Neuro 2

Question 1

The following does not apply for triptan treatment
-triptans act through serotonin receptors
-they act by influencing the central mechanisms of pain
-perform selective vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels
-are administered already during the aura

Answer 1

are administered already during the aura

Question 2

What does not apply to a migraine attack?
-xaura preced headaches
-sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine
-triptans work best when given at the beginning of an attack
-non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used in treatment

Answer 2

-sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine

Question 3

For the definition of migraine with aura, the following applies
-all the criteria listed in point C of the criteria for migraine diagnosis must be present at the same time
-the patient must have 2 seizures meeting the criteria of point B and C of the diagnostic criteria
-the aura is always visual
-the patient must have 5 seizures meeting the criteria of points B and C of the diagnostic criteria

Answer 3

the patient must have 2 seizures meeting the criteria of point B and C of the diagnostic criteria

Question 4

So called secondary trigeminal neuralgia is not caused by
- complicated sinusitis
- meningioma or schwannoma of a pontocerebelllar angle
- falx meningioma
- dental abscess

Answer 4

falx meningioma

Question 5

What does not apply to a migraine attack?
-aura preced headaches
-triptans work best when given at the beginning of an attack -non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used in treatment
-sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine

Answer 5

sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine

Question 6

Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP)
-is the most important vasoconstrictor in the CNS
-is the most important vasodilator in the CNS
-affects bone density
-is related to the pathophysiology of tension headache

Answer 6

is the most important vasodilator in the CNS

Question 7

Alzheimer’s disease has the most significant deficit of
dopamine
serotonin
acetycholine
glutamate

Answer 7

acetycholine

Question 8

Which are the treatable causes of dementia? -thrombocytopenia -polyradiculoneuritis -hypovitaminosis D
-hypothyroidism

Answer 8

hypothyroidism

Question 9

Which of the following symptoms is usually one of the first symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?
-impaired long-term memory -episodic memory impairment -apraxia
-agnosia

Answer 9

episodic memory impairment

Question 10

What is not a routine diagnostic procedure for patients with newly diagnosed dementia?
-neuroimaging
-vitamin B12 level examination -vitamin D level examination -thyroid function tests

Answer 10

vitamin D level examination

Question 11

Which of the following statement is not true?
- routine laboratory examination of patients with dementia should include assessment of thyroid function
- imaging tests are the part of the diagnostic process in patients with dementia
- the examination of patients with dementia includes an examination of the level of vitamin B12
- the clock drawing test is used to detect visual hallucinations

Answer 11

the clock drawing test is used to detect visual hallucinations

Question 12

Penumbra, or functional impairment (reversible dysfunction) of brain tissue occurs during blood flow
-below 20 ml / 100 g / min
-below 40 ml / 100 g / min -below 60 ml / 100 g / min -below 50 ml / 100 g / min

Answer 12

below 20 ml / 100 g / min

Question 13

Does not apply to the treatment of intracranial thrombosis
-after stabilization, we administer oral anticoagulants (DOAC - direct oral anticoagulants)
-after stabilization, we administer oral anticoagulants (warfarin), with a target INR of 2.0 - 2.5.
-treatment is used for 6 months in cases of known local cause, if the hypercoagulable state is present is used for long-term
-we administer anticoagulants parenterally (heparin or low molecular weight heparin)

Answer 13

-treatment is used for 6 months in cases of known local cause, if the hypercoagulable state is present is used for long-term

Question 14

Based on the definitions for transient ischemic attack, we can summarize that
-for the duration of symptoms, they are present for <1 hour
-the brain MR is positive for the presence of ischemic changes
-for the duration of symptoms, they are present for <24 hours
-for the duration of the symptoms, they are present for <24 hours, usually < than 1 hour

Answer 14

for the duration of the symptoms, they are present for <24 hours, usually < than 1 hour

Question 15

Diplopia occurs during stroke in the territory of
-left middle cerebral artery -right middle cerebral artery -left internal carotid artery -basilar artery

Answer 15

basilar artery

Question 16

Cardioembolic stroke represents from ischemic strokes
50%
80%
20%
30%

Answer 16

20%

Question 17

Subarachnoid haemorrhage is most commonly caused by
-rupture of intracranial aneurysm
-cerebral amyloid angiopathy
-rupture of arteriovenous malformation
-trauma

Answer 17

rupture of intracranial aneurysm

Question 18

For vasospasm prevention in subarachnoid haemorrhage we use
-blockers of dopamine receptors
-manitol
-beta blockers
-Calcium channel blockers

Answer 18

Calcium channel blockers

Question 19

For detection of amyloid angiopathy we use
-brain MRI gradient echo sequence
-brain MRI DWI sequence
-brain MRI with contrast
-brain MRI Flair sequence

Answer 19

brain MRI gradient echo sequence

Question 20

Mark the correct statement regarding subarachnoid haemorrhage
-sudden onset of severe headache is typical
-meningeal syndromes are present from the onset of symptoms
-alteration of consciousness must be present
-focal neurological deficit must be present

Answer 20

sudden onset of severe headache is typical

Question 21

Antidotum Idarucizumab is used in haemorrhagic complications in patients treated by
-vitamine K antagonists -Apixaban
-Heparine
-Dabigatran

Answer 21

Dabigatran

Question 22

Mark the incorrect statement
-Chronic subdural haematoma occurs in chronic alcoholics, people with blood clotting disorders, and infants
-Chronic subdural haematoma is manifested by slowly progressing or persistent symptoms
-Chronic subdural haematoma occurs in young people and is of arterial origin
-Chronic subdural haematoma occurs in the elderly even after a banal head injury

Answer 22

Chronic subdural haematoma occurs in young people and is of arterial origin

Question 23

Mark the incorrect statement
-traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage may be clinically manifested by meningeal syndrome
-CT of the brain is used in the diagnosis of craniocerebral brain injuries
-traumatic intracerebral haemorrhage may occur at the time of injury but also delayed traumatic intracerebral -haemorrhage is present only if a skull fracture is also present

Answer 23

traumatic intracerebral haemorrhage is present only if a skull fracture is also present

Question 24

Mark the correct statement
-in contusio cerebri, the CT finding of the brain is negative
-contusio cerebri is a reversible global disorder of brain function without structural changes in brain tissue
-unconsciousness together with focal neurological deficit may be clinical manifestations of contusio cerebri
-focal neurological deficit is not part of the clinical finding in contusio cerebri

Answer 24

unconsciousness together with focal neurological deficit may be clinical manifestations of contusio cerebri

Question 25

Mark the incorrect statement -retrograde amnesia is always present in the Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI -in the case of brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI), hypodensity at the site of injury is present in the brain CT finding -brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) is defined as a reversible global disorder of brain function, generalized asynapsia -brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) is one of the most common craniocerebral injuries

Answer 25

in the case of brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI), hypodensity at the site of injury is present in the brain CT finding

Question 26

Mark the incorrect statement -chronic subdural haematoma is shown in the CT immediatelly as a hyperdensive lesion -acute subdural haematoma is shown in the CT as a lentiform-shaped hyperdensive lesion -chronic subdural haematoma can increase its volume by repeated bleeding from newly formed vessels of the hematoma sheath -indication for drainage of the subdural haematoma is 1-2 mm thick

Answer 26

acute subdural haematoma is shown in the CT as a lentiform-shaped hyperdensive lesion

Question 27

Parkinson’s disease can be distinguished from atypical neurodegenerative parkinsonism (e.g. Multiple system atrophy or Progressive supranuclear palsy) by -brain perfusion SPECT -DaT scan -IBZM SPECT (D2 receptors) -Transcranial brain sonography

Answer 27

IBZM SPECT (D2 receptors)

Question 28

Mark incorrect statement about Huntington’s disease -brain MRI shows atrophy of nucleus caudatus -it is confirmed by genetic testing -is caused by defect in the metabolism of a copper -the treatment is only symptomatic

Answer 28

is caused by defect in the metabolism of a copper

Question 29

Most common form of dystonia is -generalized familial dystonia -graphospasm -lower limb dystonia -cervical dystonia

Answer 29

cervical dystonia

Question 30

Mark incorrect statement about Parkinson’s disease -incidence decreases with age -the underlying cause is prion-like propagation and accumulation of a-synuclein -it is of multifactorial etiology -constipation and hyposmia are often present in prodromal phase

Answer 30

incidence decreases with age

Question 31

Advanced Parkinson’s disease is not treated by -pump therapy with subcutaneous apomorphine -pump therapy with intestinal levodopa gel -pump therapy with intravenous propranolol -deep brain stimulation

Answer 31

pump therapy with intravenous propranolol

Question 32

Mark the incorrect statement -in the diagnostic of vertebrogenic disorders we can use CT examination of the spinal canal -vertebrogenic disorders are d efined as a group of disorders whose symptoms are directly or indirectly caused by the disordered function of the vertebral column or a lesion in its structure -the most common cause of radicular syndromes is osteoporosis of the vertebral bodies of the column -the most common cause of radicular syndromes is intervertebral disk herniation

Answer 32

-the most common cause of radicular syndromes is osteoporosis of the vertebral bodies of the column

Question 33

Mark the incorrect statement: -the cause of functional disorders of the vertebral column are functional blockades of joints or overload of the back muscles -radicular syndrome is characterised by localised pain in one or multiple segments without radiating pain to the extremities -segmental syndrome is characterised by localised pain in one or multiple segments of the vertebral column without radiating pain to the extremities -disorders of the vertebral column of a degenerative nature are caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disks, vertebral bodies and facet joints

Answer 33

‘Radicular syndrome’ is characterised by localised pain in one or multiple segments without radiating pain to the extremities

Question 34

Radicular syndrome at the C8 level manifests with -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased triceps reflex -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased flexor finger reflex -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased flexor finger reflex

Answer 34

localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased flexor finger reflex

Question 35

Mark the correct statement -cervicobrachial syndrome describes pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating to the lower extremities, without the typical radicular distribution -cervicocranial syndrome describes headaches triggered by irritation of nerves of the skull due to muscular rigidity around the neck vertebral column -cervicocranial syndrome describes headaches triggered by compression of vessels passing through the so-called cervicocranial canal -lumboischiadic syndrome describes a combination of pain in the lumbar and cervical regions of the vertebral column with reduced mobility in both regions

Answer 35

cervicocranial syndrome describes headaches triggered by irritation of nerves of the skull due to muscular rigidity around the neck vertebral column

Question 36

Radicular syndrome at the C6 level manifests clinically with gene -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the thumb, weakened flexion and supination at the elbow joint, decreased biceps and styloradial reflexes -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the thumb, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased biceps and styloradial reflexes -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the little finger, weakened flexion and supination at the elbow joint, decreased biceps and styloradial reflexes -localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the thumb, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased biceps and styloradial reflexes

Answer 36

localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the ‘lateral’ side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the thumb, weakened flexion and supination at the elbow joint, decreased ‘biceps and styloradial reflexes’

Question 37

ADEM (Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis)is characterized by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with -multiple disseminated lesions in the gray matter of the brainstem, new lesions often are developed -large, extensive demyelination of white and gray matter only in the spinal cord, no new lesions are developed -large, extensive demyelination of both white and gray matter of the brain, no new lesions are developed -multiple small lesions disseminated in both white and gray matter of the brain, new lesions often increase

Answer 37

multiple small lesions disseminated in both white and gray matter of the brain, new lesions often increase

Question 38

Total functional incapacity - disability, of a patient with Multiple sclerosis is evaluated using a scale EDSS UPDRS NMSS NIHSS

Answer 38

EDSS

Question 39

Attack or relapse of Multiple sclerosis is not -a condition requiring the administration of a high dose of corticosteroids -a new symptom or a significant worsening of existing symptoms -stable period without worsening patient disability -a new symptom or a significant deterioration lasting at least 24 hours

Answer 39

stable period without worsening patient disability

Question 40

Multiple sclerosis has its first manifestation - a demyelinating event called a Clinically isolated syndrome, which most often occurs under images -myelitis, or optic neuritis, or myopathy (myositis) -optic neuritis, or myelitis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome -optic neuritis, myositis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome -optic neuritis, or polyneuritis, and brainstem-cerebellar syndrome

Answer 40

-optic neuritis, or myelitis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome

Question 41

Multiple sclerosis typically manifests at the disease onset with -optic neuritis -an epileptic seizure -polyneuropathy of the lower limbs -headache and meningeal syndrome

Answer 41

optic neuritis

Question 42

Epilepsy is -a result of valproate overproduction -abnormal, uncontrolled, synchronized electrical activity in neurons -a rare neurological disease -a tendency to experience recurrent, unprovoked seizures

Answer 42

a tendency to experience recurrent, unprovoked seizures

Question 43

Hypocretin deficient narcolepsy is a result of -immune mediated damage of sublaterodorsal nucleus -autoimmune attack focused on centrum semiovale -immune mediated damage of hypocretine neurons -autoimmune attack focused on deep gray matter of the brain

Answer 43

immune mediated damage of hypocretine neurons

Question 44

Some of the known triggers of epileptic seizures are -caffeine, chocolate and food allergies -taking anti-epileptic medication -sports -alcohol and lack of sleep

Answer 44

alcohol and lack of sleep

Question 45

What is the underlying cause of epileptic seizures? -allergies -abnormal electrical activity in the brain -barometric pressure -congenital defects

Answer 45

abnormal electrical activity in the brain

Question 46

Narcolepsy is a disorder characterized by -narcotic abuse -inability to regulate sleep-wake cycles -grand mal seizures -reliance on soporific drugs

Answer 46

inability to regulate sleep-wake cycles

Question 47

Mark the correct statement for Myasthenia gravis (MG) -3/4 of patients with MG have some abnormality of the thymus -affects women slightly more than men -it is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction -all of the other answers are correct

Answer 47

all of the other answers are correct

Question 48

Myasthenia gravis: which of the following options is correct for the so-called cholinergic crisis? -originates after the overdose of AChE inhibitors -manifests as muscle weakness, tremor, bradycardia, cramps, sweating, nausea, dyspnoea, increased bowel motility -in the treatment we use atropine -all of the other answers are correct

Answer 48

-all of the other answers are correct

Question 49

Which of the following tests/symptoms does not belong among the stress tests in the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis? - Gorelick’s sign - Simpson’s test - Seman’s test - Graefe’s sign

Answer 49

- Graefe’s sign

Question 50

What does not belong to the clinical picture of Myasthenia gravis? -diplopia -disorder of sensitivity -rhinolalia -dysphonia

Answer 50

disorder of sensitivity

Question 51

Which of the following options does not show an adequate therapy for Bell’s palsy? -in the case of compression or tumorous affection of the facial nerve, surgical treatment is adequate -rehabilitation and massage -IVIG or plasmapheresis -Corticoids in combination with virostatics

Answer 51

IVIG or plasmapheresis

Question 52

Mark the correct affirmation in ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) -in the clinical picture there is mainly a disorder of sensitivity -treatment for the cause does not exist -there is only affection of the lower motor neuron -there is only affection of the upper motor neuron

Answer 52

treatment for the cause does not exist

Question 53

In the clinical picture of the fibular nerve lesion -when there is fibular nerve compression under the flexor retinaculum, it leads to the so-called carpal tunnel syndrome -the patient is incapable of standing on the heel of the foot -hyporeflexia or areflexia of the L2-L4 reflexes is present -the patient is incapable of standing on tiptoes

Answer 53

the patient is incapable of standing on the heel of the foot

Question 54

For dermatomyositis it is correct - typically it affects young patients -the patient complains of progressive muscle weakness in the hip, shoulder, trunk, and later in the neck -all of the other answers are correct -skin changes are also present – erythema of the eyelids, erythema over the extensors, periorbital edema

Answer 54

all of the other answers are correct

Question 55

What is correct about the tibial nerve lesion -nerve compression occurs most often in the fibular tunnel -the patient is incapable of standing on the heel of the foot -the patient is incapable of standing on tiptoes -the so-called rooster-gait is present

Answer 55

the patient is incapable of standing on tiptoes

Question 56

What does not belong to the clinical picture of Bell’s palsy? -affection of the upper and lower branches of the facial nerve -paresis of the mimetic muscles of the face -peripheral lesion of the facial nerve -affection only of the lower branches of the facial nerve

Answer 56

affection only of the lower branches of the facial nerve

Question 57

Choose the incorrect statement about delirium tremens -there is psychomotor restlessness, hallucinations (insects, etc...) -in 10% of cases, epileptic seizures lead to delirium, during delirium tremens they are not present anymore -it is accompanied by hypotension and bradycardia -it starts after 2-3 days without alcohol

Answer 57

it is accompanied by hypotension and bradycardia

Question 58

In the case of acute alcohol intoxication, it leads to the following -in the beginning to somnolence, apathy, later to euphoria and to the shortening of the reaction time -reduction of concentration, dysarthria, ataxic gait, later there is the threat of coma and respiratory failure -none of the other answers are correct -extrapyramidal symptoms - ataxia and tremor in delirium tremens

Answer 58

reduction of concentration, dysarthria, ataxic gait, later there is the threat of coma and respiratory failure

Question 59

Recurrent hypoglycaemia in the case of badly compensated diabetes may in the long-term lead to -all of the other answers are correct -decrease in cognitive functions, development of dementia -decrease in the risk of strokes -amnestic syndrome related to Wernicke encephalopathy

Answer 59

decrease in cognitive functions, development of dementia

Question 60

Mark the incorrect statement about diabetic polyneuropathy? -possible causes are the disordered blood supply in the vasa nervorum and metabolic effects -mainly there is affection of the spinothalamic tract for sensitivity -the pain has a neuropathic character -most commonly it is symmetrical, mainly there is distal affection

Answer 60

mainly there is affection of the spinothalamic tract for sensitivity

Question 61

What may be a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal? -in the case of heavy abuse – epileptic seizures, hallucinations -in the case of an isolated excess – bradycardia, hallucinations -after some days of alcohol abuse – headache, without influence on the cardiovascular system -delirium tremens with onset after more than 5 days without alcohol

Answer 61

in the case of heavy abuse – epileptic seizures, hallucinations

Question 62

Herpes zoster is -a chronic neuroinfection caused by Varicella-zoster virus -reactivation of Varicella-zoster virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves -reactivation of Herpes Simplex virus infection affecting spinal cord -reactivation of Herpes Simplex virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves

Answer 62

reactivation of Varicella-zoster virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves

Question 63

Postherpetic neuralgia -all answers are correct -can be successfully treated by antiepileptics -responds well on anticoagulants -its management is based on non-steroidal antiflammatory drugs

Answer 63

can be successfully treated by antiepileptics

Question 64

Neurological manifestations of Lyme disease do not include -cranial nerve lesions (VII, VIII, ...) -Guillain-Barré syndrome -radicular syndrome -stroke like episodes

Answer 64

stroke like episodes

Question 65

Encephalitis manifests as -syndrome of intracranial hypertension following head trauma -fever, Headache and focal neurological symptoms e.g. aphasia -meningeal syndrome with presence of the hemoglobine metabolites in CSF -sudden onset of focal neurological signs in the patient over 60

Answer 65

fever, Headache and focal neurological symptoms e.g. aphasia

Question 66

What are leptomeninges? -pia and arachnoid mater -dura mater and spinal cord -brain and pia mater -spinal cord

Answer 66

pia and arachnoid mater

Question 67

Epstein-Barr virus infection is associated with -glioblastoma multiforme -CNS lymphoma -pituitary adenoma -1.-degree astrocytoma

Answer 67

CNS lymphoma

Question 68

The most malignant brain tumor is -glioblastoma multiforme -medulloblastoma -papillocarcinoma -oligodendroglioma

Answer 68

glioblastoma multiforme

Question 69

The diagnosis of meningeal carcinomatosis is not supported by -enhancement of brain meninges after administration of a contrast medium during MR examination -low levels of sugars in cerebrospinal fluid -the presence of malignant cells in the cerebrospinal fluid -high levels of sugars in cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 69

high levels of sugars in cerebrospinal fluid

Question 70

What does not belong to paraneoplastic neurological syndromes? -cerebellar degeneration -Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome -amyloid angiopathy -limbic encephalitis

Answer 70

amyloid angiopathy

Question 71

Focal clonic seizure known as a Jacksonian march can be a symptom of a tumor -in pons Varoli -in the frontal lobe -in the occipital lobe -in the brain

Answer 71

in the frontal lobe

Question 72

VEP – Visual evoked potentials =physiological finding after stimulation is a complex of three waves - NPN, where we mainly evaluate latency of the wave P100 =physiological finding after stimulation is a complex of five brainstem waves (wave I.-V.) where we mainly evaluate latency of the III. wave =physiological finding after stimulation is a complex of two waves - P25 and P40 =physiological finding after stimulation is a complex of three waves – I., III. and V. corresponding to the signal passage through the brainstem (N-P-N complex)

Answer 72

physiological finding after stimulation is a complex of three waves - NPN, where we mainly evaluate latency of the wave P100

Question 73

Typical tremor in cerebellar disorders is Postural Resting Intentional Isometric

Answer 73

Intentional

Question 74

Afferent pathways of deep sensation enters -into dorsal spinal columns -into ventral spinal horns -into dorsal spinal horns -I nto lateral spinal fascicles

Answer 74

into dorsal spinal columns

Question 75

Mark incorrect answer =brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T2 hyperintense lesions =brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions =MRI is indicated in patients with suspected inflammatory affection of a spinal cord =MRI is indicated in patients with suspected demyelinating disease

Answer 75

brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions

Question 76

Which of the following do not suggest brain structural abnormality in the origin of coma? -hemiplegia -quadriplegia -drop of the mouth angle -anisocoria

Answer 76

drop of the mouth angle

Question 77

MRI-angiography is absolutely contraindicated -in patients with renal insufficiency -in patients with metal (iron) implants -in pregnant women -in patient with claustrophobia

Answer 77

in patients with metal (iron) implants

Question 78

Which statement is not correct? =cessation of the airflow during sleep accompanies sleep apnea =K-komplexes point at the localisation of the epileptic focus =localisation of spike-wave discharges point at the epileptic focus =vertex sharp waves do not point at the localisation of the epileptic focus

Answer 78

K-komplexes point at the localisation of the epileptic focus

Question 79

Damage of corticonuclear tract in the left brain hemisphere manifests by: =central facial nerve palsy on the right side of a face central =facial nerve palsy on the both sides of a face =peripheral facial nerve palsy on the right side of a face =central facial nerve palsy on the left side of a face

Answer 79

central facial nerve palsy on the right side of a face

Question 80

Blepharospasm is dystonia of Vocal cords Cervical muscles Hand Eyelids

Answer 80

Eyelids

Question 81

Gait with character of dancing is typical for patients with Chorea Parkinsonism Tremor Ataxia

Answer 81

Chorea

Question 82

Various abnormal sensations such as burning, needles and pins, etc, which are unpleasant but not painful are called: paresthesia dysesthesia hyperpathy allodynia

Answer 82

paresthesia

Question 83

Cochlear nerve lesion manifests with =nystagmus on the opposite side of the lesion of the given nerve =balance disorder - ataxia =dizziness =hearing disorder - hypacusis or anacusis

Answer 83

hearing disorder - hypacusis or anacusis

Question 84

Mark correct statement for tic disorder: =affects mostly females =coincidence of tics and attention deficiency – hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) or obsessive- compulsive disorder (OCD) is improbable =diagnosis of Tourett’s syndrome is based on a presence of coprolalia (swearing or the involuntary utterance of obscene words or socially inappropriate and derogatory remarks) =tics might be voluntarily suppressed for a short time

Answer 84

tics might be voluntarily suppressed for a short time

Question 85

Mark correct statement =motor funiculus represents specific parts of the body over the motor cortex =primary motor cortex is localised in praecentral gyrus =corticospinal pathway passes through external capsule =corticospinal pathway has 2 neurons

Answer 85

primary motor cortex is localised in praecentral gyrus

Question 86

Duplex sonography of extracranial brain vessels =Has no significant contraindication =Is contraindicated in patients with allergy to iodinated contrast media =In pregnant women =Is contraindicated in patients in terminal stage of renal failure

Answer 86

Has no significant contraindication

Question 87

Tabic disociation of sensation means =defect in temperature =sensation defect of tactile =sensation defect of deep sensation =defect in pain sensation

Answer 87

defect of deep sensation

Question 88

Which part of a tongue is innervated by the Facial nerve (n. VII) regarding the taste? =ipsilateral anterior two thirds of a tongue =ipsilateral posterior third of a tongue =contralateral half of a tongue =ipsilateral anterior third of a tongue

Answer 88

ipsilateral anterior two thirds of a tongue

Question 89

Which of the following signs doesn’t belong to cerebellar syndrome? =dysmetria =nystagmus =instability of gait and posture =spasticity

Answer 89

spasticity

Question 90

Brain CT is =method for examination of bones of the skull =is the first choice for patients with dementia =is contraindicated in patients with pacemaker =method for the examintaion of brain structures in the scale of the grey colours

Answer 90

method for the examintaion of brain structures in the scale of the grey colours

Question 91

Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) are used to measure action potentials =in disorders of neuro-muscular transmission =after stimulation of a peripheral nerve, recording is over the spinal cord and cerebral cortex =after stimulation of a peripheral nerve, recording is over the nerve or muscle =in order to diagnose myopathy

Answer 91

after stimulation of a peripheral nerve, recording is over the nerve or muscle

Question 92

Wernicke center is in left temporal lobe right frontal lobe right temporal lobe left occipital lobe

Answer 92

left temporal lobe

Question 93

Brain MRI is essential in diagnosis of multiple sclerosis haemoragic stroke head injuries skull fracture

Answer 93

multiple sclerosis

Question 94

Peripheral (lower) motor neuron lesion is characterised by muscle atrophy hyperreflexia of tendon reflexes tremor positive patological signs

Answer 94

muscle atrophy

Question 95

Evoked potentials: SEP =n. axillaris and peroneal nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation =median nerve and optic nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation =median nerve and tibial posterior nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation =vestibulocochlear and optic nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation

Answer 95

median nerve and tibial posterior nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation

Question 96

Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) in case of demyelinative-axonal lesion of a peripheral nerve show A. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of normal amplitude B. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of lower amplitude C. accelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of higher amplitude D. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of higher amplitude

Answer 96

B. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of lower amplitude

Question 97

Patient presenting with unilateral flattened nasolabial fold and drop of mouth angle suffers from: =lagophthalmus =peripheral type of facial nerve lesion =central type of facial nerve lesion =combined type of facial nerve lesion

Answer 97

peripheral type of facial nerve lesion

Question 98

Which of following statement is true considering interal carotid artery? =ophtalmic artery is not its branch =temporal superficial artery is one if its branch =with duplex USG examination we are not able do distinguish between internal carotid artery and external carotid artery =it origins from splitting of common carotid artery to internal and external carotid artery, most commonly in C3/C4 level

Answer 98

it origins from splitting of common carotid artery to internal and external carotid artery, most commonly in C3/C4 level

Question 99

Doppler imaging in duplex USG examination of extracranial vessels =based on the magnitude (size) of the change in the frequency of the ultrasonic waves reflected from the moving particle, the velocity of the moving particles is determinated =displays stationary structures under the USG probe based on their echogenicity =the velocity of the moving blood in the vessel does not change significantly in stenoses above 50 % =based on the magnitude (size) of the change in the frequency of the ultrasonic waves reflected from the moving particle, the direction of the moving particles is determinated

Answer 99

based on the magnitude (size) of the change in the frequency of the ultrasonic waves reflected from the moving particle, the direction of the moving particles is determinated

Question 100

The evoked potential (EP) test is based on =registration of impulse propagation within the muscle registration of pulse =propagation in the neuro- muscular junction, it is response to a precisely defined peripheral nerve stimulation =registration of impulse propagation along the nerve pathway, it is the response of the nerve structures to a precisely defined peripheral stimulus =registration of pulse propagation in the muscle, it is a response of the muscle to a precisely defined stimulus

Answer 100

registration of impulse propagation along the nerve pathway, it is the response of the nerve structures to a precisely defined peripheral stimulus

Question 101

Graphospasm is dystonia of Cervical muscles Eyelids Hand Vocal cords

Answer 101

Hand

Question 102

In the treatment of temporal arteritis =the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of inflammatory markers =corticoids are not administered due the risk of thrombosis =antibiotics are indicated =corticoids are given only for visual disturbances

Answer 102

the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of inflammatory markers

Question 103

For the treatment of moderate to severe migraine attacks are used triptans CGRP beta-blockers topiramate

Answer 103

triptans

Question 104

Tension headache is =accompanied by increased lacrimation and nasal congestion =preventively treated by valproate or propranolol =more prevalent than cluster headache =accompanied by increased blood presure

Answer 104

more prevalent than cluster headache

Question 105

Incomplete Horner syndrome may be in =migraine =trigeminal neuralgia =cluster headache =temporal arteritis

Answer 105

cluster headache

Question 106

Category of primary headaches doesn't include =cluster headache =migraine without aura =paroxysmal hemicrania =headache in arterial hypertension

Answer 106

headache in arterial hypertension

Question 107

Which statement is not valid for vascular dementia? =the approved treatments are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors =by treating arterial hypertension we can reduce the risk of developing vascular dementia =Gingko biloga EGb 761 extract is approved for the treatment of vascular dementia =Treatment of atrial fibrillation reduces the risk of vascular dementia

Answer 107

Gingko biloga EGb 761 extract is approved for the treatment of vascular dementia

Question 108

Mark the correct statement =Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive change in memory functions over more than 6 months and especially by a deterioration of short-term episodic memory and its processing =Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive change in memory functions over more than 6 months and especially by a deterioration of short-term episodic memory together with nausea and vomiting =Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive change in memory functions over more than 3 months and especially by deterioration of long-term episodic memory =Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive change in memory functions over more than 6 months and especially by deterioration of long-term episodic memory

Answer 108

Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive change in memory functions over more than 6 months and especially by a deterioration of short-term episodic memory and its processing

Question 109

Which treatment is used in Alzheimer's disease? rivastigmine natalizumab amitriptyline levodopa

Answer 109

rivastigmine

Question 110

Which statement is valid for vascular dementia? =occurs only after a stroke =has a fluctuating course of dementia =accounts for about 50% of all dementias =we cannot influence the risk of its occurrence

Answer 110

has a fluctuating course of dementia

Question 111

A constant brain blood flow for brain functions is in the range of =30-40 ml / 100 g brain tissue / min =40-50 ml / 100 g brain tissue / min =10-20 ml / 100 g brain tissue / min =50–60 ml / 100 g brain tissue / min

Answer 111

50–60 ml / 100 g brain tissue / min

Question 112

Anticoagulant therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation is recommended in =CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 3 in men and ≤ 2 in women =CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 3 in women =CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 1 in women =CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 1 in men and ≤ 2 in women

Answer 112

CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 3 in women

Question 113

Secondary prevention in patients after overcoming ischemic stroke with atrial fibrillation is =anticoagulants, we prefer Warfarin =LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) =anticoagulants, we prefer direct oral anticoagulants =antiplatelets

Answer 113

anticoagulants, we prefer direct oral anticoagulants

Question 114

Atorvastatin is recommended in the secondary prevention of ischemic stroke in dose 20 mg 80 mg 10 mg 40 mg

Answer 114

80 mg

Question 115

For sinus cavernosus thrombosis is typical triad of =conjunctival chemosis, hemiparesis, headache =conjunctival chemosis, ptosis and painful ophthalmoparesis =aphasia, diplopia, headache *aphasia, hemiparesis, headache

Answer 115

conjunctival chemosis, ptosis and painful ophthalmoparesis

Question 116

Treatment of brain haemorrhage caused by vitamine K antagonists does not include =fresh frozen plasma =acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) =complex of coagulation factors =vitamine K

Answer 116

acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

Question 117

Most common risk factor for intracerebral heamorrhage is =dyslipidemia =arterial hypertension =smoking =diabetes mellitus

Answer 117

arterial hypertension

Question 118

Which of following signs is not typical for chronic communicating hydrocephalus =incontinence =chorea =progressive dementia =gait disturbances

Answer 118

chorea

Question 119

Posttraumatic complication is not neuroinfection hydrocephalus ependymoma seizure

Answer 119

ependymoma

Question 120

„Whiplash“ injury =is clinically manifested by poor quadruparesis after severe spine retroflexion =respiratory disorders are often present in the clinical picture =it is an injury of the cervical spine, associated with a sudden antero-posterior movement of the trunk and cervical spine with severe hyperflexia and subsequent hyperextension of the neck =sphincter dysfunction is often present in the clinical picture

Answer 120

it is an injury of the cervical spine, associated with a sudden antero-posterior movement of the trunk and cervical spine with severe hyperflexia and subsequent hyperextension of the neck

Question 121

Mark the correct statement =Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma, where the haematoma persists for several years =Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma where hydrocephalus develops =Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma, where its discoloration occurs as a result of coliquation and autolysis =Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of epidural hematoma where coliquation occurs

Answer 121

Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma where hydrocephalus develops

Question 122

Mark the correct statement =brainconcussion(Mildtraumaticbraininjury,mTBI)manifestsclinicallyasconfusionand/or disorientation, unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 180 minutes and post-traumatic amnesia lasting up to 72 hours =brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) manifests clinically as confusion and/or disorientation, unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes and post-traumatic amnesia lasting up to 24 hours =epidural haemorrhage is of arterial origin, the clinical picture of the patient progresses rapidly, the most common manifestation is an epileptic seizure =contusio cerebri (Mild brain injury, AMD) may be clinically manifested by a disorder of consciousness together with focal neurological symptoms, hyperdensive areas are present in the brain CT finding

Answer 122

contusio cerebri (Mild brain injury, AMD) may be clinically manifested by a disorder of consciousness together with focal neurological symptoms, hyperdensive areas are present in the brain CT finding

Question 123

Mark the correct statement =a complication of a skull fracture may be purulent meningitis =a fracture of the base of the skull may be manifested by a perioral hematoma =skull fractures are always only closed =autoimmune encephalitis may be a complication of a skull fracture

Answer 123

a complication of a skull fracture may be purulent meningitis

Question 124

Mark incorrect statements for Lewy body dementia (LBD) =visual hallucinations are present =LBD is the second most common neurodegenerative cause of dementia =dementia onsets before or within 1 year since the onset of parkinsonism =typical antipsychotics (e.g. haloperidol) are used to treat LBD

Answer 124

typical antipsychotics (e.g. haloperidol) are used to treat LBD

Question 125

The first and most important step for diagnosis of manifest Parkinson’s disease is =abnormal brain MRI =pathological DaT scan =presence of resting tremor = presence of parkinsonism (bradykinesia)

Answer 125

presence of parkinsonism (bradykinesia)

Question 126

Which of the following symptoms is typical for progressive supranuclear palsy? =abnormal vertical occular saccades =autonomic dysfunction (e.g. orthostatic hypotension) =apraxia =dementia

Answer 126

abnormal vertical occular saccades

Question 127

Radicular syndrome at the C7 level manifests clinically with A. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 2nd-3rd fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex B. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 2nd-3rd fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased biceps reflex C. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex D. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 2nd-3rd fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex

Answer 127

D. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 2nd-3rd fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex

Question 128

Radicular syndrome at the L4 level clinically manifests with A. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the anterior side of the thigh and medial side of the calf, weakness of the anterior tibial m., weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, decreased knee-jerk reflex B. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the posterior side of the thigh, weakness of the quadriceps femoris m., weakened extension at the knee joint, decreased Achilles tendon reflex C. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the posterior side of the thigh and medial side of the calf, weakness of the anterior tibial m., weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, unchanged reflexes D. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the anterior side of the thigh and medial side of the calf, weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle, weakened flexion at the hip joint, weakened extension at the knee joint, decreased knee-jerk reflex.

Answer 128

A. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the anterior side of the thigh and medial side of the calf, weakness of the anterior tibial m., weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, decreased knee-jerk reflex

Question 129

Mark the correct statement A. Laségue sign is positive in the case of radicular syndrome at the C8 level B. in the case of radicular syndrome at the S1 level the patient cannot stand on tiptoes C. knee-jerk reflex is decreased in the case of radicular syndrome at the L5 level D. dorsiflexion of the big toe of the foot is weakened in the case of radicular syndrome at the s1 level

Answer 129

B. in the case of radicular syndrome at the S1 level the patient cannot stand on tiptoes

Question 130

Mark the correct statement A. every patient with a vertebrogenic disorder must have within the diagnostic process a performed MRI examination of the vertebral column B. an auxiliary examination in the diagnostic of vertebrogenic disorders is the electrophysiological examination EEG (electroencephalogram) C. important parts in the diagnostic of vertebrogenic disorders are anamnesis, clinical neurological examination, and imaging examinations such as X-rays, CT or MRI D. in the case of radicular syndromes of the lower extremities, the irritation/stretching manoeuvres are positive only in patients who also have sphincter dysfunction

Answer 130

C. important parts in the diagnostic of vertebrogenic disorders are anamnesis, clinical neurological examination, and imaging examinations such as X-rays, CT or MRI

Question 131

Radicular syndrome at the C5 level manifests clinically with A. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, weakened abduction at the shoulder joint, weakened flexion and supination at the elbow joint and decreased flexor finger reflex B. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, weakened abduction at the shoulder joint, weakened flexion at the elbow joint and decreased biceps reflex C. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, weakened extension at the elbow joint and decreased biceps reflex D. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, weakened abduction at the shoulder joint, weakened flexion and supination at the elbow joint and decreased triceps reflex

Answer 131

B. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, weakened abduction at the shoulder joint, weakened flexion at the elbow joint and decreased biceps reflex

Question 132

Multiple sclerosis is A. chronic disease of the CNS, in which the dysimmune process leads to damage to myelin and axons B. dysimmune CNS disease with a monophasic course, dysimmune processes lead to myelin damage of neurons C. chronic brain disease with damage to small blood vessels by the inflammatory process D. chronic CNS disease affecting myelin and neuronal axons, occurring predominantly in children after some infections

Answer 132

A. chronic disease of the CNS, in which the dysimmune process leads to damage to myelin and axons

Question 133

Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders (NMOSD) is manifested by the following clear symptoms (characteristics) A. optic neuritis, acute myelitis, area postrema syndrome, acute brainstem syndrome, symptomatic narcolepsy or acute diencephalic syndrome, and meningeal syndrome B. optic neuritis, acute myelitis, area postrema syndrome, acute brainstem syndrome, symptomatic narcolepsy or acute diencephalic syndrome, and symptomatic cerebral syndrome C. optic neuritis, acute myelitis, area postrema syndrome, acute brainstem syndrome, symptomatic encephalitis, diencephalic syndrome, and symptomatic polyneuritic syndrome D. optic neuritis, acute myositis, area postrema syndrome, acute dermatitis, symptomatic narcolepsy or acute diencephalic syndrome, and symptomatic cerebral syndrome

Answer 133

B. optic neuritis, acute myelitis, area postrema syndrome, acute brainstem syndrome, symptomatic narcolepsy or acute diencephalic syndrome, and symptomatic cerebral syndrome

Question 134

Multiple sclerosis may be manifested by the development of optic neuritis with symptoms A. ocular muscle myopathy and pain behind both eyes B. deterioration of visual acuity and color vision disturbance C. Lhermitt's phenomenon and pain behind one eye D. double vision and color vision disturbance

Answer 134

B. deterioration of visual acuity and color vision disturbance

Question 135

When someone is having a tonic clonic seizure you must always A. make the area safe, measure the seizure (time), put something in the person’s mouth and sit on him/her B. put the patient on side during the seizure C. sit on the person to try to stop him/her moving around D .make the area safe, measure the seizure (time), cushion the head, and offer help

Answer 135

D. make the area safe, measure the seizure (time), cushion the head, and offer help

Question 136

Alcohol can be dangerous for a person with epilepsy because A. it can interfere with medication used to control seizures B. it can cause a heart attack C. it can cause seizures D. it can interfere with medication used to control seizures and cause seizures

Answer 136

D. it can interfere with medication used to control seizures and cause seizures

Question 137

Absence is A. a focal epileptic seizure manifested by staring with a typical SWC EEG 3Hz pattern B. a focal epileptic seizure with loss of the consciousness C. a generalized epileptic seizure manifested by staring with a typical SWC EEG 3Hz pattern D. a part of cataplectic seizures

Answer 137

C. a generalized epileptic seizure manifested by staring with a typical SWC EEG 3Hz pattern

Question 138

Cataplexy is A. a result syncronized epileptic firing B. mainly affecting distal C. muscles muscle atonia triggered by emotions D. triggered by sleep.

Answer 138

C. muscles muscle atonia triggered by emotions muscle atonia triggered by emotions

Question 139

What belongs to the clinical picture of Myasthenia gravis? A .abnormal tiredness, with a typical worsening with night progression B. ptosis of the eyelids C. all of the other answers are correct D. dysarthria, dysphagia

Answer 139

all of the other answers are correct

Question 140

Which of the following medications are contraindicated in the case of Myasthenia gravis? A. curariform myorelaxants B. all of the other answers are correct C. benzodiazepines D. magnesium

Answer 140

B. all of the other answers are correct

Question 141

In Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy the following is incorrect A .the beginning of the clinical manifestation is between the 2nd and 5th years of life B. it is a genetic disorder C. only boys are affected D. it is a treatable disorder

Answer 141

D. it is a treatable disorder

Question 142

Mark the incorrect statement for the central lesion of the facial nerve A. drooping of the mouth corner on the ipsilateral half of the face according to the lesion site B .drooping of the mouth corner on the contralateral half of the face according to the lesion site C. atrophies and fasciculations are missing D .occurrence in hemispheric lesions

Answer 142

A. drooping of the mouth corner on the ipsilateral half of the face according to the lesion site

Question 143

What is correct about the tibial nerve lesion A. the patient is incapable of standing on tiptoes B. nerve compression occurs most often in the fibular tunnel C. the so-called rooster-gait is present D. the patient is incapable of standing on the heel of the foo

Answer 143

A. the patient is incapable of standing on tiptoes

Question 144

In the case of carpal tunnel syndrome A. typically there are night paresthesias and dysesthesias which may wake the patient from sleep B. the cause is the lesion of the ulnar nerve C .thumb movement is preserved D. it is caused by compression of the median nerve in the Guyon’s canal

Answer 144

A. typically there are night paresthesias and dysesthesias which may wake the patient from sleep

Question 145

The typical finding of needle EMG in ALS(amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) manifests as A. all of the other answers are correct B. fasciculations C. fibrillations D. pathologic spontaneous resting muscle activity

Answer 145

A. all of the other answers are correct

Question 146

For the radial nerve lesion is correct: A. leads to weakening of finger flexion and thumb adduction B. dysfunction of sensitivity is localized on the dorsal side of the hand to the region between the 4th and the 5th metacarpus C. compression syndrome of the radial nerve manifests as the so-called pronator syndrome D. “swan-neck” deformity is presento

Answer 146

B. dysfunction of sensitivity is localized on the dorsal side of the hand to the region between the 4th and the 5th metacarpus

Question 147

Wernicke encephalopathy is connected with the deficiency of which vitamin? B3 B12 B1 B2

Answer 147

B1

Question 148

What belongs among the typical neurologic symptoms of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)? A. Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome B. all of the other answers are correct C. central pontine myelinolysis D. polyneuritis, polymyositis, brain infarcts

Answer 148

D. polyneuritis, polymyositis, brain infarcts

Question 149

Which of the following leads to central pontine myelinolysis? A. increased levels of ammonia in the blood B. recurrent acute hypoglycaemia C. insufficiency of vitamin B1 D. rapid correction of hyponatremia(frequently in chronic alcoholics)

Answer 149

D. rapid correction of hyponatremia(frequently in chronic alcoholics)

Question 150

Choose the incorrect statement about delirium tremens A. there is psychomotor restlessness, hallucinations (insects, etc...) B. it starts after 2-3 days without alcohol C. it is accompanied by hypotension and bradycardia D. in 10% of cases, epileptic seizures lead to delirium, during delirium tremens they are not present anymore

Answer 150

C. it is accompanied by hypotension and bradycardia

Question 151

Choose the incorrect statement about Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome A. it was described in Italian consumers of red wine B. is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1 C. manifests itself with confusion, epileptic seizures, loss of consciousness, may lead to dementia D. demyelination of the corpus callosum is present

Answer 151

B. is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1

Question 152

Which of the following lab values are characteristic of septic (purulent) meningitis? A. <0.6 mmol/L (low) glucose and normal proteins B. >1000 (high) mg/l proteins and <0.6 mmol/L (low) glucose C. 500-1000 (high) mg/l proteins and <0.6 mmol/L (low) glucose D. >1000 (high) mg/l proteins, and <0,6mmol (low) mg/l glucose

Answer 152

B. >1000 (high) mg/l proteins and <0.6 mmol/L (low) glucose

Question 153

An MRI is performed on a patient with Herpes simplex encephalitis. Which of the following is suggestive of this condition? A. "hockey stick" and "pulvinar signs" on MRI B. leptomeningeal enhancement in the basal regions C. T2 hypeintensity and restricted diffusion in the posterior cortical regions D. hemorrhagic changes in temporal lobe

Answer 153

D. hemorrhagic changes in temporal lobe

Question 154

In Herpes simplex encephalitis, which of the following is a characteristic EEG finding? A. 3-Hz spike and wave complexes B. triphasic waves C. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges D. occipital focal epileptic seizures.

Answer 154

C. periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges

Question 155

Classic symptoms of meningitis usually include A. backache, hallucinations, indigestion B. rash, dry skin, dehydration, cold sores C. rash, inner ear pain, itching D. fever, headache, stiff neck

Answer 155

D. fever, headache, stiff neck

Question 156

It is not one of the general symptoms of brain tumors A. mental changes B. diplopia C. intracranial hypertension syndrome D. seizures

Answer 156

B. diplopia

Question 157

Pseudotumor cerebri A. often occurs after penicillin treatment B. no papillary edema is present during optic fundus examination C. is a brain tumor without brain edema D. is a clinically condition similar to intracranial hypertension without an expansive brain lesion

Answer 157

D. is a clinically condition similar to intracranial hypertension without an expansive brain lesion

Question 158

Which of following statements is not true for DSA (digital subtraction angiography) ? A. DSA uses X-ray radiation B. DSA is not using X-ray radiation C. iodine contrast is used D. diagnostic catheter is inserted, most commonly through femoral artery (Seldinger technique)

Answer 158

B. DSA is not using X-ray radiation

Question 159

In lesion of left n. II A. on the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is present consensual FR B. on the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR C. on the left side is not present direct FR and the right side is present consensual FR D. on the left side is not present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR

Answer 159

C. on the left side is not present direct FR and the right side is present consensual FR

Question 160

Brain haemorrhage on CT is A. in acute stage is not visible B. white C. red D. black

Answer 160

B. white

Question 161

In case of a unilateral brainstem's lesion A. there is onion-type sensory lesion around the mouth and nose B. there is sensory lesion in the area of mandibula C. there is a hyposensitivity of the whole face D. there is a sensory lesion on the side of affected n. IV. nucleus

Answer 161

D. there is a sensory lesion on the side of affected n. IV. nucleus

Question 162

Lesion of a right cerebellar hemisphere manifests with A. problems with accurate movements on the right side of a body B. problems with accurate movements on the left side of a body C. left-sided peripheral vestibular syndrome D. right-sided peripheral vestibular syndrome

Answer 162

B. problems with accurate movements on the left side of a body

Question 163

Anozognosia: A. patient is not aware of his own speech problem B. is present in the lesion of nondominant (usually right) hemisphere C. problems with identifcation of the own body parts D. is inability to recognize a subject by touch

Answer 163

B. is present in the lesion of nondominant (usually right) hemisphere

Question 164

Lesion of right n. III manifests with: A. direct photoreaction (PR) is absent on the right eye and consensual PR is absent on the left eye B. direct photoreaction (PR) is present on the right eye and consensual PR is absent on the left eye C. direct photoreaction (PR) is present on the right eye and consensual PR is present on the left eye D. direct photoreaction (PR) is absent on the right eye and consensual PR is present on the left eye

Answer 164

D. direct photoreaction (PR) is absent on the right eye and consensual PR is present on the left eye

Question 165

Hyperproteinorachia A. is not present in patients with infectious inflammatory diseases of nervous system B. is defined as increased level of glucose in cerebrospinal fluid C. is never seen in patients with dysfunction of blood- brain barrier D. may be the result of positive intrathecal synthesis of Ig

Answer 165

D. may be the result of positive intrathecal synthesis of Ig

Question 166

Mark correct answers A. corticospinal pathway crosses between midbrain and pons B. corticospinal pathway terminates in dorsal horns of spinal cord C. corticospinal pathway crosses between pons and medulla oblongata D. corticospinal pathway passes through internal capsule

Answer 166

D. corticospinal pathway passes through internal capsule

Question 167

EMG (electromyography) is capable to localise a lesion at the level of A. brain B. muscle, spinal cord, spinal roots, plexus or peripheral nerve C. cortical and subcortical structures D. in basal ganglia and cerebellum

Answer 167

B. muscle, spinal cord, spinal roots, plexus or peripheral nerve

Question 168

Which EEG finding (pattern) is abnormal? A. K-complexes B. diminished occipital alpha after opening of the eyes C. Periodic Spike-wave-complexes, triphasic complexes D. sleep spindles

Answer 168

C. Periodic Spike-wave-complexes, triphasic complexes

Question 169

Repetitive nerve stimulation electromyography (STEMG) is used for a detection of A. pathological spontaneous muscle’s activation B. axonal lesion of a peripheral nerve C. demyelinating lesion of a peripheral nerve D. abnormal neuro-muscular transmission

Answer 169

D. abnormal neuro-muscular transmission

Question 170

Mark correct answer A. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is indicated in all patients with acute ischemic stroke B. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid measures increased level of proteins C. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in patients with suspected subarachnoidal bleeding D. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in patients with suspected multiple sclerosis

Answer 170

C. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in patients with suspected subarachnoidal bleeding

Question 171

Patients with cerebellar dysfunction have gait dysfunction with A. Character of dancing B. Pulling forward C. Wider basis D. Narrow basis

Answer 171

C. Wider basis

Question 172

Mark correct statement A. spinal cord lesion can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis B. brain hemispheral lesions can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis C. spinal cord lesion can be manifested by contralateral hemiparesis D. brainstem lesion can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis

Answer 172

A. spinal cord lesion can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis

Question 173

Mark correct statement for needle EMG (electromyography) finding in case of a myopathy A. myopathic pattern means prolonged duration of motor unit’s action potentials B. myopathic pattern - action potentials called “duplets” or “triplets” C. myopathic pattern means increased number of muscle fibres D. myopathic pattern means reduced duration of motor unit’s action potentials and decreased amplitude of a motor response

Answer 173

D. myopathic pattern means reduced duration of motor unit’s action potentials and decreased amplitude of a motor response

Question 174

Dysconection brain hemisferal syndrome is present A. in corpus callosum lesion B. in damage of connection between frontal and temporal lobe C. in damage of connection between precentral and postcentral gyrus D. in pyramidal tract lesion

Answer 174

A. in corpus callosum lesion

Question 175

CT- angiography of cerebral arteries A. is not used in diagnosis of brain aneurysm and arteriovenous malformation B. is contraindicated in subarachnoid haemorrhage C. is not used in evaluating of carotid artery stenosis D. is recomended in most patients with acute ischemic stroke in terapeutic window for recanalization therapy

Answer 175

D. is recomended in most patients with acute ischemic stroke in terapeutic window for recanalization therapy

Question 176

Brown-Sequard syndrome A. occurs in case of thalamic lesion contralaterally, with hemihypesthesia for all sensation modalities B. occurs in case of half side (right/left) spinal cord lesion, when tabetic disociation ipsilaterally and syringomyelic disociation contralateral to lesion is present C. occurs in case of half side spinal lesion, when syringomyelic disociation is present ispilaterally and tabetic disociasion is present in contralateral side D. occurs in case of transversal spinal cord lesion associated with sensation deficit below lesion

Answer 176

B. occurs in case of half side (right/left) spinal cord lesion, when tabetic disociation ipsilaterally and syringomyelic disociation contralateral to lesion is present

Question 177

Hypokinetic movement disorder is myoclonus parkinsonism chorea dystonia

Answer 177

parkinsonism

Question 178

Which of following findings is present in the inferior alternating hemiplegia? A. contralateral lesion of hypoglossal nerve B. ispilateral lesion of hypoglossal nerve C. contralateral lesion of n.VII D. ipsilateral hemiplegia

Answer 178

B. ispilateral lesion of hypoglossal nerve

Question 179

Cerebrospinal fluid examination is essential for diagnosis of A. narcolepsy B. radikulopathy C. Parkinson's disease D. epilepsy

Answer 179

A. narcolepsy

Question 180

Glasgow coma scale evaluates A. eye-opening, verbal, motor responses B. eye-opening, verbal and Babinski C. responses eye-opening, verbal, flection, extension responses D. comprehension, verbal, motor responses

Answer 180

A. eye-opening, verbal, motor responses

Question 181

Structures with density higher than the CSF are on the brain CT displayed as: white or gray grey or black black white and black

Answer 181

white or gray

Question 182

Ptosis of an eyelid is present in lesion of n. VII. n. III. n. II. n. V. - ramus ophtalmicus

Answer 182

n. III.

Question 183

Preventive treatment of migraine is indicated A. for up to 15 migraine attacks per month B. in case of three or more migraine attacks per month C. if migraine is accompanied by nausea D. in migraine with aura

Answer 183

A. for up to 15 migraine attacks per month

Question 184

Mark the correct statement for classical trigeminal neuralgia A. facial muscle palsy occurs as well B. is accompanied by photo- and phonophobia C. is treated by anticonvulsants (antiepileptics) D. might be caused by neurovascular conflict on the contralateral side of brainstem

Answer 184

C. is treated by anticonvulsants (antiepileptics)

Question 185

The following does not apply for triptan treatment A. are administered already during the aura B. perform selective vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels C. they act by influencing the central mechanisms of pain D. triptans act through serotonin receptors

Answer 185

A. are administered already during the aura

Question 186

Headache in migraine is A. always of milder intensity B. throbbing, worsened by exertion C. triggered by a soft touch in a particular facial area D. always preceded by aura

Answer 186

B. throbbing, worsened by exertion

Question 187

We do not include among treatable causes of dementia A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. hypovitaminosis B12 C. normotensive hydrocephalus D. hypothyroidism

Answer 187

A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Question 188

Mark the incorrect statement A. acetylcholine deficiency is implicated in the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease B. beta amyloid pathology is involved in the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease C. the pathology of tau protein is involved in the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease the D. pathology of alfa synuclein is involved in the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease

Answer 188

D. pathology of alfa synuclein is involved in the etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease

Question 189

Hypersensitivity to antipsychotics is typical for A. Frontotemporal dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Dementia with Lewy bodies D. Vascular dementia

Answer 189

C. Dementia with Lewy bodies

Question 190

In patients after overcoming ischemic stroke with AF, administration of oral anticoagulants is A. indicated one week after bleeding B. recommended for lobar bleeding C. is recommended in patients with hypertonic bleeding with well-controlled arterial D. hypertension contraindicated

Answer 190

B. recommended for lobar bleeding

Question 191

Which of following is NOT true, regarding intracerebral haemorrhage A. headache is often present B. clinical sings of ischemic stroke and intracerebral hemorrhage are significantly different C. focal neurodeficit my be present D. alteration of consciousness is more common, than in ischemic stroke

Answer 191

B. clinical sings of ischemic stroke and intracerebral hemorrhage are significantly different

Question 192

Hypertonic intracerebral hemorrhage typically does not occur A. in thalamus B. in pons C. in subcortical lobar localisation D. in basal ganglia

Answer 192

B. in pons

Question 193

Severity of subarachnoid haemorrhage is scaled by (clinical symptoms) A. Hunt-Hess scale B. Glasgow coma scale C. EDSS scale D. NIHSS scale

Answer 193

A. Hunt-Hess scale

Question 194

Spinal cord „shock“ (in case of spinal injuries) A. occurs immediately after a spinal cord injury and means the loss of all spinal functions and reflexes distally to the site of injury and does not change B. introduces at the beginning a complete loss of spinal cord functions with a spastic plegia, which after a certain time turns into flaccid paresis/plegia C. occurs 2 months after spinal cord injury, is associated with spinal cord edema and means loss of all spinal cord functions and reflexes distally to the site of injury D. is presented in the introduction with a complete loss of spinal cord functions with a weak plegia, which after a certain time changes into spastic paresis/plegia

Answer 194

D. is presented in the introduction with a complete loss of spinal cord functions with a weak plegia, which after a certain time changes into spastic paresis/plegia

Question 195

Mark the correct statement A. contusio cerebri (Mild brain injury, AMD) may be clinically manifested by a disorder of consciousness together with focal neurological symptoms, hyperdensive areas are present in the brain CT finding B. brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) manifests clinically as confusion and/or disorientation, unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes and post-traumatic amnesia lasting up to 24 hours C. epidural haemorrhage is of arterial origin, the clinical picture of the patient progresses rapidly, the most common manifestation is an epileptic seizure D. brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) manifests clinically as confusion and/or disorientation, unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 180 minutes and post-traumatic amnesia lasting up to 72 hours

Answer 195

A. contusio cerebri (Mild brain injury, AMD) may be clinically manifested by a disorder of consciousness together with focal neurological symptoms, hyperdensive areas are present in the brain CT finding

Question 196

Mark the correct statement A. in all patients with traumatic epidural haemorrhage, initial unconsciousness, a short lucid interval and subsequent re-development of a consciousness disorder with a focal neurological finding are present B. traumatic epidural haemorrhage (haematoma) is venous bleeding between the bone and the dura mater C. traumatic subdural haemorrhage (haematoma) is an arterial high-pressure haemorrhage that does not tend to stop spontaneously D. the most common source of traumatic epidural haemorrhage is rupture of arteria meningea media

Answer 196

D. the most common source of traumatic epidural haemorrhage is rupture of arteria meningea media

Question 197

Mark the incorrect statement A. subdural haematoma may be the cause of intracranial hypertension syndrome B. subdural haematoma may manifest as a progressive disorder of consciousness C. subdural haematoma may manifest itself in the development of focal symptoms from direct pressure of the haematoma on the brain tissue D. subdural haematoma occurs most often as a result of rupture of the bridging cerebral veins between the pia mater and the arachnoid after injury

Answer 197

C. subdural haematoma may manifest itself in the development of focal symptoms from direct pressure of the haematoma on the brain tissue

Question 198

Huntington’s disease is an autosomal recessive disease autosomal dominant disease mitochondrial disease X-linked recessive disease

Answer 198

autosomal dominant disease

Question 199

Which of the following is suggestive for Atypical parkinsonian syndrome? A. unilateral onset of the parkinsonism B. negative (physiologic) DAT scan C. good therapeutic effect of levodopa D. postural instability early in the course of the disease

Answer 199

D. postural instability early in the course of the disease

Question 200

Deep brain stimulation therapy in Parkinson’s disease is indicated in case of A. poorly controlled motor fluctuations B. prominent postural instability and repeated falls C. insufficient effect of dopaminergic medication (levodopa has no symptomatic effect) D. dementia and hallucinations

Answer 200

C. insufficient effect of dopaminergic medication (levodopa has no symptomatic effect)

Question 201

Mark the incorrect statement A. cervical myelopathy clinically manifests with flaccid paraparesis of the legs together with radicular pain of the arms and sphincter dysfunction B. in the diagnostic of cervical myelopathy, we use MRI of the cervical vertebral column and spinal cord C. cervical myelopathy clinically manifests with flaccid paraparesis of the legs and dysfunction of sensitivity from the dermatome Th2 distally D. cervical myelopathy is damage of the spinal cord in the region of the neck vertebral column, which originates after compression or microtrauma of the spinal cord by degenerative and osteoproductive processes of the vertebral column structure

Answer 201

C. cervical myelopathy clinically manifests with flaccid paraparesis of the legs and dysfunction of sensitivity from the dermatome Th2 distally

Question 202

Mark the incorrect statement A. sequestration of the intervertebral disk means that the nucleus pulposus B. penetrates through the annulus fibrosus and separates itself from the remaining disk protrusion of the intervertebral disk means that the disk is partially dislocated to the spinal canal C. osteophytes are bony outgrowths in the margins of the vertebral bodies, which may narrow the spinal canal D. sequestration of the intervertebral disks means that the nucleus pulposus penetrates through the annulus fibrosus but remains connected to the disk

Answer 202

B. cervicocranial syndrome describes headaches triggered by irritation of nerves of the skull due to muscular rigidity around the neck vertebral column D. sequestration of the intervertebral disks means that the nucleus pulposus penetrates through the annulus fibrosus but remains connected to the disk

Question 203

Treatment of radicular syndromes A. should comprise physiotherapy with the training of correct movement patterns immediately in the acute stage B. is always surgical C. comprises also the administration of local anaesthetics by inhalation D. is complex, in the beginning is focused on reducing pain most commonly by using anti- inflammatory, myorelaxant and anticonvulsive drugs

Answer 203

D. is complex, in the beginning is focused on reducing pain most commonly by using anti- inflammatory, myorelaxant and anticonvulsive drugs

Question 204

Radicular syndrome at the L5 level clinically manifests with A. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the thigh and calf, weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, decreased medioplantar reflex B. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the medial side of the thigh and calf, weakened plantarflexion of the foot, unchanged reflexes C. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the thigh and calf, weakened plantarflexion of the foot, unchanged reflexes D. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the thigh and calf, weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, unchanged reflexes

Answer 204

A. localized pain in the region of the lower back vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the thigh and calf, weakened dorsiflexion of the foot, decreased medioplantar reflex

Question 205

The definition of Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders - NMOSD is A. a group of diseases, which includes Neuromyelitis optica and other especially limited forms with involvement of other parts of the CNS (thalamus, hippocampus, basal ganglia) B. a group of diseases, which includes Neuromyelitis optica and other especially limited forms with involvement of other parts of the CNS (meninges, cranial nerves, hypothalamus) C. a group of diseases which includes Neuromyelitis optica and other particularly limited forms with involvement of other parts of the CNS (cerebral cortex, cranial nerves, basal ganglia) D. a group of diseases which includes Neuromyelitis optica and other particularly limited forms with involvement of other parts of the CNS (brainstem, diencephalon, hypothalamus)

Answer 205

D. a group of diseases which includes Neuromyelitis optica and other particularly limited forms with involvement of other parts of the CNS (brainstem, diencephalon, hypothalamus)

Question 206

Multiple sclerosis is treated causally for a long time with A. immunomodulators and immunosuppressants B. antibiotics and anticonvulsants C. immunosuppressants and antibiotics D.antibiotics, antivirotics, and monoclonal antibodies

Answer 206

A. immunomodulators and immunosuppressants

Question 207

Multiple sclerosis has its first manifestation - a demyelinating event called a Clinically isolated syndrome, which most often occurs under images A. optic neuritis, or myelitis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome B. optic neuritis, or polyneuritis, and brainstem-cerebellar syndrome C. optic neuritis, myositis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome D. myelitis, or optic neuritis, or myopathy (myositis)

Answer 207

A. optic neuritis, or myelitis, or brainstem-cerebellar syndrome

Question 208

Compared to a healthy person, how much more sleep does a patient with epilepsy need? A. three hours B. no extra sleep C. two hours D. one hour

Answer 208

B. no extra sleep

Question 209

Seizures can be caused by A. all of the above B. malfunctioning gene C. exposure to a toxic substance D. brain injury that left scar tissue or other damage

Answer 209

A. all of the above

Question 210

All of the following are hallmark symptoms of narcolepsy except A. persistent daytime sleepiness B. loud snoring C. cataplexy D. hypnagogic hallucinations and Sleep paralysis

Answer 210

B. loud snoring

Question 211

Diagnostic tests for epilepsy include all of the following except A. Wada test B. brain scan C. EEG D. simple blood tests

Answer 211

D. simple blood tests

Question 212

For Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, the following is incorrect A. weakness of the proximal muscles (mainly of the legs), is typical B. affection of the bulbar muscles is typical C. in the treatment corticoids are used D. in 60% of patients it occurs as a paraneoplastic disorder, most commonly associated with small-cell carcinoma of the lung

Answer 212

B. affection of the bulbar muscles is typical

Question 213

For polymyositis it is correct A. the patient complains of neck weakness and weakness of the proximal limb muscles, dyspnoea may develop B. typically it affects older patients C. all of the other answers are correct D. sometimes additional malignant tumours are found

Answer 213

C. all of the other answers are correct

Question 214

Myasthenia gravis is A. an autoimmune disorder B. an infectious disorder C. a genetically conditioned disorder D. a neurodegenerative disorder

Answer 214

A. an autoimmune disorder

Question 215

For Congenital myotonia it is incorrect A. muscular hypertrophy,muscular cramps are typical (muscular habitus) B. on the EMG there is a characteristic myotonic discharge, which is caused by a repetitive discharge of an individual muscle fibre C. is characterized by persistent muscle contraction and slowed relaxation after voluntary contraction or after mechanical irritation of the muscles D. there is autosomal recessive inheritance – Thomsen’s type of congenital myotonia, or autosomal dominant inheritance – Becker’s type of congenital myotonia

Answer 215

D. there is autosomal recessive inheritance – Thomsen’s type of congenital myotonia, or autosomal dominant inheritance – Becker’s type of congenital myotonia

Question 216

In the case of facial nerve lesion in the region of the pontocerebellar angle it is adequate to perform a lumbar punction BAEP EEG VEP

Answer 216

Baep

Question 217

What may we find in the laboratory picture in ALS(amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)? A. increased levels of the enzymes: CK, ALT, AST, LDH and creatinine B. increased levels of the enzymes: CK, CK-MB, LDH, Troponins and NT-proBNP C. decreased levels of the enzymes: CK, CK-MB, LDH, Troponins and NT-proBNP D. decreased levels of the enzymes: CK, ALT, AST, LDH a creatinine

Answer 217

A. increased levels of the enzymes: CK, ALT, AST, LDH and creatinine

Question 218

What does not belong to the clinical picture of ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)? A. extreme atrophy B. disorder of sensitivity c. respiratory insufficiency D.mixed paresis

Answer 218

B. disorder of sensitivity

Question 219

What causes the neurologic symptoms in the case of hepatic encephalopathy? A. reduced levels of ceruloplasmin and increased levels of free copper in the blood B. increased levels of ammonia in the blood C. increased levels of bilirubin in the blood D. thrombocytopenia

Answer 219

B. increased levels of ammonia in the blood

Question 220

What is correct about Korsakoff syndrome? A. typically there is retrograde and anterograde amnesia B. it is a complication of chronic alcohol consumption C. all of the other answers are correct D. there is the occurrence of confabulations

Answer 220

C. all of the other answers are correct

Question 221

The diagnose of Herpes Simplex Encephalitis is based on presence of A. positive herpetic cultivation of CSF B. herpetic DNA in CSF C. herpetic IgG antibodies in serum D. herpetic IgM antibodies in serum

Answer 221

B. herpetic DNA in CSF

Question 222

Which bacterium is Gram-positive microbe causing meningitis? C. jejuni N. meningitis S. pneumoniae H. influenzae

Answer 222

S. pneumoniae

Question 223

Which statement is correct? A. MRI is used to diagnose HSV encephalitis B. CSF is used to diagnose HSV encephalitis C. all of them D. EEG supports the diagnose of HSV encephalitis

Answer 223

C. all of them

Question 224

For the treatment of intracranial hypertension in brain tumors we administer A. diuretics B. corticosteroids C. hypertonic solutions (mannitol) D. all options are correct

Answer 224

D. all options are correct

Question 225

The most common tumors in adults are A. meningiomas, neurinomas, pituitary tumors B. meningiomas, glioblastomas, pituitary tumors C. ependymomas, neurinomas, meningiomas D. glioblastomas, neurinomas, pituitary tumors

Answer 225

B. meningiomas, glioblastomas, pituitary tumors

Question 226

Focal clonic seizure known as a Jacksonian march can be a symptom of a tumor A. in the frontal lobe B. in pons Varoli C. in the occipital lobe D. in the brain

Answer 226

A. in the frontal lobe

Question 227

Conjunctival chemosis and eye movement disorder is not typical for A. thrombosis sinus cavernosus B. keratoconjuctivitis C. meningioma at the wing of the sphenoid bone D. pituitary adenoma

Answer 227

D. pituitary adenoma

Question 228

Brain CT is the first choice in diagnostics of A. multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer disease C. acute stroke D. Parkinson disease

Answer 228

C. acute stroke

Question 229

Gait disorders are not typically present in: A. advanced Parkinson’s disease B. lesion of VIII. cranial nerve C. lesion of IX. cranial nerve D. lesion of a posterior column pathway

Answer 229

C. lesion of IX. cranial nerve

Question 230

Vestibular ataxia in relation to peripheral vestibular syndrome A. is manifested with tonic limb and trunk deviations opposite to the affected vestibular apparatus; it is named „dysharmonic vestibular syndrome“ B. is not manifested with balance problems, only with nausea C. is manifested with tonic limb and trunk deviations towards the affected vestibular apparatus; it is named „harmonic vestibular syndrome“ D. is manifested with dysharmonic vestibular syndrome

Answer 230

C. is manifested with tonic limb and trunk deviations towards the affected vestibular apparatus; it is named „harmonic vestibular syndrome“

Question 231

VEP – Visual evoked potentials are mainly used for A. the detection of anterior and posterior visual pathway disorders, mainly optic nerve disorders B. the detection of eye muscles weakness C. the detection of visual and hearing pathway disorders D. the detection of proprioceptive (deep sense) pathway disorders

Answer 231

A. the detection of anterior and posterior visual pathway disorders, mainly optic nerve disorders

Question 232

Short steps and decreased arm-swing during the gait is typical for: A. peripheral vestibular syndrome B. central vestibular syndrome c. Parkinsonism D, cerebellar syndrome

Answer 232

c. Parkinsonism

Question 233

Superior alternating hemiplegia is called A. Jackson II syndrome B. Millard – Gubler syndrome C. Weber syndrome D. Brown - Séquard syndrome

Answer 233

C. Weber syndrome

Question 234

On the plane X- ray we can see bones brain haemorrhage brain tumor vessels

Answer 234

Bone

Question 235

Mark correct statement for functional (psychogenic) movement disorders A. patient is malingering the symptoms B. antipsychotics are used as a first-line treatment C. physiotherapy might help D. their pattern is constant and doesn’t change with distraction

Answer 235

physiotherapy might help

Question 236

Evoked potentials: pathological findings in the BAEP examination may reveal early stages of A. tumor affecting optic nerve or optic chiazma B. tumor affecting statoacustic nerve (n. vestibulocochlearis) C. tumor affecting median nerve D. tumor affecting cervical spinal cord

Answer 236

B. tumor affecting statoacustic nerve (n. vestibulocochlearis)

Question 237

Mark incorrect statements for superior alternating hemiplegia: A. lesion of a pyramid tract is located in midbrain B. contralateral hemiplegia is present C. contralateral lesion of n.VII is present D. ipsilateral lesion of oculomotor nerve is present

Answer 237

C. contralateral lesion of n.VII is present

Question 238

For evaluation of the brainstem reactivity in comatous patient we do not use: Babinski sign oculocephalic reflexes vestibuloocular reflexes gag reflex

Answer 238

Babinski sign

Question 239

Symptoms, which is absolutely necessary for diagnosis of parkinsonism (present in 100% patients) is Rest tremor Postural instability Bradykinesia Rigidity

Answer 239

Bradykinesia

Question 240

Which diseases do not cause syndrome of intracranial hypertension? brain tumor fracture of a skull epidural bleeding subdural bleeding

Answer 240

fracture of a skull

Question 241

Trigeminal neuralgia A. is pain treated with common analgesics B. is a paroxysmal pain of both left and right n.V. C. is a neuropatic pain which is treated by anticonvulsants D. is a paroxysmal pain of the first branch of n.V

Answer 241

C. is a neuropatic pain which is treated by anticonvulsants

Question 242

Pathway for temperature sensation A. crosses in front of central canal in comisura anterior alba B. do not cross on the level of spinal cord C. crosses behind central canal D. crosses in decussatio lemniscorum

Answer 242

A. crosses in front of central canal in comisura anterior alba

Question 243

Typical features of NREM sleep are not A. Sleep spindels B. K-komplexes, vertex sharp waves C. rapid eye movements D. delta frequency band

Answer 243

C. rapid eye movements

Question 244

Which from following statement is true? A. right common carotid artery diverge directly form aortic arch B. right internal carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunc B. left internal carotid artery diverge directly form aortic arch C. right common carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunc

Answer 244

C. right common carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunc

Question 245

Temporal lobe syndrom is associated with A. non fluent aphasia B. contralateral hyposensitivity C. the lesion of the visual field D. anosognosia

Answer 245

C. the lesion of the visual field

Question 246

Mark incorrect statement for rigidity A. is increased by any movements of a contralateral limb B. occurs in atypical parkinsonian syndromes C. depends on a velocity of a passive movement of a limb D. occurs in Parkinson’s disease

Answer 246

C. depends on a velocity of a passive movement of a limb

Question 247

Tics can not present with A. Problems with coordination of movements B. Vocalizations and shouting C. Simple jerky movements D. Complex movement such as jumping, rolling, etc.

Answer 247

A. Problems with coordination of movements

Question 248

Vestibular ataxia: mark correct statement A. ataxia does not change after closing the eyes, Romberg ́s sign is negative B. ataxia does not change after closing eyes, Romberg ́s sign is positive C. ataxia worsens after closing the eyes, Romberg ́s sign is negative D. ataxia worsens after closing the eyes, Romberg ́s sign is positive

Answer 248

D. ataxia worsens after closing the eyes, Romberg ́s sign is positive

Question 249

Which from the following statements considering Doppler effect is true ? A. if the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected waves decreases B. none of these statements are correct C. if the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected waves increases D. if the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected waves does not change

Answer 249

A. if the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected waves decreases

Question 250

Sonography is used in neurology for diagnosis of A. Parkinson's disease and other movement disorders B. Ischemic stroke and other cerebrovascular diseases C. Alzheimer's disease D. Brain tumors

Answer 250

B. Ischemic stroke and other cerebrovascular diseases

Question 251

Botulinum toxin A .its effectiveness has been confirmed in the prevention of episodic migraine B. is not used in the treatment of migraine C .it is always given only on the side of the headache D. is used in an acute migraine attack

Answer 251

A .its effectiveness has been confirmed in the prevention of episodic migraine

Question 252

A painful tic (tic douloureux) is present at A. cluster headache B. temporal arteritis C. classical (primary) trigeminal neuralgia D. migraine

Answer 252

C. classical (primary) trigeminal neuralgia

Question 253

Aura in migraine with aura A. lasts 4.5 hours B. occurs at the same time as the headache C. can never be aphasic D. usually lasts 5-60 minutes

Answer 253

D. usually lasts 5-60 minutes

Question 254

Which statement is valid for vascular dementia? A. accounts for about 50% of all dementias B. we cannot influence the risk of its occurrence C. has a fluctuating course of dementia D. occurs only after a stroke

Answer 254

C. has a fluctuating course of dementia

Question 255

Mark the incorrect statement A. postural instability with falls and gait disorders may be part of the clinical picture of Lewy body dementia B. progressive dysexecutive syndrome with memory deficiency is typical for dementia with Lewy bodies C. extrapyramidal symptoms may be part of the clinical picture of Lewy body dementia D. episodic memory disorder is typical for dementia with Lewy bodies

Answer 255

C. extrapyramidal symptoms may be part of the clinical

Question 256

Which of the following statements is not true? A. vascular dementia is characterized by a sudden onset and gradual progression of cognitive deficit B. repeated complex visual hallucinations are typical for FTD (frontotemporal degeneration) C. neuronal loss in the hippocampus is typical for Alzheimer's disease D. cognitive fluctuations with changes in alertness and attention is typical for LBD (Lewy body dementia)

Answer 256

B. repeated complex visual hallucinations are typical for FTD (frontotemporal degeneration)

Question 257

Which of the following symptoms is not present in patients with FTD (frontotemporal degeneration)? A. dyssexecutive-behavioral syndrome B. progressive motor aphasia C. anomia D. visual hallucinations

Answer 257

D. visual hallucinations

Question 258

The following does not apply to the management of arterial hypertension A. For patients over 80 years of age, values BP of 130 - 139 mm Hg are recommended only if these values of BP are tolerated B. In patients with known arterial hypertension, the target BP is <140/90 mmHg, or systolic blood pressure <130-135 mmHg C, Reduction of systolic blood pressure by 10 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure by 5 mm Hg reduces the risk of stroke by up to 41% D. For patients over 80 years of age, values of blood pressure 130 - 139 mm Hg are always recommended

Answer 258

D. For patients over 80 years of age, values of blood pressure 130 - 139 mm Hg are always recommended

Question 259

Does not apply to a patient with aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis within a time window of up to 4.5 hours A. we do CT Brain and CT AG examination B, we do only CT of the brain C. if CT is negative, we administer rTPA D. if there are early signs of ischemia, we can administer rTPA

Answer 259

C. if CT is negative, we administer rTPA

Question 260

Central hemiparesis and aphasia occur in stroke in the territory of A. left internal carotid artery B. left middle cerebral artery C. anterior cerebral artery right D. middle cerebarl artery

Answer 260

B. left middle cerebral artery

Question 261

Intracerebral heamorrhage occurs appoximatelly in A. 5 % of strokes B. 7-10 % of strokes C. 1-3 % of strokes D. 15 % of strokes

Answer 261

B. 7-10 % of strokes B. 7-10 % of strokes

Question 262

Correction of an elevated blood pressure A. in ischemic stroke the correction should be faster than those in haemorrhagic stroke B. is strictely contraindicated in haemorrhagic stroke C. is strictely contraindicated in ischemic stroke D. in haemorrhagic stroke the correction should be faster than those in ischemic stroke

Answer 262

D. in haemorrhagic stroke the correction should be faster than those in ischemic stroke

Question 263

The basic characteristics of the brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) include A. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes B. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes C. Glasgow coma scale 8-10 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes D. Glasgow coma scale 8-10 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes

Answer 263

B. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes

Question 264

Which of the following symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is often resistant to levodopa treatment? A. bradykinesia B. resting tremor C. postural instability D. rigidity

Answer 264

C. postural instability

Question 265

Mark correct statement about Wilson’s disease A. it is treated by penicilamine B. zinc tablets are contraindicated C. treatment may discontinue after the improvement of neurological symptoms D. spleen transplantation is performed if oral medication is ineffective

Answer 265

A. it is treated by penicilamine

Question 266

In the process of diagnosing multiple sclerosis, is not beneficial magnetic resonance clinical evaluation cerebrospinal fluid genetic testing

Answer 266

genetic testing

Question 267

Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders (NMOSD) is A. a common autoimmune disease with spinal cord involvement B. a common autoimmune disease with brain only involvement C. a rare CNS disease with brain and spinal cord involvement B. a rare disease of children, post-infectious or post-vaccination inflammatory complication

Answer 267

C. a rare CNS disease with brain and spinal cord involvement

Question 268

Multiple sclerosis most often takes place under the picture of the clinical form A. relapsing-progressing form B. secondary-progressive form C. relapse-remitting form D. primary-progressive form

Answer 268

C. relapse-remitting form

Question 269

How does a physician diagnose epilepsy? A. electroencephalogram (EEG) B. history or description of seizures C. history or description of seizures, and electroencephalogram (EEG) D. Positron emission tomography (PET)

Answer 269

C. history or description of seizures, and electroencephalogram (EEG)

Question 270

Epilepsy affects A. anyone regardless of age, ethnicity B. only those people with a family history of epilepsy C. only children and old people D. 10% of population

Answer 270

A. anyone regardless of age, ethnicity

Question 271

Although the characteristics of a seizure may differ from person to person, seizures are caused by the same thing A. a brief episode of signs or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain B. a brief episode of signs or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain and spinal cord C. a brief episode of signs or symptoms due to lack of oxygen in the brain, only D. a brief episode of signs or symptoms due to hypoglycaemia, only

Answer 271

A. a brief episode of signs or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain

Question 272

Focal epilepsy is diagnosed in a patient with A. generalized tonic clonic seizures B. any focal epileptic seizures C. atonic seizures D. generalized epileptic seizures

Answer 272

B. any focal epileptic seizures

Question 273

What is incorrect about the ulnar nerve lesion? A. leads to dysfunction of the small hand muscles movement B. leads to dysfunction of sensitivity in the lateral side of the 4th and 5th fingers C. leads to dysfunction of the thumb movement D. Froment's sign may be present - an inability to grasp paper

Answer 273

B. leads to dysfunction of sensitivity in the lateral side of the 4th and 5th fingers

Question 274

What is incorrect about the ulnar nerve lesion? A. leads to dysfunction of the small hand muscles movement B. leads to dysfunction of sensitivity in the lateral side of the 4th and 5th fingers C. leads to dysfunction of the thumb movement D. Froment's sign may be present - an inability to grasp paper

Answer 274

B. leads to dysfunction of sensitivity in the lateral side of the 4th and 5th fingers

Question 275

What belongs among the neurologic complications of hypothyreosis? A. myalgia, apathy, depression, epileptic seizures B. all of the other answers are correct C. dementia syndrome (treatable) D. polyneuropathy (axonal type)

Answer 275

B. all of the other answers are correct

Question 276

Which finding in the brain MRI accompanies Wernicke’s encephalopathy? A. expansive T2 hyperintense lesions frontal subcortically B. multiple small ischemic lesions infratentorial C. atrophy of the hippocampal regions D. small haemorrhages in the region of the mammillary bodies and around the third and fourth ventricles

Answer 276

D. small haemorrhages in the region of the mammillary bodies and around the third and fourth ventricles

Question 277

What kind of infection is most likely to cause a macroscopically cloudy/flaky (non-transparent) CSF in a patient with suspected meningitis? bacterial all of them fungal viral

Answer 277

bacterial

Question 278

Regarding Neurosyphilis, which of the following statements is incorrect? A. asymptomatic neurosyphilis means that neurosyphilis is present, but the individual reports no symptoms and does not feel sick B. it occurs in people with syphilis, especially if they are left untreated C. signs of neurosyphylis include vision loss, loss of reflexes and loss of sense of vibration, poor gait, and impaired balance D. is a exclusively a disease of brain and meninges

Answer 278

D. is a exclusively a disease of brain and meninges

Question 279

What is the leading cause of viral meningitis? JC virus Rabies Enterovirus HSV-1 and HSV-2

Answer 279

Enterovirus

Question 280

The first choice method for the diagnosis of brain tumors in the fossa posterior is all options are equivalent brain PET brain CT brain MRI

Answer 280

brain MRI

Question 281

Which tumor has the worst prognosis for the patient? A. meningioma in the brainstem B. grade 1 astrocytoma in the cerebellum C. neurinoma n. VIII. D. pituitary adenoma

Answer 281

A. meningioma in the brainstem

Question 282

„Drunk-man“ gait with broadened basis is typical for: A. lesion of a posterior column pathway (proprioception) B. cerebellar lesion C. peripheral vestibular syndrome D. parkinsonian syndromes

Answer 282

B. cerebellar lesion

Question 283

Which pathological conditions are not indications for cerebrospinal fluid's analysis? myelitis brain tumor multiple sclerosis meningeal carcinomatosis

Answer 283

brain tumor

Question 284

In the case of half side spinal cord lesion in level of L2 segment which of following can be present? A. contralateral flaccid monoparesis of lower limb B. ipsilateral flaccid monoparesis of lower limb C. flaccid paraparesis of lower limbs D. ipsilateral spastic monoparesis of lower limb

Answer 284

B. ipsilateral flaccid monoparesis of lower limb

Question 285

Mark correct statement for glycorrhachia: A. hypoglycorrhachia is present in patients with tubrculous meningoencephalitis B. normal level of glucose in cerebrospinal fluid is approx. 1/3 of glycemia c .hyperglycorrhachia is present in patients with meningeal carcinomatosis d. hypoglycorrhachia is present in patients with multiple sclerosis

Answer 285

A. hypoglycorrhachia is present in patients with tubrculous meningoencephalitis

Question 286

CT angiography of brain vessels is not contraindicated A. in pregnant woman B. in patient with non rupture aneurysm of brain arteries C. in patients with terminal stage of renal failure D. in patients allergic to iodine contrast

Answer 286

B. in patient with non rupture aneurysm of brain arteries

Question 287

Use the Chipault's rule - If patient suffers from sensory loss in Th4 dermatoma, the lesion of a spinal colum is located at the level of vertebra: Th 4 Th 2 Th 6 Th 8

Answer 287

Th 2

Question 288

Middle alternating hemiplegia manifests with: A. contralateral central lesion of n.VII B. ispilateral central lesion of n.VII C. ispilateral peripheral lesion of n.VII D. contralateral peripheral lesion of n.VII

Answer 288

B. ispilateral central lesion of n.VII

Question 289

In MRI-angiography of brain vessels A. is not possible to visualize brain venous sinus B. it is possible do visualize brain arteries, without using contrast medium C. iodine contrast medium is used D. injection of gadolinium contrast medium is necessary

Answer 289

D. injection of gadolinium contrast medium is necessary

Question 290

Polysomnographic Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) is used to diagnose: A. sleep apnea B. periodic limb movements in sleep C. epilepsy D. narcolepsy

Answer 290

D. narcolepsy

Question 291

Bicipital reflex A. is integrated in C7 spinal cord level B. reflex response is forearm extension C, reflex response is forearm flexion D. is performed by tapping on distal part of radius

Answer 291

C, reflex response is forearm flexion

Question 292

Evoked potentials: BAEP - the most common pathological findings are A. absence or prolonged latency of wave IV. B. absence or prolonged latency of P100 wave C. absence or prolonged latency of N20 wave D. absence or prolonged latency of wave I., III. or V.

Answer 292

D. absence or prolonged latency of wave I., III. or V.

Question 293

Frontal lobe syndrom is associated with A. affected conjugate movement of the eyes B. fluent aphasia C. visual problem D. contralateral hyposensitivity

Answer 293

A. affected conjugate movement of the eyes

Question 294

Mark correct answer A. the mean volume of cerebrospinal fluid is approx. 500 ml B. cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous system by villi arachnoidales C. cerebrospinal fluid is produced mainly in the fourth ventricle D. cerebrospinal fluid is produced mainly in the third ventricle

Answer 294

B. cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous system by villi arachnoidales

Question 295

Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) is not used A. in case of a stent implantation into carotid or vertebral artery B. for imaging of intracerebral hemorrhage C. in case of an acute mechanic trombectomy (removal of a thrombus from brain arteries) D. for endovascular treatment of aneuysm - coiling

Answer 295

C. in case of an acute mechanic trombectomy (removal of a thrombus from brain arteries)

Question 296

Alexia is a vision disorder is inability to count is inability to write is inability to understand the written text

Answer 296

is inability to understand the written text

Question 297

Bilateral hyposmia (both nostrils) is present A. as a prodromal sign of Parkinson's disease B. in patients with brain tumors C. in stroke D. in lesion of bulbus olfactorius

Answer 297

A. as a prodromal sign of Parkinson's disease

Question 298

By the Duplex sonography of extracranial brain vessels we are not able to examine A. size and stability od atherosclerotic plaques in extracranial segment of both carotid territories B. width and flow in deeply localised vertebral arteries C. bending and winding of carotid arteries in the neck area D, stenosis or occlusion of internal carotid artery in carotid siphone

Answer 298

D, stenosis or occlusion of internal carotid artery in carotid siphone