Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

M R C P > NEPHROLOGY > Flashcards

NEPHROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

VBG in salicylate poisoning?

A

raised anion gap
metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is good pastures/anti glomerular basement memberane syndrome

CFs

Management

A

small vessel vasculitis
causes:
- pulmonary haemorrhages
- rapid glomerulonephritis

Ix; anti glomerular basement membrane antibodies against type 4 collagen
Management:
- plasma exchange (plasmaphoresis)
- Steroids
- Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ix anti glomerular basement membrane disease

A

Linear IgG deposits along basement membrane

Pulmonary haemorrhages- causing raised transfer factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis present as? (3)

A
  1. nephrotic syndrome
  2. haematuria
  3. proteinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Type 1= 90% cases
EMM- tram track
cause: cryoglobulinaemia, hepatitis C

type 2=
dense deposits
causes:
partial lipodystrophy factor H deficiency#

Type 3
causes: hepatitis B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does diarrhoea most commonly cause

A

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how to calculate anion gap

A

(Na+ + K+) - (Cl- + HCO-3).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis onset timeline
and caused by what organism

and appearance on immunofloresence

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically occurs 7-14 days following a group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus infection
usually strep pyogenes

GRANULAR appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

difference between IgA nephropathy and post strep GAS glomerulonephritis

A

post strep glomerulonephritis= 1-2 weeks and proteinuria

IgA nephropathy=1-2 days
and macroscopic haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does acetazolamide most commonly cause?

A

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is cystinuria
#i heritance pattern

CFs
management

A

autosomal recessive

Features
recurrent renal stones
are classically yellow and crystalline, appearing semi-opaque on x-ray

Management
hydration
D-penicillamine
urinary alkalinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is cystinuria
inheritance pattern

CFs
management

A

autosomal recessive (exception to MR DS)
recurrent renal stones. defect in the membrane transport of cystine, ornithine, lysin, arginine . COLA!!!!

Features
recurrent renal stones
are classically yellow and crystalline, appearing semi-opaque on x-ray

Management
hydration
D-penicillamine
urinary alkalinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cyanide-nitroprusside test

A

test for cystinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

first choice investigation for reflux nephropathy

A

Micturating cystography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of immunogloblin responsible for graft rejection

A

IgG

and DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to distinguish between nephrogenic DI and cranial DI

A

administer nasal desmopressin

nephrogenic DI: no response.

cranial DI:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

alport syndrome inheritance

A

X linked dominant
defect in type 4 collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CFs alport syndrome

A

usually young boys
microscopic haemiaturia
renal progressive failure
BIL Sensorineural hearning loss
retinal pigmentosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does renal biopsy and EMM show in alport syndrome;

A

SPLITTING OF LAMINA DENSA

X LINKED DOMINANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WHAT IS a staghorn calculus made of

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate, (also known as struvite),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

congo red staining

A

amyloidoisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

renal complication of SLE and the 6 types

A

lupus nephritis
I normal kidney
II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
III: focal segmental glomerulonephritis
IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
V: diffuse membranous
VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most severe and and COMMON and dangerous type of SLE renal involvement

A

type 4- diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mneumonic for 6 types of SLE nephritis

A

Normal Angels Focus on Diffusing Profits to Members of Sceciety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is calciphylaxis

A

area of black necrotic tissue that may form bullae, ulcerate, and leave a hard, firm eschar

deposition of calcium deposits in intimal arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most common bacteria for peritonitis infection during peritoneal dialysis

A

staph epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

is strep epidermis coagulase positive or negatvie

A

coagulase NEGATVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

treatment for peritonitis from peritoneal dialysis

A

vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + ceftazidime a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which type of glomerulonephritis associated with wegeners granulomatosis(ANCA)

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults

and its Tx

A

membranous glomerulonephritis
Tx
ACEi and immunisuppression with corticosteroids eg pred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

anti phospholipase A2 associated with which type of glomerulonephritis

A

membranous glomerulonephritis
‘The basement membrane is thickened with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a ‘spike and dome’ appearance.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

causes of renal papillary necrosis

A
  • severe acute pyelonephritis
  • diabetic nephropathy
  • obstructive nepropathy
  • NSAIDs
  • sickle cell anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what type of cancer is associated with
Polycythaemia secondary to erythropoietin secretion

A

renal cell cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

minimal change disease light microscopy findings?

A

normal findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

fanconi syndrome CFs
(3 main)

A

type 2 (proximal) renal tubular acidosis,
rickets/osteomalacia, polyuria

Type 2 (proximal) renal tubular acidosis
polyuria
aminoaciduria
glycosuria
phosphaturia
osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

acute tubular necrosis

A

Urine osmolality < 350 mOsm/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease type 2 is caused by a gene mutation on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 4
Huntington’s disease
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis on light microscopy

A

wire loop appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which type of antibiotic can cause acute interstitial nephritis

CFs

A

penicillin/ antibiotics

CFs triad of
eosinophilia
rash
fever

+ STERILE PYURIA, WHITE CELL CASTS

40
Q

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease type 1 caused by which chromosome

A

chromosome 16

41
Q

What type of cancer is most associated with schistosomiasis?

A

SCC of bladder

42
Q

nephrogenic DI gene mutation

causes of nephrogenic DI- electrolytes

A

avpr2 aquaporin 2
Hypercalcaemia
Hypo kalemia
Genetic
lithium
sickle cell

43
Q

polycystic kidney disease cardic problem

A

mitral valve prolapse

44
Q

Disorders associated with glomerulonephritis and low serum complement levels

A

-post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
-subacute bacterial endocarditis
-systemic lupus erythematosus
-mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

45
Q

post renal transplant RUQ pain and fever diagnosis l=most likely

A

CMV

46
Q

bicalutamide MOA

A

androgen receptor blocker

47
Q

foot processes on EMM

A

minimal change syndrome on electron microscopy

48
Q

Tx minimal change syndrome

A

80% treated by prednisolone corticosteroid\
20% steroid resistant- treat with cyclophos[hamide

49
Q

tolvaptan MOA and used for?

A

vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist
PCKD

50
Q

nephrotic syndrome

CFs
associated bleeding problem

causes

Tx

A

CFs HOP
Hypoalbuminaemia
Oedema
Proteinuria

ass’d with antithrombin 3 deficiency
minimal change GN
membranous GN
Focal segmental GN
Amyloidosis
Diabetes
MINI MEMBERS FOCUS ON AMYS DIABETES

Tx- ACEi

51
Q

nephritic syndrome

CFs
causes

A

CFs haematuria, HTN

Causes:
IgA
Alports
Rapid progressive GN

52
Q

Renal vascular disease:
CFs
Ix gold standard
Tx

A

CFs
Flash pulmonary oedema- string of beads
HTN
Chronic renal failure

Ix of choice for Renal vascular disease= MR angiography

Tx= balloon angioplasty

53
Q

HUS

triad of cfs
causes
Ix
tx

A

Triad of:
thrombocytopenia
microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
AKI

Cause :
usually secondary to Ecoli infection , pneumococcal infec, HIV, SLE
Ix
FBC- thrombocytopaenia
low Hb , negative coombs test
U+E= AKI
stool culture

Mx= supportive
no need Abx
plasma exchange for PTS WITH NO DIARRHOEA

54
Q

how to remember if renal stones are x ray opaque or not

A

all the ones that are OOOOOpaque contain an o (phosphate (incl stag horn struvite), oxalate),

radiolucent don’t have O (urate and xanthine)

remember that cystine are semi-opaque (the c looks like half an o)

55
Q

mutation in the gene that encodes the aquaporin 2 channel causes/????

A

causes DI

56
Q

how long does it take an V fistula develop

A

6-8 weeks

57
Q

MOA bicalutamide used in prostate ca

A

Bicalutamide is an androgen recept blocker

58
Q

how can APCKD affect the heart

A

Mitral valve prolapse

59
Q

what medication out of tamsulosin or finasteride will DECREASE PSA (give false negative)

A

finasteride= 5ht REDUCtase will REDUCE psa

60
Q

Which one of the following types of glomerulonephritis is most characteristically associated with streptococcal infection in children?

A

diffuse proliferative

61
Q

d

A
62
Q

causes of cranial DI

A

brain injury, pit adenoma, craniopharymgioma
histocytiosis
sarcoidosis
haemachromotasis
post brain surgery

63
Q

what happens if you give too much 0.9% nacl VBG wise

A

hyperchloraemic met acid`

64
Q

high calcium and renal stones to reduce stones

what decreases oxalate stones

A

thiazide- hypercalcium

cholestyramine= oxalate stones

65
Q

common electryolyte complication of plasma exchange

A

hypocalcemia

66
Q

how can alcohol bingeing affect ADH

A

Alcohol bingeing can lead to ADH suppression in the posterior pituitary gland subsequently leading to polyuria

67
Q

how does ADH suppression affect urine

A

polyuria

68
Q

Proteus mirabilis infection predisposes to ??type of kidney stone

A

STRUVITE staghorn

69
Q

how does calcium resonium decrease k

A

increases excretion

70
Q

spironolactone, aldosterone antag MOA

A

Inhibition of the mineralocorticoid receptor in the cortical collecting ducts

71
Q

function of erythropoetin injections in CKD

A

improve exercise tolerance - does NOT improve renal function

72
Q

amyloid biopsy findings

A

Congo red stain shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light

73
Q

when does contrast nephropathy happen- time frame to develop

A

2-3 days

74
Q

what is it important to co prescribe for 3 weeks when starting gosrelin

A

cyproterone acetate= steroid anti androgen

gosrelin= gnrh agonist

75
Q

eGFR= what does the calculation depend on

and what affects and invalidates gfr calc

A

CAGE
creatinine, age, gender, ethnicity

invalidates: pregnancy, large muscle mass, red meat in 12 hrs

76
Q

fibromuscular dysplasia

A

type of renal vascular disease

risk factors smoker, young female
poorly controlled HTN
assymmetric kidneys
FLASH PULM OEDEMA

77
Q

pre renal uraemia vs ATN

A

Pre-renal uraemia
; Anything related to excretion is low (low urine sodium, low Fractional sodium excretion, low Fractional urea excretion)

Anything in a ratio is high (Serum urea:creatinine ratio, Urine:plasma osmolality, Urine:plasma urea)

78
Q

HOW TO differentiaite between the 2 types of amyloidosis
AA AND AL

A

AA, A for autoimmune such as RA and SLE

AL for light chains (associated with WM, MM etc)

79
Q

how long till finasteride starts takin effect

A

up to 6 months

80
Q

heroin use risk factor for which type of renal condition

A

Heroin is a known cause of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.

81
Q

normal anion gap

A

A normal anion gap is 8-14 mmol/L

82
Q

Causes of a normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosiis

A

Causes of a normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss: diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula
renal tubular acidosis
drugs: e.g. acetazolamide
ammonium chloride injection
Addison’s disease

83
Q

Raised anion gap causes

A

Raised anion gap
lactate:
shock
sepsis
hypoxia
ketones:
diabetic ketoacidosis
alcohol
urate: renal failure
acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol

84
Q

how does gentamicin cause nephrotoxicity

A

proximal tubular dysfunction

85
Q

what is c3 nephritic factor

A

anti C3BBBB antibody

86
Q

HLA matching process

A

DR A B

DR > B > A

87
Q

normal anion gap

A

10-18

88
Q

normal anion gap met acid causes

A

AAA GR
Addisons
Acetazolomide
Ammonim chloride injection

GI loss (diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistrula)
Renal Tubular acidosis

89
Q

what causes pseudoparathyroidism

A

target cell insensitivity to parathyroid hormone (PTH) due to a mutation in a G-protein

90
Q

insulin stress test used for ?

A

diagnose hypopituitarism

91
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal haematuria

A

acquired conditio n
CD55 AND CD59

CFs
haematuria - dark urine in the morning
pancytopenia
can develop aplastic anaemia
thrombosis
haemolytic anaemia

Ix = flow cytometry first line
also could do hams test

92
Q

HTN and asymmetrical kidneys =

bIL small kidneys=?

A

renal artery stenosis

Bil small kidneys= renal papillary necrosis

93
Q

HIV nephropathy

A

massive proteinuria
large kidneys
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
elevated urea and creatinine
normotension

94
Q

types of rapidly progressive GN

A

polyangitis and granulomatosis= wegners
nazis had moustaches gave them recurrent sinusitis

Anti basement membrane disease (good pastures)

95
Q

recurrent UTIs in childhood= ?

A

vesicoureteric reflux

96
Q

how does polycystic kidney disease affevt heart

A

MITRAL VALVE PROLAPSE

M R C P (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions