Nausea and vomiting Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Why are antiemetics generally only prescribed when the cause of vomiting is known?

A

Antiemetics may delay diagnosis, especially in children, when the cause of vomiting is unknown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common antihistamines used as antiemetics?

A

Cinnarizine, cyclizine, promethazine hydrochloride, and promethazine teoclate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a key side effect of antihistamines used as antiemetics?

A

Drowsiness and antimuscarinic effects - dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and in some cases, confusion or agitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the action of phenothiazines as antiemetics?

A

They are dopamine antagonists and act by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some potential side effects of phenothiazines?

A

Severe dystonic reactions, especially in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is metoclopramide’s action as an antiemetic?

A

It acts on the gastric smooth muscle, stimulating gastric emptying, and is effective for emesis associated with gastrointestinal and biliary disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is domperidone less likely to cause central side effects?

A

It does not readily cross the blood-brain barrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antiemetic drugs are used for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

A

5HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g., granisetron, ondansetron, palonosetron), dexamethasone, and neurokinin 1-receptor antagonists (e.g., aprepitant, fosaprepitant).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first-line antiemetic treatment for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

A

Cyclizine or promethazine (antihistamines), prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine (phenothiazines), or doxylamine/pyridoxine combination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should be done if first-line antiemetic treatment for pregnancy-induced nausea is ineffective?

A

Switch to a second-line antiemetic such as oral metoclopramide, domperidone, or ondansetron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is oral prednisolone used as an antiemetic in pregnancy?

A

As third-line treatment when second-line antiemetics are ineffective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What condition may require regular antiemetic therapy, intravenous fluid, and nutritional support during pregnancy?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A

A combination of antiemetic drugs from different therapeutic classes, such as 5HT3-receptor antagonists, dexamethasone, droperidol, and haloperidol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drug is licensed to prevent motion sickness?

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the main treatment for acute attacks of Ménière’s disease?

A

Short courses of antihistamines (e.g., cinnarizine, cyclizine, promethazine teoclate) and phenothiazines (e.g., prochlorperazine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of betahistine dihydrochloride in Ménière’s disease?

A

It can reduce the frequency and severity of hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo in recurrent attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common clinical indications for D2 antagonist antiemetics?

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of nausea and vomiting, especially due to reduced gut motility (e.g. opioids, gastroparesis).

18
Q

Name two commonly used D2 receptor antagonist antiemetics.

A

Metoclopramide and domperidone.

19
Q

Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) located, and why is it important?

A

In the medulla, outside the blood-brain barrier; it detects emetogenic substances and is rich in D2 receptors.

20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of D2 receptor antagonists in antiemesis?

A

Block D2 receptors in the CTZ and GI tract, reducing nausea and promoting gastric emptying (stomach contents move to the small intestine).

21
Q

Which D2 antagonist is less likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects and why?

A

Domperidone, because it does not cross the blood–brain barrier.

22
Q

What is a serious extrapyramidal side effect associated with metoclopramide?

A

Acute dystonic reactions, such as oculogyric crisis - a rare, acute dystonic reaction where the eyes involuntarily deviate upwards, often with other dystonic symptoms like neck or tongue movements.

23
Q

What is the typical adult dose for both metoclopramide and domperidone?

A

10 mg up to three times daily.

24
Q

When is the use of D2 antagonist antiemetics contraindicated?

A

In gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation due to their prokinetic action.

25
What interactions should be considered with metoclopramide?
Avoid with antipsychotics (↑EPS risk) and dopaminergic Parkinson’s meds (antagonistic).
26
What should be monitored during prolonged use of D2 antagonists?
Extrapyramidal symptoms, which may be subtle (e.g. falls).
27
What are common indications for H1-receptor antagonist antiemetics?
Prophylaxis and treatment of nausea and vomiting, especially motion sickness and vertigo.
28
Name three commonly used H1 receptor antagonist antiemetics.
Cyclizine, cinnarizine, and promethazine.
29
What receptors do these drugs block to reduce nausea?
Histamine (H1) and muscarinic (acetylcholine) receptors.
30
Which H1 antagonist is preferred due to less sedation?
Cyclizine.
31
Why should these drugs be avoided in hepatic encephalopathy?
Their sedative effects can worsen encephalopathy.
32
In which condition should H1 antagonists be used cautiously due to anticholinergic side effects?
Prostatic hypertrophy – may cause urinary retention.
33
Which over-the-counter antimuscarinic is also effective for motion sickness?
Hyoscine hydrobromide.
34
What interactions should be considered with H1 antiemetics?
Enhanced sedation with opioids/benzodiazepines; worsened anticholinergic effects with ipratropium or tiotropium.
35
What are common indications for phenothiazine antiemetics?
Nausea and vomiting (especially with vertigo, chemotherapy, or radiotherapy); also used as typical antipsychotics.
36
Name two commonly used phenothiazine antiemetics.
Prochlorperazine and chlorpromazine.
37
What is the mechanism of action of phenothiazine antiemetics?
Block dopamine D2 receptors (mainly in CTZ and gut); also weakly block H1 and muscarinic receptors.
38
What serious cardiac adverse effect can phenothiazines cause?
QT-interval prolongation.
39
What should patients be warned about when starting phenothiazine antiemetics?
Risk of drowsiness, dizziness, and movement disorders; avoid driving; seek help if muscle spasms occur.
40
Types of phenothiazines.
Phenothiazines are a class of drugs that include several medications used for various purposes, including antipsychotics, antiemetics, and antihistamines. Some well-known examples include chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, prochlorperazine, perphenazine, promethazine, and thioridazine.
41
Name two commonly used 5-HT3 receptor antagonists.
Ondansetron and granisetron.
42
What are the most common side effects of 5-HT3 receptor antagonists?
Usually well-tolerated, but may cause constipation, diarrhoea, and headaches.