Neuro Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What drug is used in an emergency to stop seizures?

A

Diazepam (Valium)

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2
Q

What properties does Diazepam (Valium) have?

A

patent anti-seizure properties

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3
Q

What are some drugs used for preventing/controlling seizures?

A

Diazepam (Valium), Pentobarbital, Phenobarbital, Bromide (Potassium Bromide), Gabapentin, Levetiracetam (Keppra), Zonisamide

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4
Q

What is the drug of choice for long term epilepsy control?

A

Phenobarbital

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5
Q

What is a common side effect of Phenobarbital that all clients should know about?

A

drowsiness

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6
Q

How can Phenobarbital be given?

A

oral or IV

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7
Q

What is Potassium Bromide?

A

traditional anticonvulsant used an add-on to Phenobarbital if patient is not responding to Phenobarb alone

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8
Q

How can Diazepam (Valium) be given?

A

IV or rectally

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9
Q

What are some side effects of anti-seizure medications?

A

drowsiness, PU/PD, hepatotoxicity (Phenobarbital)

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10
Q

What is Primidone?

A

converted by the liver primarily to Phenobarbital which accounts for its anticonvulsant activity

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11
Q

How do inhalant anesthetics work?

A

enter and exit via the lungs with little biotransformation – rapid induction and recovery

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12
Q

What are the types of inhalant anesthetics?

A

Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Halothane, Methoxyflurane

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13
Q

What is the biotransformation rate of Isoflurane?

A

<0.2%

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14
Q

What animals is Sevoflurane ideal for?

A

ideal for high-risk small animals because of its safety and rapid, smooth induction

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15
Q

What does Halothane cause?

A

causes cardiac dysrhythmias

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16
Q

What is the biotransformation rate of Sevoflurane?

A

3%

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17
Q

What is the biotransformation rate of Halothane?

A

25%

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18
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic has the greatest biotransformation rate of all the inhalants?

A

Methoxyflurane (50%)

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19
Q

How fast does Propofol work?

A

rapid onset and lasts 2-5 minutes

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20
Q

How is Propofol given?

A

IV

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21
Q

What are the clinical uses for Propofol?

A

induction agent, outpatient procedures, c-section

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22
Q

Why is Propofol used for c-sections?

A

does not cross placental barrier

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23
Q

What are some side effects of Propofol?

A

apnea if given too rapidly, prolonged recovery, and/or Heinz body production in cats with repeated use

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24
Q

What is Guaifenesin?

A

induces anesthesia and muscles relaxation, extends anesthesia of another injectable

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25
Q

What drugs are in the Central Nervous System Stimulants group?

A

Doxapram

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26
Q

What does Doxapram do?

A

stimulates respiration and/or heart rate in emergency situations

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27
Q

How is Doxapram used in neonates?

A

1-2 drops under tongue of newborn into umbilical vein can stimulate respirations

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28
Q

How do pharmacotherapy drugs work?

A

most work by altering neurotransmitters in the brain

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29
Q

What drugs fall under the antianxiety medication group?

A

Benzodiazepines - Diazepam (Valium), Alprazolam (Xanax), Lorazepam (Ativan), and Azapirones - Buspirone

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30
Q

What are some uses for antianxiety medications?

A

fears and phobias, anxiety, aggression, urine marking

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31
Q

What are some side effects of antianxiety medications?

A

lethargy, hepatic necrosis in cats

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32
Q

What drugs fall under the antidepressant group?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants - Amitriptyline, Clomipramine (Clomicalm), Serotonin Reuptake inhibitors - Fluoxetine, Trazodone, Monoamine Oxidase-B inhibitors - Selegiline, Miscellaneous - Gabapentin

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33
Q

What are the uses for antidepressant medications?

A

anxiety, aggression, obsessive disorders

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34
Q

What are some side effects of antidepressants?

A

sedation

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35
Q

What is Pentobarbital?

A

pentobarbital sodium alone or in combination with other drugs
euthanasia solution

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36
Q

What is a common side effect of Pentobarbital?

A

muscle twitching

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37
Q

Which reaction is the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

decreased heart rate

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38
Q

What drugs fall under the tranquilizer group?

A

Phenothiazine - Acepromazine, Benzodiazepines - Diazepam (Valium), Midazolam, Alprazolam (Xanax)

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39
Q

What are some uses of Phenothiazine tranquilizers?

A

sedation, cardiovascular effects

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40
Q

What properties do Phenothiazine tranquilzers have?

A

antiemetic properties

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41
Q

What are some side effects of tranquilizers?

A

lowers seizure threshold in epileptic animals, hypotension

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42
Q

What are some uses for Benzodiazepine tranquilizers?

A

treatment of seizures, sedation, appetite stimulant in cats

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43
Q

What drugs fall under the alpha-2 agonist group?

A

Xylazine, Detomidine, Medetomidine, Dexmetatimadine, Romifidine

44
Q

What is the reversal agent of Xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

45
Q

What is Xylazine often used in combination with?

A

Ketamine

46
Q

What are the clinical uses of Xylazine?

A

sedation, analgesia

47
Q

What are some side effects of Xylazine?

A

bradycardia

48
Q

What are some clinical uses for Detomidine?

A

sedation and analgesia in horses

49
Q

What are some side effects of Detomidine?

A

bradycardia

50
Q

What is the reversal agent for Detomidine?

A

Atipamezole

51
Q

What is the reversal agent for Medetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

52
Q

What are the clinical uses for Medetomidine?

A

minor surgical procedures that do not require intubation

53
Q

What are some side effects of Medetomidine?

A

bradycardia

54
Q

What is a form of Dexmedetomidine?

A

Dexdomitor

55
Q

What are some side effects of Dexmedetomidine?

A

bradycardia

56
Q

What is the reversal agent for Dexedetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

57
Q

What is a long acting Barbituate?

A

Phenobarbital

58
Q

What is a short acting Barbituate?

A

Pentobarbital

59
Q

What is an ultra-short acting Barbituate?

A

Thiopental

60
Q

What is Phenobarbital used for?

A

anticonvulsant for epileptic seizures

61
Q

Is Phenobarbital controlled or uncontrolled?

A

controlled

62
Q

What is Pentobarbital used for?

A

can get 1-2 hours of anesthesia with small doses
Euthanasia drug

63
Q

Is Pentobarbital controlled or uncontrolled?

A

controlled

64
Q

What are the clinical uses for Dissociative agents?

A

sedation, restraint, analgesia, anesthesia

65
Q

What are some forms of Opioid Agonists?

A

Morphine, Oxymorphone, Butorphanol tartrate, Fentanyl, Hydrocodone, Apomorphine, Codeine, Buprenorphine

66
Q

What receptor does Morphine work on?

A

Mu receptor agonist

67
Q

What receptor does Oxymorphone work on?

A

Mu agonist

68
Q

What is the reversal agent for Opioids?

A

Naloxone

69
Q

What receptor does Butorphanol tartrate work on?

A

Mu agonist

70
Q

What are the clinical uses for Butorphanol tartrate?

A

analgesia and preanesthetic, antitussive properties

71
Q

What receptor does Morphine work on?

A

Mu receptor agonist

72
Q

What Opioid can be given through transdermal patches?

A

Fentanyl

73
Q

What is Hydrocodone?

A

antitussive

74
Q

What is Apomorphine?

A

induces vomiting

75
Q

Is Butorphanol tartrate controlled on uncontrolled?

A

controlled

76
Q

Is Fentanyl controlled or uncontrolled?

A

controlled

77
Q

Is Hydrocodone controlled or uncontrolled?

A

controlled

78
Q

Is Codeine controlled or uncontrolled?

A

controlled

79
Q

What is Codeine?

A

antitussive

80
Q

What receptor does Buprenorphine work on?

A

partial Mu agonist/antagonist

81
Q

How is Buprenorphine absorbed?

A

transmucosal absorption

82
Q

What are some side effects of Opioid Agonists?

A

panting, nausea

83
Q

What are some clinical uses for Opioid Antagonists?

A

antagonize opioid effects

84
Q

What are some forms of Opioid Antagonists?

A

Naloxone

85
Q

Cholinergic drugs work with the _________________ system.

A

parasympathetic system

86
Q

What are some forms of Cholinergic drugs?

A

Bethanechol, Pilocarpine, Metoclopramide, Edrophonium, Neostiamine, Pyridostimine

87
Q

What is Metoclopramide?

A

Reglan, vomiting control

88
Q

What Cholinergic is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium

89
Q

What Cholinergic drug is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

90
Q

What are some side effects of Cholinergic drugs?

A

bradycardia, hypotension

91
Q

What are the clinical uses for Anticholinergic drugs?

A

decreases GI motility, prevents bradycardia

92
Q

What are some forms of Cholinergic Blocking Agents?

A

Atropine, Glycopyrrolate, Propantheline, Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

93
Q

What Cholinergic Blocking Agents treat organophosphate toxicity?

A

Atropine and 2-PAM

94
Q

Adrenergic Agents work with the __________ system.

A

sympathetic system

95
Q

What are some forms of Adrenergic Agents?

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Dopamine, Phenylpropanolamine, Dobutamine

96
Q

What is Epinephrine?

A

increases cardiac output

97
Q

What is Dopamine?

A

treats shock and congestive heart failure

98
Q

What is Phenylpropanolamine?

A

used to treat urinary tract incontinence

99
Q

What is Dobutamine?

A

short term treatment of congestive heart failure

100
Q

What are some side effects of Adrenergic Agents?

A

tachycardia, hypertension

101
Q

What are the clinical uses for Adrenergic Blocking Agents?

A

disrupt the activity of the sympathetic nervous system

102
Q

What are some forms of Adrenergic Blocking Agents - Alpha blockers?

A

Phenoxybenzamine, Acepromazine, Prazosin, Yohimbine, Atipamezole

103
Q

What are some forms of Adrenergic Blocking Agents - Beta blockers?

A

Propanolol, Timolol, Atenolol

104
Q

What are some side effects of Adrenergic Blocking Agents?

A

bradycardia, hypotension

105
Q

What drugs are used on the Central Nervous System?

A

depressants, stimulants, euthanasia drugs