1
Q

What are the meridians of longitude? How are they measured?

A

Lines joining the true (geographic) poles of the earth. They are measured from 0° - 180° east and west of the prime meridian in degrees (°) and seconds (‘)

2
Q

Where is the prime meridian located?

A

Greenwhich, England

3
Q

How many minutes are in a degree? How many seconds are in a minute?

A

There are 60 minutes in a degree and 60 seconds in a minute

4
Q

How is latitude measured?

A

Measured 0° to 90° north and south of the equator

5
Q

Define rhumb line. What are some examples of rhumb lines?

A

A curved line on the earth’s surface which cuts all meridians at the same angle. All parallels of latitude are rhumb lines, as well as meridians, the equator, and great circles

6
Q
A
7
Q

Define great circle

A

A circle on the earth’s surface whose plane passes through the center of the globe and divides it exactly in half

8
Q

Define small circle

A

A circle on the earth’s surface that does not pass through the center of the globe

9
Q

What kind of circles are meridians and the equator?

A

Semi and complete great circle, respectively

10
Q

Define isogonal lines. How are they numbered and represented on charts?

A

Lines (not straight) drawn on the map which join areas of equal variation. They are numbered east and west and represented on charts by dashed lines.

11
Q

What are agonic lines?

A

Places on the earth where the true and magnetic north are aligned

12
Q

What are the characteristics of the mercator projection?

A

Meridians are straight and parallel lines

Parallels of latitude are straight and parallel lines

A straight line drawn between any two points on the chart will represent a rhumb line

No constant scale of distance

Areas are greatly exaggerated in high altitudes

13
Q

What kind of projection is this?

A

Mercator

14
Q

What projection is this?

A

Transverse mercator

15
Q

Describe the characteristics of the transverse mercator projection

A

Point of Tangency is a meridian of longitude rather than the equator

Chart is more accurate along the selected meridian

Accurate in depicting scale, especially on charts covering a relatively small geographical area

Any of the 360 meridians of longitude can be selected as the point of tangency for the chart projection

16
Q

Describe the characterstics of the lambert conformal projection

A

Meridians are curves or straight lines converging towards the poles

Parallels of latitude are curves which concave towards the nearest pole

The scale of distance is uniform throughout

A straight line drawn between two points can be assumed to be a great circle

17
Q

What kind of projection is this?

A

Lambert conformal

18
Q

Which projection is used by VNC? What is the scale?

A

Lambert conformal conic

1:500,000

19
Q

Describe the difference between a chart and a map

A

Chart: represantation in miniature and on a flat surface, a portion of the earth’s surface. emphasis is places on conformity of topography and geographical features

Map: geared towards item of interest. low conformal accuracy

20
Q

What projection is used for VTAs? What is the scale?

A

Tramsverse mercator

1:250,000

21
Q

Describe low enroute charts (LO)

A

Up to 18,000 feet

Do not portray cities or topographical features; only navigation aids, airways, and communication frequences

Scale is not constant & dependent on chart

22
Q

Describe the 24 hour system in longitude

A
23
Q

What is 12:00 (noon) UTC in NST, AST, EST, CST, MST, and PST?

A
24
Q

If Greenwhich is 160° W of your position, how do you calculate the LCT of your position?

A

Add 10 hours 40 minutes (160 x 4 = 640mins) to GMT

25
Q

If Greenwhich is 72° of your position, how do you calculate your LCT?

A

Subtract 4 hours 48 minutes (72 x 4 = 288mins) from GMT

26
Q

Define indicated airspeed and true airspeed

A

Indicated airspeed: the airplane’s speed as indicated by the airspeed indicator

True airspeed: speed of the airplane relative to the air. calibrated for density and temperature

27
Q

Define groundspeed

A

Speed of the airplane relative to the ground

28
Q

A

Heading: the angle between the longitudinal axis of an airplane at any moment and a meridian

Track (intended): the direction an airplane intends to travel over the ground

29
Q

A

The actual path traveled by the airplane over the ground

30
Q

Define drift

A

Wind blowing from either side of an airplane will cause the airplane to drift away from its intended track

31
Q

Describe heading, TAS, track, GS, windspeed, and direction using the triangle of velocity

A
32
Q

When is a GFA issued? When it is valid?

A

00Z, 06Z, 12Z, 18Z at 30 minutes before period. Valid 12 hours with IFR outlook for next 12 hours

33
Q

What does a GFA show? To what height are cloud heights reported?

A

Shows a general statement of weather conditions to be expected over a particular region. Cloud heights are reported up to 24,000 feet ASL

34
Q

When are TAFs issued? When are they valid?

A

Issued for 06Z, 12Z, 18Z, and 00Z (08Z, 14Z, 20Z and 02Z) at 20 minutes before each period. Valid 12 or 24 hours

35
Q

What does the TAF show?

A

Weather expected to affect landing and take off at the aerodrome. Reports wind, low level wind shear, prevailing visibility, significant weather, and sky conditions for area within 5 nm

36
Q

What information can be reported in a METAR or SPECI?

A

Wind gusts and visibility, present weather, obscured sky, dewpoint setting, recent weather, runway visual range, sky condition, temperature, wind shear

37
Q

What does the Upper Winds and Temperature (FD) report and how often?

A

Estimate of upper wind conditions and temperatures at 3000 foot intervals. Observations are taken at 00Z and 12Z

38
Q

Which report is the best source for calculations of GS, Hdg, CAS, DA, etc?

A

Upper Winds and Temperature

39
Q

Describe the cruising altitudes in Southern Domestic Airspace

A
40
Q
A
41
Q

What do the three different scales on the E6B calculator indicate?

A

Outer (A) scale: distance, gallons, true airspeed

Middle (B) scale: time, calibrated airspeed, pressure altitude, speed index

Inner (C) scale: time in hours

42
Q

Without using a E6B, what is the density altitude at Ottawa? A30.02”, temp=39°

A

2874’

43
Q

What does the airspeed correction table show?

A
44
Q
A
45
Q

Explain how to calculate your ETA

A

Choose an engine speed

Find corresponding true airspeed

Convert to groundspeed taking wind into account

Calculate time require to fly the distance of the leg

46
Q

What is considered when calculating the fuel required for a flight?

A

Time enroute, fuel rate at chosen RPM, fuel burn over the time enroute

47
Q

At what percentage power is normal cruising done?

A

65% - 75% power

48
Q

How is RPM chosen?

A

Fly a constant % of horsepower with a constant fuel burn

The power setting (RPM) to maintain this % of HP will change with altitude

Conversely, we can elect to fly a constant RPM, and the fuel burn will change with altitude

49
Q

A

50
Q

Define pilotage

A

Navigation by reference to landmarks only

51
Q

A

Celestial navigation: navigation by measuring angles to heavenly bodies to determine position on the earth

52
Q

Define air position and ground position

A

Air position: Imaginary position of an aircraft assuming that there has been no wind since it left the ground. calculated by navigators using only heading and airspeed for approximate position

Ground position: Actual position of an aircraft over the ground (when winds are accounted for)

53
Q

Define track error

A

Angle between the required track and the track made good, left or right of required

54
Q

Define opening angle and closing angle

A

Opening angle: angle between required track and TMG

Closing angle: angle between the old required track and the new required track necessary to arrive at the destination

55
Q

Define bearing

A

Angle between the object seen by the observer and the observers meridian

56
Q

A

57
Q

What is the difference between magnetic and geographic poles?

A

Geographic poles are the axis upon which the earth rotates. Magnetic north is where there is the most magnetic attraction from ferrous materials in the earth’s crust. Maps use the true (geographic) north while the compass points towards the magnetic north

58
Q

What is variation?

A

The angle between magnetic north and true north (changes annually)

59
Q

Define deviation

A

Angle that the compass needle is deflected from the magnetic meridians which is caused by magnetic disturbances in the aircraft

60
Q

Where is the compass correction card found?

A

In the journey log and in aircraft near the magnetic compass

61
Q

What factors affect choice of route?

A

Terrain

Fuel availability and requirements

CYR, CYA, CYD areas

Flight over water

Weather

62
Q

Where should check points be set?

A

At equal distances. The first one should be a fix/landmark and all points should be geographically recognized

63
Q

What allows a pilot to estimate track errors and make corrections to regain desired track?

A

Drawing 10° drift lines

64
Q

How can position lines be used to obtain a fix?

A

Use two or more locations that are visible on the ground and map. Find their bearing in relation to you and draw a straight line from the landmark. The point at which the two tracks meet is your estimated location

65
Q

When is the double track error method used?

A

Only before you get to your 1/2 waypoint

66
Q

Explain how to use the double track error method

A
67
Q

Explain how to use the sum of opening and closing angles

A

Find how many degrees off track you are in relation to your departure (opening angle)

Find how many degrees off track you are in relation to your destination (closing angle)

Gives correction angle direct to destination

May be used at any point along your route

68
Q

What is the 1 in 60 rule?

A

Every 1°change equals 1NM after 60NM from the station

69
Q

When is the two point visual method used?

A

When wind is not known

70
Q

How is the two point method used? When it is useful?

A

Pick two points (visual references) on track

The heading flwon by the pilot between those two points will determine the heading (wind component) for the rest of the leg

This method is useful on diversions

71
Q

Briefly describe 7 elements of pre flight preparation

A

Map folding - Ready before flight.

Documents - Needed & Legal

Latest Wx - Go No Go & Change to Plan

Fuel - Safe, Legal, & Available (later better)

Weight & Balance - Safe & Legal (last)

Aircraft Serviceability -Journey log checks

Filing a Flight Plan/Itinerary - On the Clock

72
Q

What map prep (folding and orienting) should be done pre flight?

A

Route, drift lines, selection of checkpoints

73
Q

Where can an aircraft’s weight and balance be found?

A

Within envelope found in POH at all times

In the Aircraft Weight and Balance Report

74
Q

When are flight plans or flight itineraries required to be filed?

A

If a flight goes outside 25nm from point of departure, when going to or from a military aerodrome, or when going on transborder flight

75
Q

How are flight plans/itineraries filed?

A

With FSS by telephone, online, or air filing by radio

76
Q

What are some things to remember for cockpit organization?

A

Fold map with X-C marks displayed ahead of time

Use a knee board

Bring an E6B, pencils, cash/credit card for fuel etc

Bring extra oil and funnel

Get Compass Headings from the Compass Correction Card

Bring the Journey Log Book

Dress properly for the season (Winter, Summer)

77
Q

What logistics should be taken care of on departure?

A

Record time wheels up

Open flight plan

78
Q

What are the 5 T’s when approaching SHP?

A

Time, twist, turn, track, throttle (and sometimes talk)

79
Q

What frequencies should be monitored in flight?

A
1. 5 if dual comm equipped
2. 7 even when receiving flight following
80
Q

What are 4 course correction methods?

A

Double track error, opening/closing angle, 1:60 rule, visual alteration

81
Q

What logistics should be taken care of on arrival?

A

Call ahead of control zone (10-20nm depending on size and class of airspace)

Plan descent and approach according to traffic procedures or ATC instructions

Close flight plan

82
Q

What are 6 in flight procedures?

A

Map reading, orientation, anticipation, confirmation, pin-pointing, watching map to ground

83
Q

What are some reasons to divert to an alternate destination?

A

Bad weather, fuel shortage, sickness, minor aircraft malfunction

84
Q

What should be done after deciding to divert?

A

Pin point position of aircraft on the map

Determine track/heading or use geographical landmarks to alternate destination

Take time (ETA/ETE, revised ETA)

Departure angle (two point visual method)

85
Q

What should you calculate when returning to departure point?

A

Reciprocal heading and double wind correction angle the opposite way

86
Q

Why is it more important to know where you are at all times when flying low?

A

Map reading becomes more difficult at lower altitudes

87
Q

What procedures can be done when lost?

A

Triangular pattern (2 min. legs 120° turns, turning right with operating radio, turning left with no radio), DF steer or radar vectors

88
Q

A

Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

89
Q

Define reflection, refraction, diffraction, and attenuation

A

Reflection: occurs at the surface separating two mediums. The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection

Refraction: bending of a wave as it passes obliquely from one medium to another

Diffraction: bending which occurs when a wave grazes the edge of a soilid object through which it cannot pass

Attenuation: loss of wave energy as it travels through a medium

90
Q

Define the following wave characteristics: cycle, wavelength, amplitude, frequency

A

Cycle: interval between points

Wavelength: linear, metric measurements of a wave

Amplitude: strength or width of a wave

Frequency: cycles per second

91
Q

Describe the difference in amplitude and frequency between AM and FM

A
92
Q

What are the frequency categories (very low to extremely high) and their respective wave lengths?

A
93
Q

Depending on the frequency, the radiated signal is most efficiently propagated by only one of the three methods. What are these methods?

A

Ground waves, sky waves, space waves

94
Q

What method of signal propagation do VLF, LF, and MF use?

A

Ground waves and sky waves

95
Q

What method of signal propagation is used for HF?

A

Sky waves

96
Q

How are VHF and UHF frequencies affected by atmospheric conditions?

A

Path is predictable and not affected by atmospheric conditions

97
Q

How are SHF and EHF signals affected by atmopsheric conditions?

A

Some attenuation and scattering can be caused by precipitation and the atmopshere

98
Q

What is NDB used for?

A

Provides reception of voice and navigational signals

99
Q

What frequency do NDBs operate in?

A

200-415KHz

100
Q

How does the ADF antenna obtain the strongest signal?

A

By being rotated mechanically or electromagnetically

101
Q

Where are the ADF antennae mounted on an aircraft?

A

In a single blade on the bottom of the fuselage

102
Q

What errors can be observed when using ADF?

A

Twilight effect, mountain effect, mountain reflection, shoreline effect, electrical attraction, bank error

103
Q

When is a bank error present and why?

A

Bank error is present in all turnsbecause the loop antenna is mounted in line with the longitudinal axis and is shielded from the station during turns

104
Q

Explain how lighting affects ADF use. What is this error called?

A

Electrical Attraction error. Radio waves are produced when lightning discharges. These radio waves tend to have a greater power output than those produced by NDB stations

105
Q

Explain the shorelines refraction error

A

Shorelines can bend or refract low frequency radio signals as they pass from land to water. Because of this a station outside 30 degrees from shore should be selected

106
Q

What is the twilight effect? How can it be minimized?

A

At night sky waves are much stronger than inthe day due to the reflection of the sky waves by the ionosphere. Due to this reflection errors occur in the needle.

Can be minimized by averaging out the fluctuations, flying at a higher altitude or selecting a station with a lower frequency than 350KHz

107
Q

What is the mountain effect error? How can it be minimized?

A

Mountain and cliffs can reflect radio waves. Some slopes may have ore deposits that can cause ambiguous indications. Can be minimized by using strong signals not obscured by terrain

108
Q

A

Low cost of installation and of maintenance - smaller airports can have an approach where cost would otherwise be prohibitive

Longer range than higher frequency navigational facilities

Provides navigation signals at lower altitude due to the ground wave

Not restricted to line of sight

109
Q

A

ADF: selects only the non-directional antenna, thus disconnecting the bearing selector from the system

BFO: beat frequency oscillator, used for tuning unmodulated signals broadcast by stations in foreign counties

FRQ: flips standby frequency to active

FLT/ET: light timer

SET/RST: standard timer

110
Q

What is the TIMS procedure for all navigation aids?

A

Tune

Identify

Monitor

Set

111
Q

How is relative bearing measured?

A

From the longitudinal axis of the aircraft to the bearing pointer (clockwise)

112
Q

A

Bearing to the station

113
Q

A

114
Q

What will happen if you home to an NDB without correcting for wind?

A

The ground track will be curved

115
Q

How do you home to an NDB?

A

Turn to keep the BP on the nose

116
Q

What is a RMI?

A

ADF information is displayed on a magnetic rotating card. Provides bearing to the station in degrees magnetic

117
Q

What is the reciprocal (180°) of the aircraft’s magnetic bearing to the station?

A

Bearing from the station

118
Q

What is TACAN?

A

Tactical Air Navigation System: UHF omni-directional navigation aid with DME that is primarily used by the military

119
Q

What is VORTAC?

A

A site with a collocated TACAN and VOR. VORTAC information can be received by VOR receivers

120
Q

How does VOR work? How do you know you are due south of the station?

A

One light flashes in all directions every minute

One light rotates once a minute

If the second light appears 30 sec after you see the first one, you know you are due south of the station

121
Q

What is the purpose of the CDI? How is this affected by distance from the station?

A

CDI indicates how many degrees you are off course

If you are 5 degrees off course close to the station, you may only be a few hundred feet off course

If you are 5 degrees off course 60 miles from the station, you will be 5 miles off course

122
Q

What are the components of an OBS?

A

OFF: out of range, over the station, area of ambiguity

TO: area rear of the reference line

FROM: area forward of the reference line

CDI: course deviation indicated

123
Q

Where is the VOR reference line located?

A
124
Q

The OBS indicated you are right of the 160 radial for VOR with frequency of 110.30. Where are you relative to the station?

A

Probably just over the station. (neither a TO or a FROM indication, nor a flag)

125
Q

What effect does aircraft heading have on OBS?

A

No effect. OBS is position sensitive, not heading sensitive

126
Q

Describe how to position fix using an OBS

A

Your OBS bar should be centred with a from indication

Whatever is on the top of your OBS is the radial you are on

127
Q

Describe how to position fix using DME on an OBS

A

If you know what radial you are on, and how far away from the station, you can get an immediate fix using only one station

128
Q

How do you track from a station?

A

Turn to the heading indicated at the top of the OBS. Center the OBS TB with a from indication

129
Q

How do you maintain course?

A

Begin with centered CDI. If the bar goes left, correct left, If the bar goes right, correct right

130
Q

How do you track to a station?

A

Turn to the heading indicated at the top of the OBS and center the OBS TB with a to indication

131
Q

Where is the radial located on the OBS when you are flying from and to the station?

A

From: radial is at the top of the OBS

To: radial is at the bottom of the OBS

132
Q

How accurate is VOR track alignment?

A

Maintained within a tolerance of +/- 3°

133
Q

How are VOR stations identified?

A

Using morse code

134
Q

What is the maximum permissible error for VOR - VHF omni test?

A

+/- 4°

135
Q

List the errors and disadvantages of VOR

A

Restricted to line of sight reception

At high altitude it is possible to receive interference from other stations

Site error effect: interference from topographical features in immediate vicinity of the VOR

Terrain error effect: signals can be reflected by terrain, or the shadow of the terrain can mask the signal

136
Q

What is scalloping?

A

Distortion of propagation over uneven terrain

137
Q

Which VOR error is most serious? What is the error amount?

A

Ground station error is the most serious, but is seldom in excess of 2° and in no case can it exceed +/- 3°.

138
Q

How can VOR errors be identified?

A

Irregular course display, warning flag, and limited distance range

139
Q

How does the VOT test work?

A

Tune your VOR to the VOT signal.

Set the course selector to 0 degrees, and the track indicator should be centered.

The TO-FROM indicator should read FROM.

Next, set the course selector to 180 degrees

The TO-FROM indicator should read TO, and the track bar should then be centered.

140
Q

How does a primary radar work?

A

Signal is sent and reflected (at the speed of light) by rotating beacon

The signal is reflected off aircraft, ground, moisture, birds, etc

The time it takes for the signal to return can be translated into a distance

141
Q

How does a secondary radar work?

A

A specific signal is sent out that interrogates targets

Transponder is the only equipment that sends a response

Mode A: four-digit code is returned

Mode C: four-digit code and altitude is returned

Mode S: all the above plus individual flight plan information

142
Q

What do the following transponder codes mean: 1200, 1400, 7500, 7600, 7700

A

1200: VFR at or below 12 500’
1400: VFR above 12 500’
7500: Aircraft hijacking
7600: “Can’t talk”
7700: “Got an emergency”

143
Q

What is the purpose of the primary radar in the cockpit? How is the strength of the signal influenced and represented?

A

Weather radar. The larger the storm, the greater the moisture, and the stronger the return signal. The strengths of signals is represented by various shades of colour on a display

144
Q

What is the purpose of the secondary radar in the cockpit?

A

Traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS)

145
Q

How does GPS work to determine a 3-dimensional position?

A

GPS receiver receives four signals at a time and translates the time it took each signal to arrive from the satellite into a distance. Triangulates between four satellites to determine a 3-dimensional position

146
Q

A problem with the GPS system is that a cheap receiver clock can’t accurately compare the time the signal was sent. What is a remedy?

A

Using four satellites at once

147
Q

A problem with the GPS system is the geometric dilution of precision. What is a remedy?

A

Using an expensive, smart receiver that tracks known position of all satellites in sight and uses the satellites that are farthest away

148
Q

What is the ephemeris error?

A

Satellite is not where we think it is due to slight deviations in orbit

149
Q

What is the multipath error in GPS?

A

Signal is bounced around and reflected - it doesn’t follow a straight path

150
Q

Name is a remedy to the following GPS errors: ephemeris error, receiver error, multipath error, murky ionoshpere

A

Differential GPS

151
Q

Explain how differential GPS works

A

Station is on the ground at a known position

Monitors the GPS system continuously

If it gets a reading telling it that is not where it knows it is, the error will be tracked and resolved

The area is transmitted to all GPS receivers in the error so they can correct accordingly

152
Q

Many receivers show no indication that the system is in error. What is a remedy?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM). Must receive signals from 6 or more satellites to monitor the trustworthiness of the system. Faulty satellites can be dediced and excluded

153
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide area augmentation system. Covers extensive service area and broadcasts corrections to aircraft via a communications satellite

154
Q

What is LAAS?

A

Local area augmentation system. High precision local corrections that are broadcasted on a VHF radio data link. Accurate enough to permit Category III landing

155
Q

What are advantages of the GPS system?

A

Gives position information in transoceanic & isolated areas

Curved/detailed arrival paths to airports

Not restricted to airways

Extreme degree of accuracy (within 10cm on kinetic GPS)

156
Q

GPS can fail. What should you do to prepare for this?

A

Maintain basic nav skills

157
Q
A