Photonews Flashcards by Alicja Hasiec

Mark the incorrect statement about diabetic polyneuropathy?
A. possible causes are the disordered blood supply in the vasa nervorum and metabolic effects
B. mainly there is affection of the spinothalamic tract for sensitivity
C. the pain has a neuropathic character
D. most commonly it is symmetrical, mainly there is distal affection

B. mainly there is affection of the spinothalamic tract for sensitivity

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With Which (rapid changing) parameters of osmolarity does lead to the depevelopment of metabolic encephalopathy
A. Over 330 mmol/l or under 250mmol/l
B. Over 310 mmol/l or under 270mmol/l
C. Over 380 mmol/l or under 200 mmol/l
D. Over 350 mmol/l or under 230mmol/l

C. Over 380 mmol/l or under 200 mmol/l

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What belongs among typical neurologic symptoms of SLE
A. Polyneuritis,…,brain infarcts
B. Marchiafava…
C. All correct
D. Central pontine myelinolysis

A. Polyneuritis,…,brain infarcts

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In the case of acute alcohol intoxication, it leads to the following
A. in the beginning to somnolence, apathy, later to euphoria and to the shortening of the reaction time
B. extrapyramidal symptoms - ataxia and tremor in delirium tremens
C. none of the other answers are correct
D. reduction of concentration, dysarthria, ataxic gait, later there is the threat of coma and respiratory failure

D. reduction of concentration, dysarthria, ataxic gait, later there is the threat of coma and respiratory failure

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Which bacterium is Gram-positive microbe causing meningitis?
C. jejuni
N. meningitis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

S. pneumoniae

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An MRI is performed on a patient with Herpes simplex encephalitis. Which of the following is suggestive of this condition?
A. leptomeningeal enhancement in the basal regions
B. hockey stick and pulvinar signs on MRI
C. hemorrhagic changes in temporal lobe

C. hemorrhagic changes in temporal lobe

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All of the following may be associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome
except
A. first symptom is altered mental status
B. weakening or tingling sensation in the legs
C. nearly complete paralysis
D. weakness in the arms and upper body

A. first symptom is altered mental status

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Which statement is correct?
A. MRI is used to diagnose HSV encephalitis
B. CSF is used to diagnose HSV encephalitis
C. all of them
D. EEG supports the diagnose of HSV encephalitis

C. all of them

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Pseudotumor cerebri
A. often occurs after penicillin treatment
B. no papillary edema is present during optic fundus examination
C. is a brain tumor without brain edema
D. is a clinically condition similar to intracranial hypertension without an expansive brain lesion

D. is a clinically condition similar to intracranial hypertension without an expansive brain lesion

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Optical chemolisis and eye movement disorder is not typical for:
A. Pituary adenoma
B. Keratoconjunctivitis
C. Meningoma at the wing of sphenoid bone
D. Thrombosis sinus cavernous

B. Keratoconjunctivitis

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Tumor treatment options are
A. radiotherapy, chemotherapy, stereotactic neurosurgery and surgery
B. craniotomy and surgery only
C. stereotactic neurosurgery only
D. radiotherapy and chemotherapy

A. radiotherapy, chemotherapy, stereotactic neurosurgery and surgery

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The basic for the diagnosis of brain tumors are
A. EEG, CT angiography and MRI of the brain
B. Clinical picture, imaging examinations and histologization of the tumor
C. Clinical picture and PET of the brain
D. Brain CT and brain MRI

B. Clinical picture, imaging examinations and histologization of the tumor

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The first choice method for the diagnosis of brain tumors in the fossa posterior is
A. all options are equivalent
B. brain PET
C. brain CT
D. brain MRI

D. brain MRI

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Mark the incorrect statement
A. postural instability with falls and gait disorders may be part of the clinical picture of Lewy body dementia
B. progressive dysexecutive syndrome with memory deficiency is typical for dementia with Lewy bodies
C. extrapyramidal symptoms may be part of the clinical picture of Lewy body dementia
D. episodic memory disorder is typical for dementia with Lewy bodies

B. progressive dysexecutive syndrome with memory deficiency is typical for dementia with Lewy bodies

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Anticoagulant therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation is recommended in
A. CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 3 in men and ≤ 2 in women
B. CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 3 in women
C. CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 1 in women
D. CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 1 in men and ≤ 2 in women

B. CHA2DS2-VASc ≤ 2 in men and ≤ 3 in women

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CT-angiography in case of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)
A. is not used at all
B. is commonly performed in pregnant patients
C. is used mainly to determinate the source of bleeding
D. is not performed in acute stage of SAH

C. is used mainly to determinate the source of bleeding

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The following does not apply to the management of arterial hypertension
A. For patients over 80 years of age, values BP of 130 - 139 mm Hg are recommended only if these values of BP are tolerated
B. In patients with known arterial hypertension, the target BP is <140/90 mmHg, or systolic blood pressure <130-135 mmHg
C. Reduction of systolic blood pressure by 10 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure by 5 mm Hg reduces the risk of stroke by up to 41%
D. For patients over 80 years of age, values of blood pressure 130 - 139 mm Hg are always recommended

D. For patients over 80 years of age, values of blood pressure 130 - 139 mm Hg are always recommended

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Mark the incorrect statement
A, the most common cause of post+traumatic hydrocephalus is excessive cerebrospinal fluid production
B. Epileptic seizures may occur in a patient with craniocereberal injury
C. Craniocerebellar injoury can be associated with intracerebelar hematoma
D. Neuroinfection may not be complication of a skull base fracture

A, the most common cause of post+traumatic hydrocephalus is excessive cerebrospinal fluid production

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Huntington’s disease is an
A. autosomal recessive disease
B. autosomal dominant disease
C. mitochondrial disease
D. X-linked recessive disease

B. autosomal dominant disease

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Mark the most specific (clinical) symptom of prodromal Parkinson’s disease
A. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD)
B, depression
C. constipation
D. orthostatic hypotension

A. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD)

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Treatment of radicular syndromes
A. is complex, in the beginning is focused on reducing pain most commonly by using anti-inflammatory, myorelaxant and anticonvulsive drugs
B. comprises also the administration of local anaesthetics by inhalation
C, is always surgical
D. should comprise physiotherapy with the training of correct movement patterns immediately in the acute stage

A. is complex, in the beginning is focused on reducing pain most commonly by using anti-inflammatory, myorelaxant and anticonvulsive drugs

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Radicular syndrome at the C8 level manifests with
A. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased triceps reflex
B. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased flexor finger reflex
C. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the dorsal side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened extension at the elbow joint, decreased triceps reflex
D. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the lateral side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased flexor finger reflex

A. localized pain in the region of the neck vertebral column, radiating through the inner medial side of the shoulder, forearm, down to the 4th-5th fingers, weakened flexion of the fingers, decreased triceps reflex

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Compared to a healthy person, how much more sleep does a patient with epilepsy need?
A. three hours
B. no extra sleep
C. two hours
D. one hour

B. no extra sleep

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Mark the correct statement for Myasthenia gravis (MG)
A. 3/4 of patients with MG have some abnormality of the thymus
B. affects women slightly more than men
C. all of the other answers are correct
D. it is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction

C. all of the other answers are correct

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Which of the following options represents the explanation of the so-called Gorelick's symptom in the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis? A. in the case of mild ptosis, if the patient looks upwards for 1 min., it leads to the worsening of the ptosis B. reading aloud induces a disorder of speech and phonation C. if the patient looks upwards and with the finger elevates the eyelid on the side with the more significant ptosis, then on the contralateral side it leads to complete drooping in a couple of seconds D. none of the other answers is correct

C. if the patient looks upwards and with the finger elevates the eyelid on the side with the more significant ptosis, then on the contralateral side it leads to complete drooping in a couple of seconds

The first manifestation of ALS appears when there is a loss of 5 % motor neurons 75 % motor neurons 90 % motor neurons 40 % motor neurons

75 % motor neurons

What is the clinical picture of polineuropathy does not belong A. Affection of the lower extremities more than the upper extremities B. Affection of the distal segment of extremities more than the proximal C. Asymetric affection of the proximal segments of the extremities D, bilateral symmetric affection

C. Asymetric affection of the proximal segments of the extremities

What does not belong among the typical manifestations of hypoglycaemia? A. epileptic seizures, disorder of consciousness B. psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNEZ) C. autonomic symptoms (sweating, nausea, tachycardia, etc...) D. focal neurological symptoms (e.g. hemiparesis, so-called stroke mimic)

B. psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNEZ)

Choose the incorrect statement about Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome A. it was described in Italian consumers of red wine B. is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1 C. manifests itself with confusion, epileptic seizures, loss of consciousness, may lead to dementia D. demyelination of the corpus callosum is present

B. is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1

Encephalitis manifests as A. syndrome of intracranial hypertension following head trauma B. fever, headache and focal neurological symptoms e.g. aphasia C. meningeal syndrome with presence of the hemoglobine metabolites in CSF D. sudden onset of focal neurological signs in the patient over 60

B. fever, Headache and focal neurological symptoms e.g. aphasia

Herpes zoster is A. a chronic neuroinfection caused by Varicella-zoster virus B. reactivation of Varicella-zoster virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves C. reactivation of Herpes Simplex virus infection affecting spinal cord D. reactivation of Herpes Simplex virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves

B. reactivation of Varicella-zoster virus infection affecting peripheral or cranial nerves

Does not apply to the treatment of intracranial thrombosis A. after stabilization, we administer oral anticoagulants (DOAC - direct oral anticoagulants) B. after stabilization, we administer oral anticoagulants (warfarin), with a target INR of 2.0 - 2.5. C. treatment is used for 6 months in cases of known local cause, if the hypercoagulable state is present is used for long-term D. we administer anticoagulants parenterally (heparin or low molecular weight heparin)

B. after stabilization, we administer oral anticoagulants (warfarin), with a target INR of 2.0 - 2.5

Secondary prevention in patients after overcoming ischemic stroke with atrial fibrillation is A. anticoagulants, we prefer Warfarin B. LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) C. anticoagulants, we prefer direct oral anticoagulants D. antiplatelets

C. anticoagulants, we prefer direct oral anticoagulants

Intracerebral heamorrhage occurs appoximatelly in A. 15 % of strokes B. 7-10 % of strokes C. 5 % of strokes D. 1-3 % of strokes

B. 7-10 % of strokes

The following does not applaud to patients with a tarsi stent ischemic attack: A. We do brain CT including CT AG B. Holster monitoring is not required C. If the brain ct is negative, we complete brain MRI D. We always do an ultrasound examination of the extracranial vessels of the brain

B. Holster monitoring is not required

The basic characteristics of the brain concussion (Mild traumatic brain injury, mTBI) include A. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes B. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes C. Glasgow coma scale 8-10 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes D. Glasgow coma scale 8-10 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 60 minutes

B. Glasgow coma scale 13-15 points + unconsciousness (if present) lasting up to 30 minutes

Which nonmotor symptom does not belong (never) to Parkinson’s disease? A. hyposmia B. depression C. dementia D. deafness

D. deafness

Mark the most specific (clinical) symptom of prodromal Parkinson’s disease A. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) B. depression C. constipation D. orthostatic hypotension

A. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD)

Which of the following is suggestive for Atypical parkinsonian syndrome? A. unilateral onset of the parkinsonism B. negative (physiologic) DAT scan C. good therapeutic effect of levodopa D. postural instability early in the course of the disease

D. postural instability early in the course of the disease

Mark the correct statement A. Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma, where the haematoma persists for several years B. Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma where hydrocephalus develops C. Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma, where its discoloration occurs as a result of coliquation and autolysis D. Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of epidural hematoma where coliquation occurs

C. Subdural hygroma is a developmental stage of chronic subdural hematoma, where its discoloration occurs as a result of coliquation and autolysis

„Whiplash“ injury A. it is an injury of the cervical spine, associated with a sudden antero-posterior movement of the trunk and cervical spine with severe hyperflexia and subsequent hyperextension of the neck B. respiratory disorders are often present in the clinical picture C. is clinically manifested by poor quadruparesis after severe spine retroflexion D. sphincter dysfunction is often present in the clinical picture

A. it is an injury of the cervical spine, associated with a sudden antero-posterior movement of the trunk and cervical spine with severe hyperflexia and subsequent hyperextension of the neck

Aura in migraine with aura A. lasts 4.5 hours B. occurs at the same time as the headache C. can never be aphasic D. usually lasts 5-60 minutes

D. usually lasts 5-60 minutes

In the treatment of temporal arteritis A. the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of B. inflammatory markers antibiotics are indicated C. corticoids are not administered due the risk of thrombosis D. corticoids are given only for visual disturbances

A. the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of

Subarachnoid haemorrhage is most commonly caused by A. rupture of arteriovenous malformation B. trauma C. cerebral amyloid angiopathy D. rupture of intracranial aneurysm

D. rupture of intracranial aneurysm

Correction of an elevated blood pressure A. in ischemic stroke the correction should be faster than those in haemorrhagic stroke B. is strictely contraindicated in haemorrhagic stroke C. is strictely contraindicated in ischemic stroke D. in haemorrhagic stroke the correction should be faster than those in ischemic stroke

D. in haemorrhagic stroke the correction should be faster than those in ischemic stroke

Most common risk factor for intracerebral heamorrhage is A. dyslipidemia B. arterial hypertension C. smoking D. diabetes mellitus

B. arterial hypertension

Intraceanial (brain) hemmorage presents: A. 1-5% of stroke B. 5-10 % of stroke C. >20 % of stroke D. 10-15 % of stroke

D. 10-15 % of stroke

Which of the following symptoms is not typical for patients with normotensive hydrocephalus? A. bulbar paralysis B. gait disorders C. dementia D. urinary incontinence

A. bulbar paralysis

Which of the following symptoms is not present in patients with FTD (frontotemporal degeneration)? A. dyssexecutive-behavioral syndrome B. progressive motor aphasia C. anomia D. visual hallucinations

D. visual hallucinations

Does not apply to a patient with aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis within a time window of up to A. we do CT Brain and CT AG examination B. we do only CT of the brain C. if CT is negative, we administer rTPA D. if there are early signs of ischemia, we can administer rTPA

C. if CT is negative, we administer rTPA

Cardioembolic stroke represents from ischemic strokes 50% 80% 20% 30%

20%

Headache in migraine is A. always of milder intensity B. throbbing, worsened by exertion C. triggered by a soft touch in a particular facial area D. always preceded by aura

B. throbbing, worsened by exertion

Which of the following statement is not true? A. routine laboratory examination of patients with dementia should include assessment of thyroid function B. the examination of patients with dementia includes an examination of the level of vitamin B12 C. imaging tests are the part of the diagnostic process in patients with dementia D. the clock drawing test is used to detect visual hallucinations

D. the clock drawing test is used to detect visual hallucinations

What findings would you expect from an FDG-PET scan in patients with Alzheimer's disease? A. hypermetabolism in the frontal lobe B. hypometabolism in the frontal lobe C. hypermetabolism in the temporal and parietal lobes D. hypometabolism in the temporal and parietal lobes

D. hypometabolism in the temporal and parietal lobes

Which are the treatable causes of dementia? A. thrombocytopenia B. polyradiculoneuritis C. hypovitaminosis D D. hypothyroidism

D. hypothyroidism

Aura in migraine with aura A. lasts 4.5 hours B. occurs at the same time as the headache C. can never be aphasic D. usually lasts 5-60 minutes

D. . usually lasts 5-60 minutes

In the treatment of temporal arteritis A. the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of inflammatory markers B. antibiotics are indicated C. corticoids are not administered due the risk of thrombosis D. corticoids are given only for visual disturbances

A. the duration of corticoid administration depends on the value of inflammatory markers

Tension headache is A. accompanied by increased lacrimation and nasal congestion B. preventively treated by valproate or propranolol C. more prevalent than cluster headache D. accompanied by increased blood presure

C. more prevalent than cluster headache

What does not apply to a migraine attack? A. xaura preced headaches B. sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine B. triptans work best when given at the beginning of an attack C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used in treatment

B. sleep deprivation prevents the recurrence of a migraine

21. Mark the correct statement A. the epidural haematoma is shown in the CT as a lenticular hypodense formation B. untreated epidural bleeding (haematoma) leads very quickly to transtentorial herniation of brain tissue and death of the patient C. in case of epidural haemorrhage (haematoma), evacuation of the haematoma is indicated if spontaneous resorption does not occur after 48 hours D. the epidural haematoma appears in the CT image as a lenticular hyperdense formation

D. the epidural haematoma appears in the CT image as a lenticular hyperdense formation

Photonews Flashcards

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