q

What are the CS of E. caniculi in rabbits?

A

head tilt, seizures, incontinece, peripheral neuropathy

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21
Q

How is E. caniculi diagnosed?

A

antibody titers

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22
Q

What is the treatment for E. caniculi?

A

benzimidazole anthelmintics, anti-inflammatories

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23
Q

Where does type II IVDD usually occur?

A

L7-S1 with lumbosacral stenosis

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24
Q

What are the CS of Type II IVDD?

A

pain, raised tail, myelopathy, possible incontinence

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25
What is the definitive diagnostic tool for degenerative myelopathy?
histopath
26
What is the pathophysiology of degenerative myelopathy?
non inflammatory axonal degeneration (mutation in superoxide dismutase gene)
27
What type of cervical spondylomyelopathy do young giant breed dogs get?
osseous associated compressions
28
What type of cervical spondylomyelopathy do middle aged large breed dogs get?
disc associated compressions
29
What is the most common surgical treatment for atlantoaxial luxation?
ventral transarticular screws -> allows fusion of joint
30
What does hypovitaminosis A cause in cats?
hypertrophic bone formation of vertebrae - ankylosing spondylosis
31
What bacteria is usually involved in discospondylitis?
staph pseudointermedius
32
What type of dogs get steroid responsive arteritis-meningitis?
young large breed dogs, immune mediated disorder
33
What bacteria causes cerebral/spinal abcesses in horses?
salmonella in younger animals | strep equi equi in older animals
34
What is the main clinical sign of cerebral abcesses in horses?
unilateral cortical signs - circling, young horses
35
What are the toxins that cause equine leukoencephalomalacia?
fusarium spp --> fumonison toxin
36
When is WNV most common during the year?
mid summer - fall
37
What seasonality is equine leukoencephalomalacia?
winter
38
What are CS of fumonison toxicity?
often normal, icterus, self inflicted injuries, dementia
39
What breed is cerebellar abiotrophy in horses?
arabians, hereditary
40
What horse breeds are predisposed to wobblers?
thoroughbred, standardbred, quarter horses
41
What age of horses are CS of wobblers usually seen?
6-24 months
42
What are the treatments for wobblers in horses?
ventral fusion, or dorsal laminectomy
43
What organism causes equine protozoal encephalomyelitis?
sarcocystis neurona
44
How could you differentiate equine protozoal encephalomyelitis and wobblers?
EPM is assymetrical!! (TQ)
45
WHat are some parasites that can cause equine parasitic encephalomyelitis?
strongylus vulgaris, setaria, hypoderma, halicephalobus, draschia
46
What is the most common cause of acutely ill cows with bilateral gait abnormailities but normal mentation?
lymphoma - lesion in spinal cord
47
What 2 diseases cause hydrocephalus in cows?
BVD and akabane
48
What deficiency in cows causes increased CSF pressure in calves that causes blindness and then seizures follow?
vitamin A deficiency
49
What kind of cows get cerebellar abiotrophy with BVD?
herefords and shorthorns
50
What are CS of hepaticencephalopathy in horses?
walk incessantly, photosensitization, head pressing
51
What may be the only sign of fumoninsin toxicity in horses?
severe proprioceptive deficits (leg crossing)
52
What are the pathognomonic signs for cerebellar abiotrophy in horses?
intention tremors, severe spasticity, strength preserved
53
What are CS of wobblers?
symmetrical, hind limbs worse | other signs of OCD in MC3, radius
54
At which spinal joint is wobblers lesion most common in horses?
c3-c4 (TQ)
55
What is the most common way of treating cervical vertebral malformation (wobblers)?
ventral fusion - basket
56
What type of cervical vertebral malformation do arabians get?
occipitoatlantoaxial malformation (arabians do not get regular wobblers)
57
What is the source of listeria for cows?
sliage - must be more acidic than 5.5 to inhibit growth
58
What are the CS of listeriosis in cattle?
older than 1 month, unilateral cranial nerve deficits
59
What is the treatment for listeriosis in cattle?
long term antibiotics
60
What is TEME caused by in cattle?
histophilus somni
61
What are the clinical signs of TEME in cattle?
rapid, death within 36 hours, ataxia, weakness, opisthotonos
62
What bacteria causes brain and pituitary abcesses in cattle?
arcanobacterium (trueperella) pyogenes
63
What are CS of brain abscesses in cattle?
asymmetric, vision loss
64
What causes polioencephalomalacia in cattle?
dysfunction of Na-K ATP pump (thiamine deficiency* TQ*)
65
What kind of diet promotes H2S gas in the development of polioencephalomalacia?
grain diets
66
What are CS of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants?
develop rapidly - central blindness, ataxia, strabismus, opisthotonus, convulsions
67
What causes otitis media/interna in cows?
mycoplasma bovis
68
What breed is predisposed to progressive ataxia?
charloais calves - recessive defect
69
What types of cows get spastic syndrome?
adult bulls - hypertonia, hypereflexia, first 12 months of age
70
What is the tx for OP toxicity in ruminants?
atropine
71
What CS are from sciatic nerve paralysis in cows?
toe touching
72
What CS are from femoral nerve damage in calves from dystocias?
atrophy of thigh muscles
73
What are CS from tibial nerve damage in cows?
hock drop but still can stand
74
What are CS from peroneal nerve damage in cows?
knuckling over, similar to tibial
75
What are CS of radial nerve paralysis in cows?
dropped elbow but supports weight (most common)
76
What is NOT a clinical sign of edema disease in pigs?
no fever, no diarrhea
77
Which CSF tap on a horse requires general anesthesia?
atlantooccipital space
78
How is EPM treated in horses?
sulfa/pyrimethamine = folic acid inhibitors | or diclazuril and ponazuril (labeled)
79
What are CS of parasitic encephalomyelitis in horses?
assymetric signs like EPM, xanthochromia, increased inflammatory cells in CSF
80
How is parasitic encephalomyelitis in horses treated?
10x dose of fenbendazole
81
What is the pathology of EHV1?
vascular infarctions of brain/cord, immune mediated vasculitis
82
What are the CS of neurologic EHV1?
acute onset ascending paralysis, sym or asym, paraphimosis, dec sens in perianal area
83
What is the tx for EHV1?
corticosteroids, antibiotics for 2ndary infection
84
What is the cause of equine degenerative myelopathy?
defect in Vit E uptake/metabolism
85
What are the CS of equine degenerative myelopathy?
symmetrical slow progressive neuro signs, warmbloods
86
What is the MOA of tetanus toxin?
blocks presynaptic UMN
87
WHat is a pathognomic sign for tetanus in a horse?
third eyelid flips up
88
How often should horses be vaccinated against tetanus?
every year
89
What is the MOA of botulinum toxins?
blocks LMN AcH release (motor end plate) --> flaccid paralysis
90
What is an early CS of botulism in horses?
dysphagia
91
What diseases are vaccinated against for horses yearly in the spring?
tetanus toxoid, eastern and western encephalitis, influenza and herpesvirus
92
At what months are pregnant mares vaccinated with EHV1?
5, 7, 9
93
At what time should pregnant mares be vaccinated against tetanus, WEE, rabies, and influenza?
4 weeks prior to foaling

VM 611 (16 decks)

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