Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Patient with sensory loss in little finger and lateral half of ring finger.
weakness bending fingers, but can raise thumb vertically with good resistance
reflees preserved

which nerve was injured?

A

Ulnar nerve
supplies
* sensation to little finger and medial half of ring finger
* most flexor muscles in the hand ( not the thumb)

( sensory nerve distributionL RUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

neuropathic pain management
1st line
rescue therapy in exacerbations
topical management
non-medical option

A

1ST Line: amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, pregabalin
* neupathic pain analgesis are montherapy - if one doesnt work, swith to another ( no compounding)

rescue therapy - tramadol

localised - topoical capsaicin ( e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia)

non0medical - pain clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

defective downward gaze and vertical diplopia is caused by danmage to what nerve

A

ipsilateral CN IV ( trochlear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pt with double vision, worse going down stairs. On inspection, the left eye is deviated laterally. What CN is the cause

A

L trochlear
Palsy – defective downward gaze & vertical diplopia

LR6SO4 , rest of mvmts are occulomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

abducens nerve oalsy

A

ipsilateral medially deviated eye

LR6SO4

lateral rectus function lost –> cannot pul laterally –> mediallyu deviated eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

appearance of CNIII palsy

A

isposilateral down and out

LR6SO4, everything else uis occuulomotor

so LR6 functions ( out) and SO4 functions (down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define
- TIA
- crescendo TIA

A

TIA - transient neurological dysfunction secondary to ischaemia without infarction
crescendo TIA - >=2TIAs in a week ( high stroke risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stroke management
- where to admit
- what dDx to exclude
- Ix
- Rx

A
  • stroke centre
    exclude hypoglycaemioa
  • CT brain 9 exclude intracerebral haemorrhage)
    Aspririn 300mg stat (post CT), 14 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common type of stroke

A

ischaemic ( 85%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient with generalised headache, fluctuating GCS and history of alcohol abuse. What type of stroke are they likely to have had and how would this appear on a CT

A

subdural haemorrhage ( bridging veins )

star shaped - SAH
crescent shape - bridging veins subdural
lemon shape - epidural (EGGsrradural - extradural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medical thrombectomy in ischaemia is performed using
(med)
(mechanism o action)
(window of opportunity)

A

alteplase
tissue plasminogen activator (rapid clot breakdown)
within 4.5 hrs of storke onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 featyures of TIA managment

A

300mg Aspirin daily
2ndary CVD prevention (statins)
24hr referral to stroke specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ischaemic stroke doses and durations
Aspirin
clopidogrel ( alternative)
Atorvastatin

A

Aspirin 300mg 14 days
clopidogrel 75mg OD / Dipyridamole 200mg BD)
Atorvastatin 80mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sections of the “eye” section of GCS

A

spontaneous opening = 4
speech = 3
Pain = 2
None=1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 3 sections of the GCS and the points for each

A

eyes = 4
voice response = 5
Motor response = 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sections of the “verbal” section of GCS

A

oriented = 5
confused conversation - 4
innappropiate words =3
incomprehensible = 2
none = 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sections of the “motor response “ section of GCS

A

obeys commands = 6
localises pain - 5
normal flexion - 4
abnormal flexion - 3
extension - 2
none- 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

two groups of people in which subdurals are more common

A

elderly
alcoholics

brain atrophy - increased likelihood of bridging veins tearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

30 yo man collapses when playing rugby. He is taken to the stroke unit with unilateral weakness and headache. The CT shows a lemon shaped bleed, which does not cross the sutures, what artery is most likely to have been ruptured

A

middle meningeal

this is an extradural haemorrhage (EGGstradural)
- associated w/ temporal bone fracture
-CT - biconvex shape, limpited by the cranial sutures
-Typical pt: young pt, traumatic head injury & ongoing headache. Has a period of improved neurological Sx followed by rapid decline over hrs ( bleed begins to compress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where dose subarachnoid bleeds occur

A

bleed into subarachnoid space - where cerebrospinal fluid is located

most commonly ruptured brain aneurysm

typical presentation
- sudden onset OCCIPITAL headache
- during strenuous activity ( sex/weight lifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2 key risks associated with SAH

A

cocaine
sickle cell anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

5 features of “thunderclap headache” in SAH

A
  1. occipital headache
  2. Neck stiffness
  3. Photophobia
  4. Vision changes
    ???meningitis???
  5. Neuro Sx (speech, weakness, seizure, LOC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A pt is brought to the stroke specialist unit with a suspected SAH (sudden extreme occipital pain, meningism and weakness). The 1st line Ix is conducted but is negative. what other test should be used, give the 2 findings suggesgting SAH

A

1st lien - CT

2nd - CSF
- RCC raised
- Xanthochromia (yellow due to bilirubin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SAH Mx

A

MDT supportive Mx
reduced conciousness - intubate & ventilate

surgical intervention (coiling/clipping) - Tx aneurysm

Nimodipine - CCP, prevents vasospasm ( which causes ischaemia)

hydrocephalus - LP/shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
are parkinsons symptoms typically symmetrical or assymetrical
assymetricalp
20
parkinsons triad
- resting tremor "pillrolling tremor - 4-6Hz,slow) - rigidity - bradykinesia
21
5 signs of parksinons ( not in the triad
facial masking stooped posture forward tilt reduced arm swing shuffling gait ( triad - bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity) others: depression, sleep disturbance, anosmia ( smell), cognitive impairmenr/ memory problesm
22
Parkinsons vs bening essential tremor asymmetrical 5-8hz improves at rest improves with intentional movement improves with alcohol no other parkinsons features
asymmetrical - Par 5-8hz - BET (Par=4-5) improves at rest BET improves with intentional movement Par improves with alcohol (BET (Par - no change) no other parkinson's features (BET)
23
name 4 parkinsons plus syndromes
multiple system atrophy dementia with lewy bodies progressive supranuclear palsy corticobasal degeneration
24
desrribe Sx of multiple system atrophy
mulitple areas of brain degenerate parkinsonism - basal ganlglia affected autonomic dysfunction ( postural hypotension, constipation, abnormal sweatign, sexual dysfunction ) Ataxia - cerebellar dysfunction
25
1st line parkinson tx - if motor Sx affecting QOL - if motor Sx NOT affecting QOL
motor Sx - Levodopa dopamine replacement, often given w/ peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor ( stop L-dopa breakdown) : Co-benyldopa (benserazide), Co-careldopa (carbidopa) no-motor Sx - dopamine agonist/ L-dopa/ MAO-B inhibitor - selegiline/rasageline)
26
L-dopa's effect decreases over time, so is reserved for when other medications are not helping. excess dosing of L-dopa leads to
dyskinesas Dystonia(excess muscle contraction --> abnormal postures / exaggerated Mvmt) Chorea (involuntary jerking ...huntingtons choriea) athetosis ( involuntary twistign/writhing movments in hands/feet)
27
presentation of anterior cerebral artery stroke
contralateral hemiparesis & sensory loss worse in lower extremity
28
stoke in middle cerebral artery
contralateral hemiparesis & sensory loss upper>lower extremity contralateral homonymous hemianopia
29
Posterior cerebral artery
contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing (central vision remains) visual agnosia impairment in recognition of visually presented objects.
30
An 88-year-old woman is having difficulty recognising objects around the house. On examination, when asked to point to a pen, she selects a newspaper and she cannot give the correct name for any of the items in the room. She can recognise familiar faces, there is no weakness, aphasia or unsteadiness. She has homonymous hemianopia with preservation of the central visual fields. What cerebral vessel is most likely to have been occluded to cause these symptoms?
Posterior cerebelar artery - homonymous hemianopia w/ macular sparing & visual agnosia).
31
Webers syndrome ( branches of PCA supplying midbrain)
ipsilateral CNIII palsy contalateral weekness of upper & lower extremities
32
Posterior inferiror cerebella artery ( Wllenberg/lateral medullary syndrom)
ipsilateral facial pain & temperature loss contralateral: limb/torso pain & temp loss Ataxia , nystagmus
33
Anteriori inferior cerebellar arteriy ( lateral pontine syndrome)
ipsilateral facial pain & temperature loss ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness contralateral: limb/torso pain & temp loss Ataxia , nystagmus
34
retinal/ ophthalmic arteriy
amaurosis fugax
34
basilar artery
locked-in syndrome
35
lacunar stroke
hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, hemiparesis with limb ataxia ass. w/ HTN common sites: basal ganglia, thalamus, internal capsule
36
describe visual field and sight of lesion: total blindness to one eye
cause: ipsilateral lesion of optic nerve (pre-chiasm: optic nerves --> chiasm --> tract --> lateral geniculate body --> optic radiations)
37
describe visual field and sight of lesion: bipolar hemianopia
tunnel vision ( bilateral lateral loss of vision) cause midline chiasm lesion ( so outer parts of the chiasm preserved, so partial eyesight)
38
Nasal hemianopia
lesion of ipsilateral perichiasmal area
39
describe visual field and sight of lesion: homonymous hemianopia
bilateral vision loss on same half of visual field ( e.g. both eyes lose left vision in left homonymous hemianopaia) cause: lesion/ pression in contralateral optic tract OR lesion in contralateral occipital lobe ( all optic radiations damaged) optic nerve --> optic chiasm --> optic tract --> lateral geniculate body --> optic radiations
40
describe visual field and sight of lesion: homonymous inferior quadrantinopia
bottom quadrant visual field loss bilaterally of same side ) e.g. both left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia) contalateral, lower optic radiations lesion
41
describe visual field and sight of lesion: homonymous superior quadrantanopia
same quadrant vison loss bilaterally cause: lesion of contralateral upper optic radiations
42
at what vertebral level does the spinal cord terminate
L2/3 . The nerve roots exit either side of the spinal column at their vertebral level (L3, L4, L5, S1, S2, S3, S4, S5 and Co).
43
what 3 functions does the cauda equina supply
sensation: lower limbs, perineum, bladder, rectum motor: lower limbs, anal sphincter, urethral sphincter Parasympathetic: bladder, rectum
44
what is the most common cause of caude equina syndrome
herniated disc
45
give 5 causes of cauda equina syndrome
* Herniated disc (the most common cause) * Tumours, particularly metastasis * Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below) * Abscess (infection) * Trauma
46
give 3 red flag Sx of cauda equina
* Bilateral sciatica * Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs * Reduced anal tone on PR examination ( * Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the perineum – around the genitals and anus) * Loss of sensation in the bladder and rectum (not knowing when they are full) * Urinary retention or incontinence * Faecal incontinence )
47
what are the features of incomplete CES ( cauda equina syndrome)
pts complain about urinary Sx - altered urinary sensation, loss of desire to void, hesitancy, urgency
48
what are the features complete cauda equina syndrome
definitive urinary retention with associated overflow incontinence
49
what is the Mx in CES
NEURO EMERGENCY * Immediate Adx * Emergency MRI * Neurosurgical input to consider lumbar decompression surgery
50
where does metastatic spinal cord compression occur
L1/2 ( occlusion of end of spinal cord, not cauda equina)
51
CES & MSCC ( metastatic cord compression) have similar symptoms,
* back pain* worse on - straining: cough/ sneezing/bowel movement. - lying down Claudication ( muscle pain/cramp on walking or exercising) Cauda equina - LMN signs (reduced tone and reduced reflexes). As nerves LMN; have already exited the spinal cord. SCC: compression higher up --> UMN signs (increased tone, brisk reflexes and upping plantar responses) will be seen.
52
Tx for MSCC
high-dose oral dex ( immediately, even before imaging) * Analgesia * Surgery, Radiotherapy, Chemotherapy
53
what Ix is appropriate in MSCC
Whole spine MRI <24hrs
54
55
Neisseria meningitidis is a cause of bacterial meningitis, what type of bacteria is N.meningitis
G-ve Diplococci
56
what is the 1st line test used to screen for HIV in ASx or Sx pts
HIV antibody and HIV antigen HIV antibody - HIV1/2 differentiation assay, ab devlop 4-6wks later in most (the rest by 3 months)
57
what viruses most commonly causeviral meningitis
enteroviruses (e.g. coxsackie) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
58
what are the two special tests in examining form meningitis
Kernigs test (straigtening the Knee w/hip flex --> spinal pain/ ressitance to mvmt) Brudzinkis test (Bending neck (flex chin to chest) --> involuntary flexing of hips and knees)
59
characteristics of CSF in bacterial meningitis appearance Glucose Protein WCC
appearance - cloudy Glucose - low ,1/2 plasma Protein high >1g/l WCC 10-5,ooo polymorphs/mm3
60
characteristics of CSF in viral meningitis appearance Glucose Protein WCC
appearance - clear/ cloudy Glucose 60-80% plasma glucose (slightly reduced) Protein - normal/raised WCC - 15-1000 lymphocytes/mm3
61
characteristics of CSF in tuberculus meningitis appearance Glucose Protein WCC
appearance - slightly cloudy, fibrin web Glucose low <1/2plasma ( TB - bactaeria, so glucose same as with bacteria) Protein high >1g/l) WCC 30-300 lymphocytes/mm3
62
characteristics of CSF in fungal meningitis appearance Glucose Protein WCC
appearance: cloudy Glucose low Protein high WCC 20-200 lymphocytes fungal = cryptococcal meningitis
63
what medication should be added to tx in suspected viral meningitis
aciclovir
64
what medication should be added to in meningitis tx iif penicillin resisstant pneumococcal infection is suspected
vncomycin penecillin resistant - e.g. Hx foreign travel/ prolonged Abx exposure
65
what is used in bacterial menignitis mx to prevent neurological/ hearing complications
steroids - e.g. dex
66
what MSK condition is temporal arteritis associated with?
polymyalgia rheumatica
67
what irreversible condition is associated with GCA
vision loss
68
what visual Sx are found in GCA
blurred/double vision loss of vision * Scalp tenderness (e.g., noticed when brushing the hair) * Jaw claudication * Blurred or double vision * Loss of vision if untreated temporal artery: tender, thickened, w/ reduced/absent pulsation
69
GCA can be diagnosed clinically. but also w/ inflammatory markers, biopsy or Duplex US. what finding in a temporal artery biopsy indicates temporal arteritis?
multinucleated giant cells
70
GCA can be diagnosed clinically. but also w/ inflammatory markers, biopsy or Duplex US. what finding in a Duplex US indicates temporal arteritis?
hypoechoic "halo" sign stenosis of temporal artery
71
Mx of GCA involves immediate steroids ( before confirming dx ) . what is the med & dose in GCA w/o visual Sx/jaw claudication GCA w/ visual Sx/ jaw claudication
w/o visual/jaw Sx: 40-60 prednisolone daily w/ visual/jaw Sx: 500mg-1000mg methylpred daily
72
what non-steroidal meds are used in GCA Mx
Aspirin 75 mg daily - reduces vision loss/strokes PPI - gastroprotecion due to steroids Bisphosphonates & AdCal due to steroids
73
a pt w/ suspected GCA is started on 60mg prednisolone and biopsy is conducted. however this returns normal, what is the most appropriate next step
carry on prednisolone, retake biopsy in 7-14 days there may be skip lesions, hence the biopsy will be normal instead of showing multinucleated giant cells
74
what is the most likely cause of encephalitis
HSV-1 ( 95%) temporal & inferior frontal lobes)
75
what Ix are appropriate in ?encephalitis
CSF (lymphocytes, raised protein, --> PCR for HSV, VZV, enteroviruses) neuroimaging - medial temporal & inferior frontal changes ( e.g. petechial haemorrhage) , normal in 1/3 of pts EEG 0 lateralised periodic discharges at 2Hz
76
Mx encephalitis
IV aciclovir
77
biconvex (or lentiform) mass on CT scan indicates what type of haemorrhage
extradural ( biconvEXtradural) - limited by suture lines subdural- bridging veins
78
injury of what artery results in extradural haemorrhage
middle meningeal
79
in which type of haemorrhage in bleeding limited by suture lines
extradural
80
occlusion of what artery causes Amaurosis fugax
retinal/ophthalmic artery internal carotid artery > ophthalmic artery > central retinal artery
81
A 72-yo man presents to the ED with new-onset left-sided weakness. He is orientated. On examination, the patient has reduced L arm and leg power, and a left facial droop. Ophthalmic examination identifies left homonymous hemianopia. what type of stroke is this?
Partial anterior circulation infarct PACs 2/3 - unilateral hemiparesis +/-hemisensory loss in face, arm & leg - homonymous hemianopia - higher cognitive dysfunction ( e.g. dysphasia)
82
features of pseudo seizures ( psychogenic non-epileptic seizure)
* pelvic thrusting * family member with epilepsy * females * crying after seizure * don't occur when alone * gradual onset
83
what blood test can differentiate true seizures from psuedoseizures
prolactin - raised in true seizures
84
what age group of women and of men are affected by myasthenia gravis
women <40 men >60 e.g. A 35-yo woman presents to her GP with increasing fatigue, SOB and feeling increasingly tired with increasing weakness in her neck and limbs.
85
A 35-yo woman presents to her GP with increasing fatigue, SOB and feeling increasingly tired with increasing weakness in her neck and limbs. PMHx: pernicious anaemia DHx: oral cyanocobalamin ( for anaemia) Examination: ptosis of her right eye. most appropriate Ix?
Acetylecholine receptor antibody test
86
tumours in which gland are strongly linked to myasthenia gravis
thymus 20-40% of pts with thymoma develop myasthenia gravis
87
name 2 antibodies associated with myasthenia gravis
MuSK - muscle specific kinase LRP4 - low-density lipoprotein receptor related protein 4 Myasthenia gravis -receptor antibodies block recepts, preventing movement - receptors cause complement system --> damage at post synaptic memebrane
88
features of myasthenia gravis
summarised: muscle weakness ( proximal muscle / small muscles of head and neck) , worsens with mvmt, improves with rest diplopia - extraocular muscle weakness ptosis - eyelid weakness causes drooping weakness in facial mvmts weak swallow jaw fatigue when chewing slurred speach progressive weakness w/ repetitive mvmts
89
what examinations can be used to elicit muscle fatiguability in myasthenia gravis
repeated blinking --> ptosis prolonged upward gazine --> diplopia abduction of 1 arm 20 times --> unilateral weakness ?thymectomy scar
90
tests for Dx myasthenia gravis - antibodies - imaging - test where there is doubt about Dx
ab: ACh-R (85%), MuSK (10%) LRP4 (<5%) imaging: CT /MRI for thymoma edrophonium test: IV edrophonium chloride ( neostigmine) blocks ACh-esterase enzymes, increases ACh, so temporarily relieving weakness
91
Tx options in Myasthenia gravis
Pyridostigmine/ neostigmine ( reversible ACh-esterase inhibitors) Prednisolone/ azathioprine - immunosuppressants, prevent antibody production thymectomy ( Sx relief even w/o thymoma) MAb: rituximab
92
what is a common trigger of myasthenic crisis
another illness - eg resp. tract infection causes resp failure ( due to muscle weakness)
93
Mx in myastbhenic crises
muscle weakness - BiPAP/ full intubation & ventilation medical ( immunomodulatory therapies : IV immunoglobulins, plasma exchange)
94
which medication is used for headache prophylaxis in cluster headaches sumatriptan, verapamil or propanolol
verapamil
95
acute tx in cluster headache
sumatriptan and high flow O2 ( verapamil is prevention)
96
what medication is used as migraine prophylaxis
propanolol
97
what eye sign on fundoscopy indicates raised ICP in pt with headach
Papilloedema
98
triggers for tension headaches ( x5)
stress depression alcohol skipping meals dehydration (mild headache, band like pattern, gradual appearance and resolution, no visual changes )
99
Tx in tension headach e
conservative: reassure, relaxation techniques, hot towels basic analgesia
100
Mx of sinusitis
resolves in 2-3wks mostly viral medical nasal irrigation steroid nasal spray -prolonged Sx may need abx
101
Mx in hormonal headache
hormonal headache : tension-like headache due to oestrogen, occur2-3days pre menstruation, perimenopause, early pregnancy ( late pregnancy = ? preeclampsia) Mx OCP
102
1st ine mx in trigeminal neuralgia
carbamazepine surgery - decompress/ damage nerve
103
features of cluster headache
severe, unilateral headache, (around the eye) clusters: 3-4/day for weeks/months, the 1-2yrs w/o duration 15 mins- 3hrs red, swollen, watery eye, miosis, ptosis, nasal discharge, ipsilateral hyperhidrosis
104
Medications (x3) for cluster headache prophylaxis
verapamil lithium prednisolone ( short course)
105
what are the 4 types of migraines
* Migraine without aura * Migraine with aura * Silent migraine (migraine with aura but without a headache) * Hemiplegic migraine
106
typical features of a migraine
unilateral pounding/throbbing headache photophobia phonophobia
107
acute management of migraines
paracetamol triptans ( sumatriptan 50mg as migraine starts - serotonin receptor agonist (5HT receptors)) NSAIDs (ibuprofen/naproxen) antiemetics in vomiting - metoclopramide
108
medication for migraine prophylaxis
propanolol topiramate ( teratogenic) amitriptyline
109
presentation of CNIV palsy
Presentation – eye upwards ( as SO depresses eye) There will also be a compensatory head tilt Struggling to go down the stairs * cant see the floor with cranial nerve 4*
110
in addition to thymomas, myasthenia gravis is associated to which conditions?
autoimmune disorders: pernicious anaemia, autoimmune thyroid disorders, rheumatoid, SLE thymic hyperplasia in 50-70%
111
what antibodies are associated with LEMS
Voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC) antibodies LEMS - opposite of Myasthenia as the weakness imprioves with movement it is ass. w/ malignancies - esp SCLC
112
what is the antiplatelet regimen in an ischaemic stroke
Aspirin 300mg daily 2weeks clopidogrel 75mg daily long-term *also offer statin if pt is not already on one*
113
in medication overuse headaches, the analgesics should be stopped what is the advice in simple analgesia triptans opioids
simple analgesia - stop immediately triptans - stop immediately opioids -wean down
114
what risk is increased by giving pts with history of migraine with aura COCP
ischaemic stroke risk is greatly increased
115
automatism (smacking lips) and staring o into the space without being aware of what is happening is found in what epileptic seizure
focal impaired awareness seizure differs from absence seizures which are in children, w/o automatisms
116
what seizure is characterised by a sudden loss of muscle tone, limp limbs and loss of consciousness?
generalised atonic seizure
117
which seizure is characterised by jerking movements, brief duration ( <1 minute), typically without loss of awareness?
myoclonic
118
a 74-year-old presents to his general practitioner after experiencing a number of episodes of light headedness, occuring when he stands up from a sitting or lying down. PMHx - includes Parkinson's disease for DHx - levodopa Exam: BP 130/80mmHg (lying), HR 60/min, RR 14/min and afebrile. After 3 minutes standing - BP: 100/70mmHg (standing), respiratory rate 14/min, and heart rate 62/min with no compensatory tachycardia. On auscultation of the chest, heart sounds are dual with no murmur, and the lungs are clear. Which is the most likely cause of hispostural hypotension?
Parkinson's disease - causes hypotension due to autonomic failure
119
A woman presents with altered sensation in her left eye following an RTA. . Exam: patient's pupils are equal and reactive to light. No visual field defects Visual acuity is 6/6 with contact lenses. Gentle application of cotton wool to the right globe elicits blinking and tearing, while the application to the left globe elicits no response. In what nerve is the cranial lesion?
CN V1 - ophthalmic branch of trigeminal causes loss of corneal reflex CNV - facial sensation and mastication Lesions may cause: trigeminal neuralgia loss of corneal reflex (afferent) loss of facial sensation paralysis of mastication muscles deviation of jaw to weak side
120
A patient presenting with mixed UMN & LMN Sx & fasciculations with few/no sensory signs suggests what condition?
motor neurone disease
121
A patient presenting with mixed UMN & LMN Sx & fasciculations with few/no sensory signs. and asymmetric limb weakness suggests what condition?
Amyotropic lateral sclerosis subset of MND LMN Sx in arms & UMN Sx in legs
122
what are the 3 main types of MND
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) - most common progressives bulbar palsy - 2nd most common; muscles of talking & swallowing progressive muscular atrophy , primary lateral sclerosis
123
what areas of the body are generally unaffected in MND
external ocular muscles cerebellum abdo reflexes & sphincter ( until later)
124
describe MND
progressive, fatal condition where upper and lower motor neurones stop functioning - no sensory involvement
125
Mx in MND
non e Riluzole - slows progression by some months in ALS NIV - non-invasive ventilation when resp muscles affected
126
apart from the hands, benign essential tremor is present in ...
head tremor, jaw tremor and vocal tremor ( affects voluntary muscles)
127
features of essential tremor
* Fine tremor * Symmetrical * More prominent on voluntary movement * Worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine * Improved by alcohol * Absent during sleep
128
what is the hereditary pattern of benign essential tremor?
autosomal dominant
129
Mx in benign essential tremor
none purely symptomatic - propranolol ( selective B-blocker) - Primidone ( barbituate anti-epileptic medication)
130
how would damage to the ulnar nerve present?
hypothenar muscle wasting loss of thumb adduction wasting of 1st web space ulnar claw hand ( hyperextension @ metacarpophalangeal joint, flexion at interphalangeal joint)
131
how would radial nerve palsy present
wrist drop loss of sensation in 1st dorsal web space
132
how would musculocutaneous nerve plsy present
reduced flexion at elbows & loss of supination
133
how would a median nerve compression present
carpal tunnel syndrome nerve innervates thenar muscles & sensory innervation to lateral 3 & half digits
134
how would an axillary nerve palys present
wastage of deltoid muscles loss of sensation from the badge area
135
a pt presents with a Hx of AF presents with left-sided ptosis, miosis and ataxia. There is a loss of pain sensations in the right limbs and trunk and the left side of the face. BM and Sats are normal, a non-contrast CT head is ordered. Where is the site of the pathology causing this presentation?
left posterior inferior cerebellar artery this is Wallenberg's (lateral medullary syndrome) which presents as: - ipsilateral horner's - ipsilateral facial numbness - contralateral body numbness
136