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Flashcards in Neu 6 - Brain Embryology Deck (74):
1

What structure does the Prosencephalon evolve to?

Telencephalon and Diencephalon.

2

What structure does the Mesencephalon evolve to?

Mesencephalon.

3

What structure does the Hindbrain evolve to?

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon.

4

During week four of development the Rostro on the neurotube dilates to become which structures?

1)Forebrain (Prosencephalon). 2)Midbrain (mesencephalon). 3)Hindbrain (rhombencephalon).

5

Where are originated the neural tube and neural crest cells?

Neural plate.

6

To what structure does the notochord develop to in the adult?

Notochord becomes nucleus pulposus of invertebral disc in adults.

7

What structure does the Telencephalon evolve to?

Cerebral hemispheres.

8

What structure does the Diencephalon evolve to?

Thalamus, hypothalamus and the optic nerves and tracts.

9

What structure does the Mesencephalon evolve to?

Midbrain.

10

What structure does the Metencephalon evolve to?

Cerebellum and pons.

11

What structure does the Myelencephalon evolve to?

Medulla.

12

What defects during embryology are characterized by a persistent connection between amniotic cavity and spinal canal?

Neural tube defects .

13

At what week neuropores fail to fuse in the neural tube defects?

At 4th week.

14

What the main risk factor in Neural tube defects?

Low folic acid levels intake before conception and during the pregnancy.

15

How is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the neural tube defects?

High levels of AFP in amniotic fluid and maternal serum.

16

What is the confirmatory test after AFP?

Acethylcholinesterase (AChE) in amniotic fluid should be high.

17

What are the options about check the neural tube defects in uterus?

Sonogram (defect visually) and Quadruple screen.

18

How will you expect found the quadruple screen in a pregnant woman whose baby has Down syndrome?

Low levels of AFP for Down syndrome.

19

Which embryologic defects can increase the Alpha-fetoprotein levels?

Neural tube defect and Anterior abdominal wall defect.

20

If you do the quadruple screen and there is increases of AFP but you cannot see any neural tube defect or any abdominal wall defect on ultrasound, what do you next?

Amniocentesis looking for AFP in the amniotic fluid to confirm the defect

21

Which are the main types of neural tube defects?

Spinal bifida occulta, meningocele and myelomeningocele.

22

What neural tube defect is characterized by Tuft of hair or skin dimple at level of bony defect?

Spina bifida occulta is a failure of bony spinal canal to close, but no structural herniation. Usually seen at lower vertebral levels. Dura is intact. Normal AFP.

23

What is the neural tube defect characterized when the meninges herniate through bony defect?

Meningocele.

24

What is the neural tube defect characterized when the meninges and neural tissue herniate through bony defect?

Myelomeningocele (Meningomyelocele).

25

What is Anencephaly?

Malformation of anterior neural tube produces no forebrain, open calvarium.

26

Which are the clinical findings of anencephaly?

High levels of AFP; polyhydramnios (no swallowing center in brain).

27

What is holoprosencephaly?

Failure of left and right hemispheres to separate, usually occurs during weeks 5-6. May be related to mutations in sonic hedgehog signaling pathway.

28

Which are the clinical findings in the moderate and severe form of holoprosencephaly?

Moderate form has a cleft lip/palate, most severe form results in cyclopia.

29

Where we can see the holoprosencephaly?

1)Sonic hedgehog gene mutation. 2)Severe Fetal alcohol syndrome. 3)Patau syndrome (trisomy 13).

30

Which are the risk factors of associated with anencephaly?

Associated with maternal type 1 diabetes; Maternal folate supplementation decreases the risk.

31

What are the chiari malformations? And how many types exists?

Cerebellum herniated downward, through the foremen magnum, and there are 4 types.

32

Which are the characteristics of the Chiari I malformation ?

It is the mildest form, only cerebellar tonsils herniate, and can lead to syringomyelia.
FA: cerebellar tonsil are ectopia >3-5 mm; congenital, usually asymptomatic in childhood, manifests with headaches and cerebellar symptoms.

33

What is syringomyelia?

It is the enlargement of the central canal of the spinal cord, crossing anterior spinal commissural fibers are typically damaged first.

34

At what level of the spinal is most common the syringomyelia presences?

Most common at C8-T1.

35

Which are the clinical finding in syringomyelia?

Cape-like, bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities however touch sensation is preserved.

36

Which pathology is associated with Chiari Malformations, trauma and tumors?

Syringomyelia.

37

Which are the characteristics of Chiari II malformation?

Herniation of cerebellar tonsils and vermis through the foremen magnum with aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus. Also is associated with thoracolumbar myelomeningocele (DIT), lumbosacral myelomeningocele (FA).

38

Enlargement of 4th ventricle (fills the enlarged posterior fossa). Cerebellar vermis fails to develop. Associated with hydrocephalus and spina bifida. All these characteristics belong to what syndrome?

Dandy-Walker syndrome.

39

From which germ layer comes the arch, cleft and pouch of the branchial apparatus?

Arch (mesoderm), cleft (ectoderm) and pouch (endoderm).

40

From which branchial cleft derives the external auditory meatus?

First cleft.

41

From which branchial cleft derives the temporary cervical sinuses?

2nd, 3rd and 4th branchial cleft.

42

From which branchial pouch derives the middle ear cavity, Eustachian tubes and mastoid air cells?

First pouch.

43

From which branchial pouch derives the epithelial lining of tonsils?

Second.

44

From which branchial pouch derivates the inferior parathyroid glands and thymus?

Third.

45

From which branchial pouch derivates the superior parathyroid?

4th.

46

Which branchial pouch are involved in DiGeorge syndrome?

Abnormal development of 3rd and 4th pouches, absent thymus, absent parathyroid glands, immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia.

47

What syndrome has Thymic aplasia, T cells deficiency and Hypocalcemia?

DiGeorge Syndrome

48

What cartilage are derived from the 1st Pharyngeal arch?

Meckel's cartilage, Mandible, Mandibular ligament, Malleus.
Treacher Collins Syndrome.

49

What muscles are derived from the 1st Pharyngeal arch?

Muscles of Mastication: Masseter, Medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid and Temporalis.
Mylohyoid, Tensor Tympani, Tensor veli palatini and Ant. 2/3 of Tongue.

50

What nerves are derived from the 1st Pharyngeal arch?

Mandibular and Maxillary branches of Trigeminal.

51

What cartilage are derived from the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?

[Second for S sounding] Stapes, Styloid process, Stylohyoid ligament, leSSer horn of the hyoid.

52

What muscles are derived from the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?

[Second for S sounding] Muscle of facial expressions, Stapedius, Stylohyoid.

53

What nerves are derived from the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?

[Second for S sounding] Cranial Nerve Seven.

54

What cartilage are derived from the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?

PHARYNGOcutaneous fistula.

55

What muscles are derived from the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?

styloPHARYNGEUS

56

What nerves are derived from the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?

glossyPHARYNGEAL.

57

What cartilage are derived from the 4th and 6th Pharyngeal arch?

THYROID cartilage and CRICOID cartilage.

58

What muscles are derived from the 4th and 6th Pharyngeal arch?

Muscle of LARYNX except CRICOTHYROID.

59

What nerves are derived from the 4th and 6th Pharyngeal arch?

LARYNGEAL branches of vagus, superior LARYNGEAL branch (swallowing) and Recurrent LARYNGEAL branch (speaking).

60

Which arch of the bronchial apparatus is not development?

5th.

61

What is the differences between Branchial cleft cyst (BCC) and Thyroglossal duct cyst (TDC)?

Location: BCC: Lateral neck and TDC: Midline. Swallowing: BCC: Doesn't move TDC: Moves

62

What abnormalities are often found with a Chiari malformation?

Chiari I malformation: Syringomyelia. Chiari II malformation: Myelomeningocele, Hydrocephly.

63

What are the classic presenting symptoms of a syringomyelia?

Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities. Severe syringomyelia affec the motor neurons develops weakness in the hand muscle.

64

What amniotic fluid lab abnormality might point you to a diagnosis of anencephaly?

High levels of alpha- fetoprotein (AFP).

65

From which branchial pouch are each of the following structures derived: 1)Middle ear and Eustachian tubes, 2) Superior parathyroids, 3) Inferior parathyroid 4)Epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil 5) Thymus

1)1st 2)4th 3)3rd 4)2nd 5)3rd.

66

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the alar plate?

Sensory neurons.

67

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the basal plate?

Motor neurons.

68

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the telencephalon?

Cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles.

69

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the Diencephalon?

Thalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle.

70

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the mesencephalon?

Midbrain and aqueduct.

71

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the Metencephalon?

Pons, cerebellum, and superior fourth ventricle.

72

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the Myelencephalon?

Medulla and inferior fourth ventricle.

73

Name the structure in the adult nervous system that arise from the neural crest cells?

Peripheral sensory and autonomic nerves and sensory ganglia.

74

What is the level of the conus medullaris in newborn and in adult?

L2 or L3 (newborn), L1(adult).