My Study Guide Flashcards
(158 cards)
1
Q
What is the main purpose of the fire department pumper?
A
To provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams.
2
Q
What are the sources of water for fire apparatus?
A
- Tank
- Hydrant
- Body of water
3
Q
What is the minimum pump capacity for fire apparatus according to NFPA?
A
750 GPM, with increases in 250 GPM increments.
4
Q
What is the typical water tank capacity for fire apparatus?
A
300 gallons.
5
Q
What must a fire pump apparatus be equipped with?
A
- Intake and discharge connections
- Pump controls and gauges
- Various hose sizes and types
6
Q
What are the types of foam used in fire apparatus?
A
- Class A Foam (ordinary combustible)
- Class B Foam (flammable and combustible liquid or gas)
7
Q
What is a Foam Pumper?
A
A fire apparatus equipped with a foam proportioning system for effective foam application.
8
Q
What does CAFS stand for?
A
Compressed Air Foam Systems.
9
Q
What is the capacity of Mobile Water Supply Apparatus according to NFPA 1901?
A
At least a 1000 gallon tank.
10
Q
What are the two main functions of Mobile Water Supply Apparatus?
A
- Mobile shuttle
- Nurse tender (reservoir)
11
Q
What is the typical tank capacity for Wildland Apparatus?
A
Usually 500 gallons or less, some may have up to 1000 gallons.
12
Q
What is the NFPA standard for wildland firefighting apparatus?
A
NFPA 1906.
13
Q
What are the three categories of Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Apparatus?
A
- Major Firefighting Apparatus
- Rapid Intervention
- Combined Agent
14
Q
What is the function of a Quint fire apparatus?
A
To perform five functions: aerial, ground ladders, hose, tank, and pump.
15
Q
What is the maximum capacity of a fire boat’s pump?
A
Up to 50000 GPM.
16
Q
What is the purpose of the Electrical Load Management System?
A
To prevent overload of the vehicle’s electrical generation system.
17
Q
What does the acronym PM stand for in maintenance?
A
Preventive Maintenance.
18
Q
A
19
Q
What must be done if a serious issue is found during an inspection?
A
Immediate action must be taken. Taken OOS and reported according to policy.
20
Q
What is the maximum speed rating for tires based on?
A
The upper limit, not for continuous use at that speed.
21
Q
What must be replaced every 7 years according to NFPA 1911?
A
Tires, regardless of their condition.
22
Q
What is the purpose of brake tests on fire apparatus?
A
To ensure brakes are working properly and to prevent accidents.
23
Q
What is the role of the load sequencer in the Electrical Load Management System?
A
To turn on various lights at intervals to avoid simultaneous startup loads.
24
Q
What should be done during a post-trip inspection?
A
Use the same procedure as the pre-trip inspection.
25
What is the NFPA standard for fire apparatus driver operator qualifications?
NFPA 1002.
26
What is one requirement for candidates to become a Driver Operator?
Successful completion of a Firefighter 1 or equivalent course.
27
What does NFPA 1582 provide guidelines for?
Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments.
28
True or False: Driver Operators must ensure all members onboard the apparatus are seat belted before moving.
True.
29
Fill in the blank: The minimum qualifications for apparatus driver operators are established in ___ Standard.
[NFPA 1002]
30
What is the purpose of NFPA 1500?
Establish fitness for duty through medical evaluations
## Footnote
NFPA 1500 is the Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
31
What does NFPA 1582 provide guidelines for?
Vision and hearing standards for fire department personnel
## Footnote
NFPA 1582 is the Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments.
32
Who establishes the basic requirements for driver licensing in the USA?
The federal DOT
## Footnote
DOT stands for Department of Transportation.
33
What must driver operators (DOs) comply with while driving under non-emergency conditions?
All traffic regulations
## Footnote
This includes federal law, state codes, city ordinances, and NFPA standards.
34
True or False: Fire apparatus driver operators are exempt from all traffic regulations.
False
## Footnote
They are subject to the same regulations as other vehicle operators unless specifically exempt.
35
What is the most common place for a collision to occur?
At an intersection
36
What should a fire apparatus driver operator maintain to reduce collision risk?
Situational awareness
37
What are the seven basic causes of fire apparatus collisions?
* Improper backing
* Reckless driving
* Excessive speed
* Lack of driving skill and experience
* Overloading and misuse
* Mechanical failure
* Driver operator personal readiness
38
What is the recommended speed for driving the apparatus while loading hose?
No greater than 5 mph
39
Fill in the blank: Negligence is usually found when the driver operator has been found guilty of gross violation of standing laws, policies, and _______.
Ordinances
40
What are potential causes of impairment for a driver operator?
* Substance abuse
* Prescription drug use
* Personal issues (e.g., divorce, bankruptcy)
* Illness
* Depression
* Fatigue
41
What is the importance of conducting daily pre-trip inspections?
To minimize mechanical failure and enhance safety
42
What does 'brake fade' refer to?
Overheated brake components losing stopping ability
43
What should be done before shutting down an engine that has experienced a full load?
Allow the engine to cool to normal operating temperature
44
True or False: The driver operator is exempt from legal consequences if driving recklessly.
False
45
What is visual lead time?
The time needed to stop the apparatus to perform an evasive maneuver
46
What is the total stopping distance comprised of?
Driver operator's reaction distance and vehicle's braking distance
47
What are the two common types of skids?
* Acceleration skid
* Locked wheel skid
48
What does NFPA 1901 require for apparatus with a gross vehicle weight rating of 36,000 pounds or greater?
Equipped with an auxiliary braking system
49
What is the most capable auxiliary braking device?
Transmission output retarder and Electromagnetic Retarders
50
What is the effect on audible warning devices when driving over 50 mph in an emergency vehicle?
May outrun the effective range of its audible warning device
Increasing speed by 20mph may reduce audible distance by 250ft
51
What should a driver operator do when approaching intersections with a red light?
Come to a complete stop and proceed with caution
52
What is the importance of using warning devices during an emergency response?
To ensure others can see and hear the emergency vehicle
53
Fill in the blank: Excessive speed may lead to loss of _______ of the apparatus.
Control
54
What should be avoided when driving downhill to prevent engine damage?
Allowing the apparatus to coast or “freewheel” out of gear
55
What is the recommended action when adjusting mirrors?
Use a spotter to identify blind spots
56
What is required for all passengers in the apparatus before it is operated?
Wearing seat belts
57
What is the angle of approach?
Angle formed by level ground and a line from the front tires to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus
58
What is an electromagnetic retarder?
An electromagnetic retarder creates a braking torque at the rear wheels by inhibiting rotor rotation through an electromagnetic field generated by electrical power to coils.
59
How does a transmission output retarder work?
It uses the viscous property of automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline by introducing fluid into the retarder housing.
60
True or False: Snow chains are effective in snow deeper than six inches.
False
61
What is the purpose of driver control differential locks in aerial apparatus?
To improve traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions.
62
What should be done when backing an apparatus?
Use hand signals, preposition lights, and backup cameras, and ensure all equipment is secured.
63
What is the primary function of stability control systems?
To help prevent rollovers and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction.
64
What does electronic stability control do?
Applies brakes independently to steer the vehicle in the direction of the steering input.
65
Fill in the blank: NFPA 1002 provides directions on _______.
[driver operator candidates' evaluation evolutions]
66
What should a written exam for a driver operator include?
* Driving regulations
* Departmental regulations
* Hydraulic calculations
* Operational questions regarding pumping
* Department procedures or guidelines
67
What is the recommended speed for apparatus deploying hose.
5 mph or less. This will deploy hose at 7ft per second. Couplings should be oriented to deploy straight out.
68
What does NFPA 1901 specify about equipment during driving?
Equipment not needed while driving must be secured in brackets or storage cabinets capable of restraining equipment against forces up to 10 times its weight.
69
True or False: High pressure hydraulic fluid at low pressures cannot penetrate skin.
False pressures as low as 100psi can penetrate skin.
70
What is the importance of size up skills when positioning a vehicle?
To ensure the safest and most advantageous use of the apparatus features.
71
When should the driver operator pull the apparatus past the front of a building?
When arriving at an incident where no fire is evident, to allow viewing of three sides of the building.
72
What is the first tactical priority at any incident?
Life safety.
73
What is the purpose of maintaining a collapse zone?
To ensure safety from potential building collapses.
74
What is the recommended positioning for aerial apparatus in relation to the building?
If the building is less than five floors, position the attack pumper closest; if greater than five floors, position the attack pumper outside.
75
What is drafting in firefighting terms?
The process of acquiring water from a static source to transfer it into a pump above the source's level.
76
What does a dry hydrant consist of?
* An intake hose connection
* A pipe extending into the water
* A strainer at the end
77
What should personnel working near bodies of water wear?
A personal flotation device.
78
What is the difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping?
Dual pumping uses one hydrant to supply two pumpers; tandem pumping boosts pressure from one pumper to another.
79
What should be considered during hazardous material incidents?
* Wind speed and direction
* Approach from upwind and uphill
* Identify the material before approaching the scene
80
Fill in the blank: Hazard control zones are intended to limit the number of persons exposed to a _______.
[hazard]
81
What should be done when laying LDH supply hose?
Lay it to the edge of the street to avoid obstruction.
82
What is an anchor point in wildland fire attack?
A natural or man-made barrier that prevents the fire from encircling the apparatus.
83
What information should be obtained regarding wind speed and direction at a hazmat scene?
From the dispatcher or by direct observation.
84
How should an operator approach a hazmat scene?
From upwind and uphill.
85
When should the apparatus be driven directly to the scene?
Until the material involved can be identified.
86
What are Hazard Control Zones?
Systems or barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes intended to limit exposure to hazards.
87
What are the three zones in a major incident?
* Hot Zone
* Warm Zone
* Cold Zone
88
What is the Hot Zone?
The area closest to the release of material.
89
What is the Warm Zone?
The area abutting the hot zone where personnel may enter briefly without special protective clothing.
90
What is the Cold Zone?
The area surrounding the warm zone where all incident support functions are conducted.
91
What must fire department personnel consider regarding railroad tracks?
All railroad tracks are live and it may require one to two miles for a fully loaded train to stop.
92
What is the minimum clear zone that apparatus should maintain from railroad tracks?
At least 30 feet.
93
What is water density measured in?
Pounds per cubic foot.
94
What is the weight of ordinary freshwater for fire protection purposes? Gallon? Cubic Foot?
62.4 pounds per cubic foot or 8.3 pounds per gallon.
95
At what temperature does water convert to steam?
212 degrees Fahrenheit.
96
What is the expansion ratio of steam compared to its original volume?
Approximately 1700 times.
97
What is the effect of water's high surface tension?
It makes it difficult to soak into materials.
98
Water may be reactive to which types of fuels?
* Combustible metals
* Sodium metal
* Triethyl aluminum
99
What defines pressure?
Force per unit area.
100
How is pressure expressed?
In pounds per square foot, pounds per square inch, or kilopascals.
101
What is force a measurement of?
Weight, expressed in pounds or dunes.
102
What is velocity in fluid dynamics?
The speed at which fluid travels through a hose or pipe.
103
What does the first principle of fluid pressure state?
Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.
104
What does the second principle of fluid pressure state?
Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions.
105
What does the third principle of fluid pressure state?
Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions.
106
What does the fourth principle of fluid pressure state?
The pressure of liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.
107
What does the fifth principle of fluid pressure state?
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.
108
What does the sixth principle of fluid pressure state?
The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.
109
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level?
14.7 PSI or 100 kPa.
110
What does a pressure of 1 PSI correspond to in a column of mercury?
About 2.04 inches tall.
111
What is PSIG?
Pounds per square inch gauge.
112
What does PSIA stand for?
Pounds per square inch absolute.
113
What is the definition of vacuum pressure?
Any pressure less than atmospheric pressure.
114
What does head refer to in terms of water supply?
The height of water supply above the discharge orifice.
115
What is the pressure gain per foot increase in elevation?
0.434 PSI.
116
What is normal operating pressure?
Pressure in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands.
117
What is residual pressure?
Pressure at the hydrant while water is flowing.
118
What is flow pressure?
While water is flowing, the forward velocity pressure.
119
What is the altitude's effect on atmospheric pressure?
It drops 0.5 PSI per 1000 ft above sea level.
120
What causes friction loss?
Pressure loss due to friction.
121
What is the first principle of friction loss?
Friction loss varies DIRECTLY with the length of the hose or pipe.
122
What is the second principle of friction loss?
Friction loss varies APPROXIMATELY with the square of the increase in the velocity of flow.
123
What is the third principle of friction loss?
Friction loss varies INVERSELY as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.
124
What is the fourth principle of friction loss?
Friction loss is APPROXIMATELY the SAME regardless of the pressure on the water for a given velocity.
125
What is critical velocity?
The point at which friction loss becomes too great.
126
What can cause high friction loss in hoses?
* Hose length
* Hose diameter
* Sharp bends in hose
127
What is water hammer?
An energy surge caused by suddenly stopping water.
128
What are the three means of moving water?
* Direct pumping system
* Gravity system
* Combination system
129
What is the purpose of water processing or treatment facilities?
To treat water by coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, or addition of chemicals.
130
What are the three basic rates of consumption considered in water distribution design?
* Average daily consumption
* Maximum daily consumption
* Peak hourly consumption
131
What are private water supply systems commonly used for?
* Fire protection
* Sanitary and fire protection purposes
* Fire protection and manufacturing
132
What is the formula for Solid Stream GPM?
GPM = 29.7 x d² x √NP
133
What is the nozzle reaction for a solid stream?
NR = 1.57 x d² x NP
134
What affects the condition of the fire stream as it leaves the nozzle?
* Operating pressure
* Nozzle design and adjustment
* Condition of the nozzle orifice
135
What types of fire streams are produced by fire nozzles?
* Solid stream
* Fog stream
* Broken stream
136
What is a solid stream nozzle?
Produces tight streams with little spray or shower effect.
137
What is the purpose of fog nozzles?
To break water into finely divided particles.
138
What determines the reach of a fog stream?
Its width, size of water particles, wind, and volume of water flowing.
139
What is a constant flow fog nozzle?
Designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure.
140
What are constant flow fog nozzles designed to do?
Flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure.
## Footnote
Operated most commonly at 100 PSI.
141
How do constant flow fog nozzles change their stream pattern?
By rotating the exterior barrel to change pattern settings while maintaining the same space between the deflecting stem and the interior throat of the nozzle.
142
What is the main feature of selectable gallonage nozzles?
Allows selection of flow rate to suit fire operating conditions.
## Footnote
Most often operated at 100 PSI.
143
What must the driver operator know to properly use selectable gallonage nozzles?
The gallonage setting in which the nozzle will be operated.
144
What is an automatic fog nozzle?
A type of variable flow nozzle that changes patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure.
145
How does an automatic fog nozzle maintain pressure?
Uses a spring-activated device that constricts or expands the space between the baffle and the interior throat of the nozzle.
146
What is the maximum operating pressure for high pressure fog nozzles?
Up to 800 PSI.
147
What is a characteristic of the stream produced by high pressure fog nozzles?
Significant forward velocity but relatively low volume of water delivery.
148
What is the maximum flow rate for handline nozzles?
350 gallons per minute.
149
What distinguishes master stream nozzles from handline nozzles?
Capable of water flow in excess of 350 gallons per minute.
150
What are the three basic types of master stream appliances?
* Fixed
* Combination
* Portable
151
What is a fixed master stream appliance commonly called?
Deck guns.
152
What is the purpose of elevated master streams?
May be pre-plumbed and permanently attached to an aerial ladder platform or used as a detachable appliance.
153
What are cellar nozzles sometimes called?
Distributors.
154
What is the function of piercing nozzles?
Used to apply water to voids, attics, or other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams.
155
What is the design of a piercing nozzle?
A three to six foot hollow steel rod with a hardened steel point capable of being driven through various materials.
156
What type of nozzle is designed to suppress fires in chimney flues?
Chimney nozzles.
157
What is nozzle reaction?
The counterforce that pushes back against firefighters operating the hose line when water is discharged from a nozzle.
158
What principle does nozzle reaction illustrate?
Newton's third law of motion: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
