Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine (Y4) > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs are used in the acute treatment of migraine?

A

Simple analgesia +/- triptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give 2 examples of first-line preventative agents for migraine.

A

Topiramate and propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which agents can be used in the acute treatment of cluster headache?

A

High-flow oxygen and triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which agent may be used to prevent attacks of cluster headache?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the mainstays of treatment for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

Weight loss, acetazolamide, diuretics, therapeutic LPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the gold-standard test in suspected SOL?

A

MRI brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the first-line treatment for PD?

A

Levo-dopa (with dopa decarboxylase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give causes of a postural tremor.

A

Essential tremor, anxiety, thyrotoxicosis, physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chorea weeks to months after Group A strep infection is…

A

Syndenham chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Parkinsonism + Autonomic Disturbance suggests…

A

Multi-System Atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the investigation of choice for narcolepsy?

A

multiple sleep latency EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Defective downward gaze and vertical diplopia suggests damage to…

A

CN IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first-line drug for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Weakness that improves with exercise suggests…

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which myotome is shoulder abduction?

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which myotome is elbow flexion and wrist extension?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which myotome is elbow extension and wrist flexion?

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which myotome is finger abduction?

A

T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which myotome is hip flexion?

A

L1,2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which myotome is big toe extension?

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which myotome is ankle plantarflexion?

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which myotome is knee flexion?

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the main ascending and descending spinal tracts?

A

Ascending - DCML and Spinothalamic

Descending - corticospinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The DCML is responsible for which senses?

A

Fine touch and proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The spinothalamic tract is responsible for which sensations?

A

Pain and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the DCML decussate?

A

Medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

Within a few spinal levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

90% of fibres decussate at the medulla → lateral corticospinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the first-line agents for MS?

A

Beta interferons and glatiramer acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the time limit for thrombolysis in stroke?

A

4.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How could you differentiate between epileptic seizures and non-epileptic attacks?

A

Epileptic seizures same every time, NEAs often fluctuate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which features would make you more suspicious of a functional neurological disorder?

A
  • Fluctuating
  • Explosive onset without any identifiable cause eg. Infarct/bleed
  • If involving both sides but aware
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How are functional neurological disorders managed?

A

o Treating precipitating factors eg. Migraine, postural drop

o Neuropsychology input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes the tonic phase of an epileptic seizure?

A

Surge of excitatory energy  firing of corticospinal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which medication should be given for secondary prevention of stroke/TIA?

A

Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Falls early in Parkinson’s may suggest…

A

Parkinson’s plus syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Painful third nerve palsy suggests…

A

PCA aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 3 signs of an anterior circulatory stroke?

A

unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
homonymous hemianopia
higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

40
Q

What should be given in status epilepticus if not responding to BZDs?

A

Phenytoin

41
Q

Carotid endarterectomy is considered in which patients with TIA?

A

> 70% plaque

42
Q

Which imaging allows for best visualisation of demyelinating lesions?

A

MRI with contrast

43
Q

rapid onset dementia and myoclonus suggests…

A

CJD

44
Q

Patient slow to release when shaking hand suggests…

A

Myotonia

45
Q

How is myotonic dystrophy inherited?

A

AD

46
Q

How are Duchenne and Muscular Dystrophies inherited?

A

X-linked recessive

47
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Autoimmune - autoantibodies to Acetylcholine Receptor

48
Q

How could you differentiate Myasthenia Gravis from Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome?

A

MG worsens with exertion, LEMS gets better with exertion

49
Q

Which malignancy is associated with Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

Small cell lung cancer

50
Q

Give causes of a resting tremor.

A

Parkinsonism - may be PD, Parkinson’s plus or drug-induced

51
Q

What is meant by a postural tremor?

A

Seen when the muscles are working against gravity when, e.g. hands are held outstretched

52
Q

Give causes of postural tremor.

A

Essential Tremor, Thyrotoxicosis, Physiological, Anxiety

53
Q

Which treatments may be effective in Essential Tremor?

A

Beta-blockers, Intractable cases: Deep brain stimulation/thalotomy

54
Q

What is the investigation of choice for brain mets?

A

MRI brain

55
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone + Dexamethasone

Add Amoxicillin if > 60 or immunocompromised

56
Q

Hypsarrhythmia on EEG suggests…

A

Infantile spasms

57
Q

Which drug may extend life in MND?

A

Riluzole

58
Q

What are the treatment options for lewy body dementia?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Levo-dopa for motor symptoms

59
Q

Which medications may be of benefit in frontotemporal dementia?

A

SSRIs to reduce loss of inhibition etc

Psychotics rarely

60
Q

What is the imaging of choice for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

SPECT

61
Q

Accumulation of which protein is associated with Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Amyloid

62
Q

Accumulation of which protein causes FTD?

A

Tau

63
Q

Which biomarker indicates recent seizure?

A

Prolactin

64
Q

What are the ‘red flag’ features of headaches?

A 
Worse in the morning
Exacerbated by valsalva
Immuno-suppressed
Known/previous malignancy 
New onset > 55 yo
65
Q

Which type of headache has an absolute response to indomethacin?

A

Paroxysmal hemicrania

66
Q

What are the first-line agents for generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Na Valproate (male), Lamotrigine (female)

67
Q

What is the first-line agent for focal seizures?

A

Carbamazepine

68
Q

What are the first-line agents for absence seizures?

A

Na Valproate & ethusuxomide

69
Q

Lip smacking + post-ictal dysphasia suggest a focal seizure in which lobe?

A

Temporal lobe

70
Q

Which anti-epileptics are enzyme inducers?

A

Carbamazepine, Phenytoin & Topiramate

71
Q

What are the contraceptive options for women on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptics?

A

Depo-Provera, IUD, IUS

72
Q

What is the guidance about stopping anti-epileptic drugs?

A

Can be stopped over 2-3 months if seizure-free for 2 years

73
Q

Are anti-epileptic drugs safe in breastfeeding?

A

Yes

74
Q

Limb movements with post-ictal weakness suggests…

A

Frontal lobe seizures

75
Q

Which diet is most likely to be effective in epilepsy?

A

Ketogenic diet

76
Q

What are the emergency contraceptive options for women taking enzyme-inducing AEDs?

A

Copper IUD or double dose levonestrogel

77
Q

Sudden weakness during strong emotions suggests…

A

Cataplexy

78
Q

What is the usual time limit for thrombolysis?

A

4.5 hours

79
Q

What are the indications for thrombectomy?

A

proximal anterior circulation occlusion - within 6 hours or 6-24 hours if imaging shows brain tissue could be salvaged

80
Q

Give 3 features of an anterior circulatory stroke.

A

Unilateral weakness
Homonymous Hemianopia
Cerebral dysfunction including dysphasia

81
Q

What is meant by a ‘lacunar’ stroke?

A

One of:
Sensory or motor only
Sensory-motor symptoms only
Ataxic hemiparesis

82
Q

Give features of posterior circulation stroke.

A

CN palsy
Bilateral sensory/motor deficit
Cerebellar dysfunction
Isolated homonymous hemianopia/cortical blindness

83
Q

LP low gluocse and high protein suggests…

A

Bacterial meningitis

84
Q

LP normal glucose and high protein suggests…

A

Viral meningitis

85
Q

What is the key CSF feature in TB meningitis?

A

High protein

86
Q

Which CNs may be affected by vestibular schwannoma?

A

CN V, VII or VIII

87
Q

Which features are now needed for a diagnosis of TIA?

A

Resolved symptoms AND no acute infarction on imaging

88
Q

Which myotome is knee extension?

A

L4

89
Q

Which dermatome is the thumb?

A

C6

90
Q

Which dermatome is the middle finger?

A

C7

91
Q

Which dermatome is the pinky finger?

A

C8

92
Q

Which nerve roots are tested in the biceps jerk?

A

C5,6

93
Q

Which nerve roots are tested in the brachioradialis reflex?

A

C5, 6

94
Q

Which nerve roots are tested in the triceps jerk?

A

C6, 7

95
Q

Which nerve roots are tested in the patellar reflex?

A

L3, 4

96
Q

Which nerve roots are tested in the ankle reflex?

A

S1, 2

97
Q

What are the red flags in back pain?

A 
TUNA FISH
Thoracic pain
Unexplained weight loss
Neurological symptoms
Age > 50
Fever
IVDU
Steroid use
History of cancer

Medicine (Y4) (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions