My Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 domains of public health?

A
Health protection (infectious diseases, chemicals and poisons, pollution, radiation,
emergency response)

Improving services (clinical effectiveness, efficiency, service planning, equity)

Health improvement (lifestyles, family & community, education, employment,
housing, surveillance and monitoring)

Addressing the wider determinants of health (seeing the big picture - making sense
of data)

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2
Q

Define Demography

A

the study of statistics such as births, deaths, income, or the incidence of disease, which illustrate the changing structure of human populations, or the study of the compostion of a particular population

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3
Q

Define Prevalence

A

Proportion of of a population affected, overall burden , affected by incidence and rate of cure/death

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4
Q

Define Incidence

A

How many new cases of something in a year

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5
Q

Define Burden of Disease

A

how something/to what extent does a disease affect your life

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6
Q

What is said to be the main determinant of population health?

A

Income division - the wider the gap, the worse the health of the population is

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7
Q

What is the Gini Coeffeient?

A

a Statistical representation of a nation’s income distribution
The lower the coefficient, the greater the equality
UK has high inequality coefficient compared to Scandinavian countries

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8
Q

What things does social class measure?

A

Occupation
Stratification (ones hierarchical rank in society
Social position
Access to power and resources

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9
Q

What are the 3 main notifiable diseases?

(Diseases you need to report to public health doctors/WHO upon suspicion or diagnosis?

A

Plague
Cholera
Yellow fever

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10
Q

what happens when a country reaches a certain income threshold?

A

When a country reaches a certain income threshold;
Disease stops being due to poverty
Become degenerative disease
Then income has no effect on the health of a nation

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11
Q

Define Disease.

A

technical malfunction or deviation from the norm which is scientifically diagnosed

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12
Q

Define illness

A

the social, lived experience of symptoms and suffering

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13
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

That a large number of people with a small risk of a disease may contribute to more cases of a disease than a small group with an individually larger risk

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14
Q

Give an example of a health promotion campaign

A
Change 4 Life
Stoptober
Promoting screening and immunisations
Cervical smear screening
MMR vaccine
Smoking ban – population approach to secondary prevention
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15
Q

What is primary prevention

A

Prevention of disease who have not been diagnosed as having the disease, includes promoting health

Intent is to reduce/eliminate causative risk factors

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16
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

An intervention implemented after a disease has begun, but before it is symptomatic.

Intent is to identify early and minimise risks

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17
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Intervention implemented after a disease is established

Intent is to stop bad things getting worse

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18
Q

What is the stages in the Nuffield Ladder of intervention?

A

Do nothing (just monitor)
Provide information (so people are informed and educated)
Enable choice (Enable people to change their behaviours)
Guide choice through changing the default
Guide choice through incentives
Guiding choice through disincentives
Restrict choice ( Regulate options available)
eliminate choice

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19
Q

Give an example of an intervnetial method

A
Motivational interviewing 
Social marketing 
Nudge theory – changing the environment to make the healthy option the easiest
Mindspace
Financial incentives
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20
Q

List some reasons why people may be resisitant to change

A
Health beliefs
Situational rationality
Culture variability
Socioeconomic factors
Stress
Age

unrealistic optimism -
Individuals continue to practice health damaging behaviour due to inaccurate perceptions of risk and susceptibility, eg nothings bad has happened with me smoking so far

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21
Q

What is the transtheoretical model of change?

A

Not thinking (pre-contemplation)

Thinking about changing (contemplation)

Preparing to change

Action

Maintenance

Stable changed

lifestyle/relapse

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22
Q

Outline the health belief model of change, by Becker 1974

A
Individuals must believe;
They are susceptible to the condition
It has serious consequences
That taking action reduces their risks
That the benefits of taking action outweigh the costs
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23
Q

name some of the key actors in global health

A
United Nations and their agencies 
(UNICEF/UNAIDS/WHO)
Multilateral Developmental Banks 
(The World Bank/Asian Development Bank)
Bilateral agencies 
(USAID/CIDA/DFID)
Private foundations 
(Rockefeller Foundation/Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation)
Non-governmental organisations 
(Doctors Without Borders/Save The Children
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24
Q

What are the 3 leading causes of death of children in developing countries?

A

Pneumonia
Diarrhoea
Malaria

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25
List some global population trends over the last 80 years.
World’s population is increasing Births per woman; decreasing in less developed countries, remains stable in developed countries World’s fertility is generally decreasing Population is aging, especially in middle class High population of under 15’s
26
Name some Global health issues that can arise as a consequence of climate change
Heatwaves – bacteria friendly environment Sea levels rise New diseases Scarcity of resources
27
What are some health challenges commonly faced in the poorest countries in the world?
``` Underweight/malnutrition Unsafe Sex Unsafe water and sanitation Zinc deficiency Iron deficiency Vitamin A deficiency ```
28
What are some health challenges commonly faced in the richest countries in the world?
``` High blood pressure Alcohol High cholesterol High BMI Low fruit and vegetable intake Physical inactivity ```
29
What 3 things make up the definition of a migrant?
Country of Birth Country of nationality Duration of stay
30
What are some causes of vulnerability that would cause migrants to come to the UK?
Persecution, war, political and social unrest Exploitation, torture, rape, bereavement Burden of disease and socioeconomic status
31
Where/what is Lampedusa? what is its significance?
Italian island Closest European territory to the shores of Libya Primary transit point for immigrants from Africa Deadliest migrant route in the world
32
Give examples of different groups of people that could be defined as migrants
``` Asylum seekers Refugees Economic migrants Trafficked people Migrant workers Family workers Family joiners international students ```
33
Theories of Causation: | What is the Psychosocial theory
Stress results in inability to respond efficiently to body’s demands Impact on BP, cortisol levels, and inflammatory and neuroendocrine markers
34
Theories of Causation: What is the Neo- material theory
More hierarchical societies are less willing to invest in provision of public goods Poorer people have less material goods and of less quality
35
Theories of Causation: What is the life course theory
Combination of both psychosocial and neo-material explanations Critical periods – possess greater impact at certain points in the life course e.g. childhood Accumulation – hazards and their impacts add up Interactions and pathways – sexual abuse in childhood leads to poor partner choice in adulthood
36
Theories of Causation: what is the Proportional Universalism theory
Focusing on the disadvantaged only will not help to reduce inequality Action must be universal Scaled to be intensity proportional to the disadvantaged Fair distribution of wealth
37
Response to health inequalities - outline the work of Ignacz Semmelweis in 1847
Campaigned for hand washing | Found correlation between puerperal fever and dissection
38
Response to health inequalities - outline the work of the Black report in 1980
Material (environmental causes, might be mediated by behaviour) i Artefact (an apparent product of how the inequality is measured) ii Cultural/behavioural (poorer people behave in unhealthy ways) iii Selection (sick people sink socially and economically)
39
Response to health inequalities - outline the work of The Acheson Report (1998)
Income inequality should be reduced | Give high priority to the health of families with children
40
Define opportunity cost
The cost of any decision measured in terms of the next best alternative that had to be sacrificed/forgone in the making of the decision E.g. balancing time and money
41
Opportunity cost; what is the Loewy approach?
Select a few from all treatment options
42
Opportunity cost; what is the Efficiency approach?
; More from the cheapest areas, ignores expensive treatments
43
What is QUALYs? What is it used for?
QUALTIY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS Used in some economic evaluations to measure health Combines length of life and quality of life Allows one to compare interventions that have different types of effects It makes funding decisions easier
44
Define equity
Equity is concerned with the fairness or justice of the distribution of costs and benefits
45
The sick role: what are the 4 components to the sick role?
Pt. exempt from normal social roles Is not responsible for their condition Should try to get well Should seek help and cooperate with medical professionals
46
What makes up the beliefs of the biomedical model of health?
Down to physical and biological factors, so can be repaired Only health professionals can practise it Mind/body Dualism, suggests that they can be treated separately# This privileges use of technological interventions It neglects social and psychological dimensions of disease
47
What makes up the beliefs of the social model of health?
Gives thought to a wide range of factors Focus on prevention Wide range of people can practice it Challenges mind/body dualism
48
What are the 3 theories of health?
Health as an Ideal State Health as a state of social functioning   Health as a personal strength or ability 
49
Theories of health: Outline the Health as an Ideal State theory. What are its problems?
Goal of perfect well-being (WHO definition) Disease, illness, and forms of handicap, along with social problems must be absent in order for health to be present ``` Problems; Is anyone ever healthy? What is complete well-being? Can we ever attain this ideal state? Misleading? ```
50
Theories of health: Outline the Health as a state of social functioning   theory. What are its problems
Health is a means towards social functioning All forms of disease and social handicap need to be removed  Can still be healthy (function socially) even when suffering with a chronic illness/disease  Problems; Very narrow definition seeing health as the opposite of disease Patients normal state may be unhealthy  Refusal of treatment might be seen as healthy 
51
Theories of health: Outline the Health as a personal strength or ability  theory. What are its problems?
focus on how people respond to challenges  Health is a means to a greater end – responding positively to problems Attempts to recover holistic ideas about health  Problems; Vague How can we intervene?   \
52
What are some structural determinants of health?
``` Structural Determinants Genetic Constitutional (age/sex) Culture Lifestyle Social/community networks Living and working conditions ```
53
Determinants of health, what are some lifestyle barriers promoting mortality?
``` Smoking Obesity Sedentary lifestyle Excess alcohol Poor diet ```
54
Smoking: What are the physiological effects of smoking? How many people die a year
Activation of nicotinic ACh receptors in the brain Dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens Stimulant, tolerance, withdrawal 100,000 deaths a year
55
name some diseases associated with smoking
Associated health problems; Cancers, COPD, CHD, stomach ulcers, impotence, oral health, cataracts
56
Give some reasons for smoking
``` Addiction Coping with stress Habit Socialising Fear of weight gain after cessation Pleasure Choice Advertising Peer group/family Signifier of cultural status ```
57
Apple the planned behaviour theory to smoking
Attitude - I do not think smoking is a good thing Subjective norm – most people who are important to me want me to give up Perceived behavioural control - I believe I have the ability to give up Behavioural intention - I intend to give up
58
what was the law passed in 1908 in regards to smoking?
Children Act – Sale prohibited in U16s
59
what was the law passed in 1965 in regards to smoking?
– parliament bans cigarette advertisement on TV
60
what was the law passed in 2007 in regards to smoking?
smoking banned in public places and legal minimum raised to 18
61
What government intervention did the government do in 2016?
Standardised packaging required as of 2016 – ‘plain packaging protects’
62
Give some reasons as why someone would be reclutant to change a habit like smoking
Type A behaviour – hostility, competitiveness, impatience Uncle Norman behaviour – smoked/drank and was obese all his life and died when he was 90, so I can do the same… The last person behaviour – well he was fit and well and died suddenly, what benefit is this to me if he died… Unrealistic optimism – tendency to perceive oneself of being at less risk of disease than other people of same age/sex
63
List some of the social implications of drinking
Violence Rape Depression/anxiety Driving offences
64
How much alcohol is one unit?
A standard unit is 10 mL/8 g of ethanol (% alcohol by volume x amount of liquid in mL)/          1000
65
What are the limits of alcohol consumption for men, women and weekly
Men = 3-4 units a day, 28 units a week (old recommendation) Women = 2-3 units a day, 21 units a week (old recommendation) NEW GUIDELINES SAY 14 UNITS/WEEK FOR MEN AND WOMEN
66
Name a sign of alcohol wihtdrawal
``` Tremors Activation syndrome (agitation, shakes, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure) Seizures Hallucinations Delirium tremens ```
67
How much energy in 1g of of alcohol?
7kcal
68
name one of the 4 questions in the CAGE questionaire for alcohol dependancy.
Ever felt that you should cut down? Been annoyed by people telling you to cut down? Do you feel guilty about how much you drink? Eye opener: ever had a drink first thing in the morning?
69
What is an associated disease with diarrhoea?
Dysentery Typhoid Hepatitis Cholera
70
What would be a risk factor for infection?
- low immunity, low white cell count, imbalance in normal flora, invasive procedures (64% of blood stream infections are directly related to IV devices in situ  )
71
Define reservoir in the context of infection control
where the spread originates, patients, visitors, stuff, fomites
72
What are the 3 types of handwashing?
i Level 1: Routine handwash ii Level 2: Hygienic hand antisepsis iii Level 3: Surgical handscrub
73
Name one of the standard IPC precautions in hospitals
gloves and aprons, hand hygiene • correct sharps manipulation • correct clinical waste and linen handling
74
What does Alcohol gel destroy? What about antimicrobial liquid soap?
Alcohol gel - destroys most transient organisms (MRSA) but does not kill Norovirus or Clostridium difficile ii Antimicrobial Liquid Soap - removes all transient organisms
75
What are some of the challenges of having an increasingly aging population?
Strains on pensions and social security Increasing demands for health care Bigger need for trained health workforce Increasing demand for long term care Pervasive ageism that denies older people the rights and opportunities for other adults
76
What are the causes of an increase in the age of the population?
Improvement in sanitation, housing, nutrition, and medical interventions Life expectancy is rising Substantial falls in fertility Decline in premature mortality More people reaching old age whilst fewer children are born
77
What are the two reasons women tend to live longer than men?
Biological (20%) – premenopausal women are protected from heart disease by hormones Environmental (80%) – men take more lifestyle risks
78
Give an example of extrinsic aging
Extrinsic – dependent on external factors, UV rays, smoking, air pollution
79
List some of the physical changes seen in aging
``` Loss of skin elasticity Loss of hair and hair colouring Decrease in size and weight Loss of joint flexibility Increased susceptibility to illness Decline in learning ability Less efficient memory Affects sight, hearing, taste, smell Visual – need x3 more light, narrowing visual field, worse colour/depth perception Hearing – high frequency loss, poor speech comprehension Taste and smell – 50% loss of taste buds ```
80
What is intrinsic ageing?
A natural, universal, inevitable process.
81
Give 3 consequences of people living longer.
1. Pensions will have higher pay outs than currently planned. 2. Chronic and comorbid conditions will prevail. 3. Rising inequalities as more affluent groups will use health services for longer.
82
List 4 types of dementia.
1. Alzheimer's disease (62%) 2. Vascular dementia (17%) 3. Mixed alzheimer's and vascular (10%) 4. Lewy bodies (6%)
83
What is medicalisation of death?
Death is seen as a failure. There is a curative endeavour to prolong life at any cost. Death as a natural part of life is challenged.
84
What is meant by institutionalising death?
60% of people die in hospital but 70% want to die at home.
85
Glaser & Srauss (1965) did an observational study of interactions between dying people, family and staff – what were the 4 Awareness contexts they identified?
Closed awareness Suspicion awareness Mutual pretence Open awareness
86
Define social death
– when people die in social and interpersonal terms before their biological death; lonely, impersonal death
87
Outline a "good"death
palliative care became a speciality, aiming to de-medicalise death; reaction against impersonal medical deaths
88
outline "death the hospice way"
Open awareness, compassion, honesty Multi-disciplinary teams Emotion and relationships – modelled on a family approach Holistic care
89
What does the Katz ADL scale measure?
``` Bathing Dressing Toilet use Transferring (in/out of beds and chairs) Urine and bowel continence Eating ``` Standard ADLS
90
What does the IADL (instrumental activities of daily living) measure?
``` Use of the telephone Travelling by car or using public transport Food/clothes shopping Meal preparation Housework Medication use Management of money ``` General daily living
91
What does MMSE - Mini Mental state Examination Measure?
Orientation, immediate memory Short term memory Language functioning
92
What does the Barthel ADL index measure
``` Feeding Moving from wheelchair to bed Grooming Transferring to and from toilet Bathing Walking on level surface Stairs Dressing Continence of bowels Continence of bladder ``` (10 items that measure daily functioning)
93
Give the psychological definition of stress
Occurs when demands made upon an individual are greater than their ability to cope
94
state the 2 kinds of stress.
Distress – Negative stress, damaging and harmful | Eustress – Positive stress, beneficial and motivating
95
List the causes of Chronic stress
– health, home, finances, work, family, friends etc.
96
List the causes of acute stress
noise, danger, infections, injuries, hunger etc
97
Give some reasons for workplace stress
Pressure Lack of managerial support Work related violence and bullying 
98
What are some of the physiological signs of stress? | the body's response to the fight or flight model
Lungs - increase O2 uptake Blood flow - increases to muscles, up to 400% Skeletal muscles - tense Spleen - More erythrocytes released Skin – loses blood flow Mouth – drier as saliva and mucus dry up Immune cells – redistributed to where injury might occur
99
Name 3 external stressors.
1. Environment. 2. Work. 3. Social and cultural pressures.
100
What are the 5 signs of stress.
1. Biochemical. 2. Physiological. 3. Behavioural. 4. Cognitive. 5. Emotional.
101
What is the fight of flight model?
An automatic response to external acute stressors. The response elicits physiological changes: hypothalamus, adrenal medulla and cortex are stimulated. Activation and inhibition of organs.
102
Give examples of physical and psychological internal stressors.
- Physical: inflammation, infection. | - Psychological: attitudes, beliefs, personal expectations, worries.
103
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
A concept used to describe the body's short term and long term reactions to stress. There are 3 stages.
104
What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
1. Alarm. 2. Adaptation/resistance. 3. Exhaustion.
105
Describe the alarm stage of GAS.
A threat/stressor is identified. There is a sudden burst of energy.
106
Describe the adaptation/resistance stage of GAS.
The body attempts to adapt or resist the stressor. Defensive countermeasures are engaged.
107
Describe the exhaustion stage of GAS.
Energy is depleted; the body begins to run out of defences.
108
Describe the biochemical signs of stress
– endorphin levels altered, increase in cortisol
109
Describe the Physiological signs of stress
– shallow breathing, raised BP, increased acid production in stomach (and see fight/flight response)
110
Describe the behavioural signs of stress
– increase in absenteeism, smoking, alcohol, changes in eating patterns, sleep disturbances
111
Describe the cognitive signs of stress
negative thoughts, loss of concentration, tension headaches 
112
Describe the emotional signs of stress
tearful, mood swings, irritable, aggressive, bored, apathetic
113
What is the diagnostic criteria for PTSD?
1. The person experienced an event or events that involved actual or threatened death or serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others. 2. The person's response involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror.
114
Give 3 symptoms of PTSD.
1. Recurrent and distressing recollections of the event(s) e.g. in dreams. 2. Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the event. 3. Persistent symptoms of increased arousal (when the brain remains 'on-edge', wary and watchful of further threats) e.g. insomnia, irritability etc.
115
What physical illnesses can be related to stress?
Cancer, CHD, chronic fatigue, infertility/miscarriage, peptic ulcers, IBS.
116
Name some stress mediating factors
social support, beliefs and attitudes, perception, personality, coping strategies, lifestyle, gender
117
Name some Stress management techniques
– CBT, T’ai Chi, yoga, exercise, self help and support
118
What is the WHO Definition of Obesity
Abnormal/excessive fat accumulation Resulting from chronic imbalance between energy intake and expenditure which presents a risk to health State of positive energy balance
119
State some diagnostic measures for obesity
``` MRI Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry Waist circumference Waist to hip ratio Skinfold thickness Body Mass Index (BMI) ```
120
What is a criticism of BMI?
BMI does not measure adiposity or visceral body fat
121
How do you work out BMI?
Weight (KG) / Height^2 (m)
122
What is the range for a normal BMI?
18.5 - 24.9
123
What genetic conditions can be linked to obesity?
1. Prader Willi Syndrome. 2. Mutations of the leptin and melanocortin receptors. 3. Congenital leptin deficiency. (leptin: appetite inhibitor).
124
What aspects of behaviour can be associated with weight gain?
1. Employment: shift work, lack of sleep, reduced physical activity, 'hunger' hormones (cortisol, leptin, ghrelin) affected. 2. Dietary patterns. 3. Reduced physical activity.
125
What developmental factors can affect a child's risk of being obese later in life?
1. Rapid infant weight gain increases the risk of obesity. 2. Breast feeding is shown to decrease the risk of obesity. 3. Premature introduction of solid foods can increase the risk of obesity. 4. Childhood obesity is a large predictor of adult obesity.
126
What is the role of alcohol in over-eating.
- Alcohol stimulates the intake of food, gives almost no satiety. - It is efficiently oxidised. - It adds to the total daily energy intake. - Alcohol is associated with poor food choices.
127
What are the Ranges for BMI
``` <18.4 = underweight 18.5-24.9 = normal 25-29.9 = overweight 30-34.9 = obese class I 35-39.9 = obese class II >40 = obese class III ```
128
State some of the causes of the rise in obesity
Built and obesogenic environment - “Americanisation” of diet and society car culture and commuting = less walking  technical advances that minimise physical work Longer working hours Over consumption (& increasing portion sizes), greater availability of energy dense food Grazing & snacking replaces meal times Replacement of water by sugary drinks
129
``` What is the energy density of... Protein Carbs Fat Alcohol ```
Protein 4.7 kCal/g Carbohydrates 3.6 kCal/g Fat 9.5kCal/g Alcohol 7.0 kCal/g
130
What macronutrient has the best satiety?
Satiating efficiency = proteins > carbs > fats > alcohol So proteins the best, Alcohol is the worst
131
define satiety
a state of noneating, characterized by the absence of hunger, which follows at the end of a meal and arises from the consequences of food ingestion.
132
What is the theory behind reducing the energy density of foods?
- People to tend to keep portion sizes the same regardless of the energy density of the food. - By reducing energy density we can keep the same portion sizes but consume fewer kcal and so keep satiety.
133
What 4 mechanisms can be used to reduce energy density?
1. Incorporation of water or air. 2. Fruits and vegetables. 3. Reducing fat (industry). 4. Method of cooking (no frying).
134
Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of environmental factors?
1. Variety - greater variety can lead to overeating. 2. Portion sizes have increased significantly over the last century. 3. Distractions like watching TV promote food intake. 4. Social facilitation - going out for food with friends etc.
135
Name 3 broad factors that can promote over-eating.
1. Environmental factors. 2. Psychological factors. 3. Food-characteristic factors.
136
Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of psychological factors?
1. Stress often promotes over-eating. 2. Lack of sleep. 3. Dietary disinhibition. 4. Reward sensitivity.
137
Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of food-characteristics factors?
1. Macronutrient composition. 2. Energy density. 3. Liquids v solids.
138
Name 5 qualities of an effective team.
1. Optimal size. 2. A common purpose/goal. 3. Good dynamic. 4. An identified leader. 5. Shared knowledge and experiences.
139
What are the benefits of working in an effective team?
- Improved service delivery. - Improved decision making. - Reduces error.
140
Describe 4 obstacles of working in a team.
1. Organisation - different offices/shifts/rotation posts. 2. Location - ward based/home visits/based elsewhere. 3. Management - different employers/sub-teams. 4. Team members may have other commitments - hard to contact people.
141
Give 3 examples of NHS systems that promote teamwork.
1. Shared case notes. 2. Multi-disciplinary team meetings. 3. Team offices.
142
Give 2 examples of checklists used in the NHS.
1. SBAR checklist - for reporting a case. | 2. Surgical safety checklist.
143
Define error.
Any preventable event that can cause or lead to patient harm.
144
What are the 3 types of human error?
1. Errors of omission. 2. Errors of commission. 3. Errors of negligence.
145
What are errors of omission?
When required action is delayed or not taken.
146
What are errors of commission?
When the wrong action is taken.
147
What are errors of negligence?
When actions or omissions do not meet the standard of an ordinary, skilled person professing.
148
What are the 2 outcomes that medical error can lead to?
1. Adverse event. | 2. Near miss.
149
Define adverse event.
An incident that results in harm to the patient.
150
Define near miss.
An event which has the potential to cause harm but doesn't develop further, thereby avoiding any harm.
151
What are violations?
Deliberate deviations from practices, procedures and standards or rules.
152
Name the 3 types of violation.
1. Routine - cutting corners. 2. Necessary - to get the job done; unavoidable. 3. Optimising - personal gain, selfish.
153
Describe skill based errors.
When performing a routine, well learnt task you may give little attention. If distracted or interrupted this can result in slips of action or memory lapses.
154
Describe rule/knowledge based errors.
- When an incorrect plan or course of action is taken. This can happen in an emergency situation or can be due to a lack of experience. - Mistakes are more likely when tasks are complex. This can be due to inexperience, insufficient information, little support/advice from colleagues etc.
155
Name 5 factors that can affect performance.
1. Fatigue. 2. Illness. 3. Drugs or alcohol. 4. Stress. 5. Distraction.
156
What are the two main approaches to managing errors?
1. Person approach (individual). | 2. System approach (organisation).
157
Managing errors: describe the person approach.
Errors are the product of wayward mental processes e.g. inattention, distraction, negligence. It focuses on the unsafe acts of people on the front-line (nurses, doctors).
158
Managing errors: describe the system approach.
Adverse events are the product of many causal factors, the whole system is to blame (swiss cheese theory)
159
Briefly describe the Swiss cheese theory of errors.
The idea that the interaction between active failures and latent conditions leads to accidents. There are successive layers of defences and safeguards but the 'holes' can still line up and people can slip through the system.
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Name 5 information processing limitations.
1. Automaticity. 2. Cognitive bias. 3. Cognitive interference. 4. Selective attention. 5. Transferring expectations.
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What is negative transfer of expectations?
When a previous experience conflicts with the current situation.
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Define Automaticity
Doing a task without thinking
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Define selective attention
Limited attentional resources, information overload
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Define ethics
A system of moral principles and a branch of philosophy that defines what is good for individuals and society.
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Define morality
concern with distinction between good and evil, right and wrong (universal)
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Outline top down deductive ethical arguments
Top down deductive; where one specific ethical theory is consistently applied to each problem
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Outline bottom up deductive ethical arguments
; using past medical problems to create guides to practice | An approach where theories are considered which best fit one’s own beliefs before applying
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What are the 3 times confidentiality may be broken?
Required by law patient consent Public interest
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outline the basic GMC "duties of a doctor"
Protect and promote the health of patients and the public Provide a good standard of practice and care Recognise and work within the limits of your competence  Work with colleagues in the ways that best serve patients’ interests  Treat patients as individuals and respect their dignity   GMC (2009) – Tomorrow's Doctors; graduates will be able to behave according to ethical and legal principles
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What are the four principles of ethics?
Autonomy Beneficence Non - Maleficence Justice
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Define autonomy
Allowing a patient to make a rational and informed decision if they have capacity, with obligation to respect their decisions The autonomous individual freely acts in concordance with a self chosen plan Decision made intentionally, with understanding, and without controlling influences that determine an individuals actions
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Define Beneficence
Doing the right thing to benefit the other | Balancing risks against benefits
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Define non - maleficence
Preventing harm, reducing harm, and doing no harm | q
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Define justice
Being fair in the distribution of risks and benefits | Need vs. Benefit
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What are Utilitarian ethics?
- An act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences. | - Maximise good and minimise harm.
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What are the main principles of Virtue ethics?
Focuses on the person who is acting; are they expressing good character? - Integrates reason and emotion. - Virtues are acquired. - An action is virtuous only if the person is acting with the genuine intention of doing the right thing.
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What are the challenges/criticisms of Utilitarian ethics?
- Treats minorities unfairly to promote happiness of a majority. - Is it okay to carry out ethically questionable research to maximise the welfare of society? - What is good/better?
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What are the challenges/criticisms of Virtue ethics?
Virtues are culture-specific. - Too broad for practical application. - Kindness and compassion could lead to not telling the harmful truth - lying. - It is not always clear how to resolve a dilemma with virtue ethics.
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What are Deontology ethics?
Inherent morality determines worthiness of actions, without concern for potential consequences "Do unto others as you would be done by" Deon = duty (in Greek)
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What is Kantianism ethics?
Judges the morality of an action based on the actions adherence to rules Obligatory duty Following natural laws and rights Categorical imperatives – set of universal moral premises from which duties are derived (do not lie, do not kill…)
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define screening
Process that sorts out apparently well people who have a disease (or disease precursor) from those who don’t Screening the population is to detect individuals who are more likely to have the disease (in most cases) –aim is preventing disease or early detection to alter course of disease
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Types of screening - define population based screening
Population based - Testing entire population
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Types of screening - define opportunistic screening
– patient seeks help for something else and doctor takes a sample
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Types of screening - define communicable disease screening
screening for analysing/controlling epidemics/pandemics
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Types of screening - define Pre-employment/commercial
screening for occupational health
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Briefly outline the Wilson and Junger criteria for screening test.
The condition must; Be important Recognised latent phase (early catching improves prognosis) Recognised natural history (know how disease progresses) The test must; Be suitable, sensitive, specific, inexpensive Be acceptable The post-screening treatment options must; Be effective Follow agreed policy The organisation and cost must; Include adequate facilities Not be overly expensive to achieve benefit Have ongoing processes for improvements
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Screening: define True positive
patient does have the disease, and screening test was positive
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Screening: define False positive
patient does not have the disease, but screening test was positive
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Screening: define True negative;
patient does not have the disease and screening test was negative
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Screening: define False negative
patient does have the disease and screening test was negative
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Outline some reasons for screening
Prevent suffering Early identification is beneficial Early treatment is cheaper Patient satisfaction tends to be higher
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Outline some reasons against screening
Damage caused by wrong results Adverse effects on healthy people Personal choice is compromised
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Define sensitivity
A test of the probability of a person with the disease obtaining a positive test result Probability of a true positive = Number of true positive results / total number screened = true positives / (true positives + false negatives) A measure of how well a test picks up those with a disease Same logic but opposite to Specificity!
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Define Specificity
Probability of a true negative in screening = Number of true negatives / total number screened = True negatives / (false positives + true negatives) A measure of how well a test recognises those without the disease Same logic but opposite to Sensitivity!
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Define Incidence
Number of new cases per unit time | Expressed as % or per population size (e.g. per 100,000)
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What would increase incidence in a population?
Increased by screening, identifying new cases, and increasing risk factors
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What would decrease incidence in a population?
Decreased by reducing risk factors e.g. primary preventions
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Define prevalence.
Number of existing cases at a particular point in time Expressed as a percentage or per population size (e.g. 100,000) People enter prevalence pool when diagnosed with a condition Only leave the pool if they are cured or die
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Define positive predictive value
The proportion of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease = True positives / (true positives + false positives)
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Define negative predictive value
The proportion of people without the disease who are correctly excluded by the screening test = True negatives / (false negatives + true negatives)
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how would you work out positive predictive vale?
= True positives / (true positives + false positives)
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how would you work out negative predictive vale?
= True positives / (false negatives + true negatives)
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Define selection bias
– people who chose to participate in screening programmes may be different from those who do not
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Define lead time bias
– screening identifies the disease earlier than before and thus gives the impression that survival is prolonged (survival time is unchanged)
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Define length time bias
diseases with longer period of presentation are more likely to be detected by screening than those which are more aggressive
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Define ecological study
a study that uses routinely collected data to show trends and to generate hypotheses
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Define Cross sectional study
divides a population into those with the disease and those without and collects data at a single point in time
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Define Case-control study - retrospective.
matches people with a disease to those without for age, sex, habits, class etc
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Define Cohort study
Observe a larger number of people, over a long period of time and compare incidence between groups that differ in terms of exposure
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Define an analytical study
Observational (vs intervention) analytical of relationships rather than simply descriptive
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Give 3 advantages of an ecological study.
1. Uses routine date and so is quick and cheap. 2. Few ethical issues. 3. Useful for generating hypotheses.
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Give 3 disadvantages of an ecological study.
1. Cannot show causation. 2. Inconsistency in data presentation. 3. Bias - variation in diagnostic criteria.
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Give 4 advantages of a cross-sectional study.
1. Can give rapid insight into events within a population. 2. Few ethical issues. 3. Good for generating hypotheses. 4. Quick and cheap.
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Give 3 disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?
1. Prone to bias. 2. No time reference. 3. Could be reporting medical oddities.
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Give 3 advantages of a case-control study?
1. Quick - results can be obtained quickly (retrospective). 2. Cheap. 3. Usually a small number of people required to produce statistically significant results.
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Give 3 disadvantages of a case-control study?
1. Retrospective date may be unreliable - selective memory. 2. Shows association but not causation. 3. Prone to selection and information bias. 4. Cannot calculate incidence.
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Give 3 advantages of a cohort study?
1. Can calculate incidence and so can find relative and absolute risk. 2. Reduced chance of bias - exposure measured before disease develops. 3. Can distinguish causes from associated factors.
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Give 3 disadvantages of a cohort study? Collect information on a sample (some have exposure, some do not). None should have outcome
1. Expensive - long time and large population. 2. Causation cannot be calculated - control study is needed for this. not suitbale for rare diseases 3. Often difficulties with follow-up.
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Outline/define an RCT
Patients are randomised into groups One group is given an intervention and the other is a control The outcome is measured Randomisation allows confounding features to be equally distributed  Confounding biases are minimalised  They do show causation
220
What are some of the disadvantages of an RCT?
Tend to be large and expensive and show volunteer bias 
221
Outline what a systemic review is
a review of clearly formulated questions that uses symptomatic and explicit methods to identify, select, and critically appraise relevant research Collect and analyse data from studies that are included in the review
222
Outline what a meta analysis is
Statistical methods used to analyse and summarise results of included studies Can be graphically represented in a forest plot
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Define what a type 1 error is
rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
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`Define what a type 2 error is
– failure to reject a null hypothesis when it is false
225
Give examples of some alternative medicine
Acupuncture – inserting needles at specific points, pain relief mostly  Osteopathy – emphasises the physical manipulation of body tissue and bones  Herbal medicine – plants for medical purposes Chiropractic – manipulation of spine, joints, and soft tissue  Homeopathy – simila smimmilibus curentur, homeopathic dilutions in alcohol or distilled water Traditional Chinese medicine – vital energy “qi” circulates through channels “meridians” that have branches connected to organs. No histological or physiological evidence for the concept. Based on pre-scientific culture
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What are the 4 main STIs
Chlamydia – fallopian tube occlusion Gonorrhoea (drug resistant) Syphilis Trichomoniasis
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Give an example of primary prevention of STIs
``` prevention – reducing risk of acquiring Raising awareness Vaccinations (Hep B and HPV) One to one risk reduction discussions Condom use ```
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Give an example of secondary prevention of STIs
``` Easy access to STI/HIV tests and treatments Partner notification Targeted screening Antenatal screening for HIV and syphilis National chlamydia screening programme ```
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Give an example of tertiary prevention of STIs
– reducing morbidity and mortality Anti-retrovirals for HIV Prophylactic antibiotic for PCP Acyclovir for suppression of genital herpes
230
Define compliance
Extent to which behaviour coincides with medical/health advice Professional focused rather than patient focused - assumes doctor knows best Does not look at problems patient’s have in managing their health/illness Essential for treatment, but may still be poor
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Outline some reasons for non - compliance
``` Unintentional : Mis-understanding Problems with treatment Payment Memory ``` Intentional Patient beliefs about their condition or treatment Personal preferences
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Outline what concordance means in medical practise
Negotiation between equals - an agreement to differ and respect for either’s agenda Thinks of patients as equals in care Expected that they will take part in treatment decisions Consultation is now a negotiation between equals
233
Outline inverse care law
People who need the most care are least likely to access it and vice versa
234
Define association
a statistical link between exposure and disease | Many not reflect a cause and effect relationship
235
define causation
a statistical link where a disease is directly caused by the exposure
236
What are the two main types of bias?
Selection bias => problem with study population Information bias => problem with information provided
237
Define observer bias
when variables are reported differently between assessors
238
Define procedure bias
subjects in different arms of the study are treated differently (other than the exposure or intervention)
239
if the median is greater than the mean of the data, what is the data described as
negatively skewed
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if the median of the data is less than the mean, the distribution is said to be what?
is said to be positively skewed.