Neurology Flashcards

(207 cards)

1
Q

MS - pathophys, Epid, Clinical, Ix, Dx, Tx, Cx?

A

immune-mediated disorder characterized by activation of T-helper cells induce B-cells to produce Ab and cytokines that drive an inflammatory process directed at myelin and erosion of BBB, resulting in demyelination and axonal damage.

Epid:
F>M
20-40 y

Aetiology:
Genetics
Environmental - toxins, EBV
relapses triggered by infections, surgical procedures

Clinical
visual disturbance in one eye
peculiar sensory phenomena - odd sensations of a patch of wetness, burning, tingling, hemibody sensory loss, Lhermitte’s sign (electric shock like sensations extending down the cervical spine radiating to limbs)
foot dragging or slapping

Ix:
MRI brain - hyperintensitits in periventricular white matter
MRI spinal cord - demyelinating lesions in spinal cord, particul cervical spinal cord
TSH - exclude alternative Dx
Vit B12 - exclude alternate Dx
ant-NMO ab - present in neuromyelitis optica
CSF - oligoclonal bands and elevated CSF IgG present in 80%
evoked potenitals - prolongation of conduction, asymmetrical prolongation in visual evoked potenitals

Dx:
Dissemination in space and time
2 or more attacks, objective clinical evidence of 2 or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of 1 leision with reasonable historical evidence of prior attack

Tx:
1st line - Methylprednisolone
2nd line - IVIG
With severe worsening quadriplegia - plasma exchange
relapse remitting MS - immunomodulators, low dose anticonvulsants for sensory symptoms, antisapcity medication for increased muscle tone

Cx:
UTI
Osteopenia and OP
Depression
Visual impairment
Erectile Dysfucntion (ED)
Cognitive impairment
Impaired mobility
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2
Q

What is the most common CNS tumour? Tx?

A

Glioblastoma

Tx: Surgical resection + concurrent Chemo (Temzolamide - oral alkylating agent) and stereotactic RTx

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3
Q

Types of nerve fibres?

A

A- myelinated

subtypes a (propioception), b (touch, pressure, motor), y (motor to muscle spindles), o (pain, cold, touch)

B - myelinated (paraganglionic autonomic)

C - unmyelinated slow conducting (pain)

Large fibres are concerned primarily with propioceptive sensation, somatic motor function, conscious touch and pressure.

Small fibres - pain and temperature sensations and autonomic function

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4
Q

What features indicate a poor prognosis in Bell’s palsy?

A

Older age > 60 y

Severe complete paralysis

Hyerpacusis

Altered taste

EMG evidence of axonal degeneration

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5
Q

Which antiepileptic drug reduces the serum levels of lamotrigine?

A

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
(Think BS CRAP GPS)

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6
Q

What signs will a right Parietal stroke will produce?

A

Homonymous hemianopia
Hemispatial neglect
- cannot draw clockface
Dressing apraxia

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7
Q

What signs will an occipital infarct produce?

A

Homonymous heminopia with macular sparing

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8
Q

Pt with receptive aphasia. Which lobe affected?

A

Temporal (Wernicke’s area)

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9
Q

Which area is affected in global aphasia?

A

Perisylvian area

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10
Q

Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus? MRI findings? Tx?

A

Dementia
Gait impairment - gait ataxia
Urinary incontinence

MRI:
Ventriculomegaly

Tx:
CSF drainage
Surigcal placement of ventriculoperitoneal shunt

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11
Q

Which antibodies are associated with paraneoplastic syndromes?
(sub-acute progressive neurological disease)

A

Anti Hu and Anti-Yo antibodies in CSF

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12
Q

why does Sodium valproate cause lamotrigine toxicity?

A

Valproate causes a significant rise in plasma concentration of lamotrigine by competitively inhibiting glucoronidation. Lamotrigine is extensively metabolsised by N-gluocoronidation

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13
Q

Which SSRI has been shown to improve motor recovery post stoke?

A

Fluoxetine

- serotonin mediated suppression of post stroke hyper-excitability (lancet 2011)

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14
Q

Meniere disease: Triad?

A

Vertigo
Unilateral low freq hearing loss
Tinnitus - associated with fullness
(Nystagmus to opposite side affected)

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15
Q

Acoustic neuroma: Presentation? Imaging of choice?

A

Nystgamus - rapid
Slowly progressive symptoms of hearing loss
Tinnitus
Loss of corneal reflex

MRI:
detect tuomours as small as 1-2 mm

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16
Q

What Tx is Dx for BPPV? Tx?

A

Hallpike manoeuvre

Tx with Epsley manoeuvre

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17
Q

What features predict a stroke mimic?

A

known CI
LOC or seizure at onset
Migration of symptoms
Positive symptoms e.g. paraesthesia, jerks

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18
Q

Brown Sequard Syndrome: Presentation?

A

Characterised by:
Ipsilateral motor deficit below the level of the lesion
Ipslateral impairment of vibration and position sense below the level of the lesion
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature from one or two segments below the lesion

Syringomyelia, subacute degeneration of cord and Friedrich’s ataxia can cause cerebellar signs and patchy sensory loss but would be bilateral.

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19
Q

painful eye with decreased visual acuity and relative afferent pupillary defect. Dx?

A

Optic neuritis

Most likely underlying cause is MS.

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20
Q

Myasthenia Gravis. Pathophy? Presentation? NCS demonstrate? Tx?

A

Antibody to the neuromuscular junction AChR or MuSK

Presentation:
fluctuating fatigable symmetric painless weakness
Fluctuating dysarthria
ptosis
Bulbar symptoms - Difficulty chewing, slurred speech

NCS:
Reduced amplitude

Tx:
Pyridostigmine (ACh inhibitor)
Thymectomy

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21
Q

Which symptoms in PD are not related to levodopa?

A
Falls, instability, gait disturbance
Dysphagia, speech disturbance
Incontinence, constipation
Insomnia, REM sleep behaviour disorder
Depression, cognition, pain
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22
Q

Tx for PD?

A

◦Dopamine Gold Standard
L-Dopa is 1st line Tx for:
- severe motor impairment
- >60 y, especially with CI

Levodopa +/- entacopone (COMT inhibitor acts by reducing extra cerebral metabolism of dopamine). COMT responsible for metabolism.
levodopa is the main precursor in dopamine synthesis.
- superior benefits in motor function, ADLs and QOL compared with other classes
- decreased chance of requiring add on therapy

Dopamine agonists: Stimulate dopamine by binding directly to receptors in the striatum
Non ergot
- pramiprexole, discontinuation in 8% due to AE e.g. somnolence, GIT, Impulse control disorder
- ropinirole
- transdermal rotigotine
Ergot derived
- cabergoline
- bromocriptine
- pergolide
- complications of heart valve and retroperitoneal fibrosis
AE: impulse control disorder, punding (repeated pointless actions)

MAO B inhibitors
- rasigiline and selegeline
◾mild benefit
◾may slow progression of disease
AE: hepatic dysfunction, higher overall mortality

◾apomorphine◾SC injection, powerful

◾moderate motor benefit
◾defer onset of motor fluctuations
◾AE: impilse control disorders, sleppiness, psychosis
◾Rotigotine - transdermal patch

◦Stalevo◾triple medication consisting of Levodopa, carbidopa and entacapone

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23
Q

Wallenberg’s syndrome (aka lateral medullary syndrome). What? Clinical features?

A

Due to occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

– Ipsilateral loss of facial pain and temperature(due to trigeminal spinal nucleus and tract involvement).

– Contralateral loss of pain and temperature(due to damage to the spinothalamic tract).
– Ipsilateral palatal, pharyngeal, and vocal cord paralysis with dysphagia and dysarthria (due to involvement of the nucleus ambiguus).
– Ipsilateral Horner syndrome (due to affection of the descending sympathetic fibers).
– Ipsilateral cerebellar signs and symptoms (due to involvement of the inferior cerebellar peduncle and cerebellum).
– Vertigo, nausea, and vomiting (due to involvement of the vestibular nuclei).
– Occasionally, hiccups (singultus) attributed to lesions of the dorsolateral region of the middle medulla and diplopia (perhaps secondary to involvement of the lower pons).

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24
Q

What is Foster Kennedy Syndrome?

A

due to an inferior frontal lobe tumour.

It causes optic atrophy in one eye and papilloedema in the other.

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25
What is Gerstmann syndrome?
Gerstmann syndrome causes agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, left right disorientation.
26
CT/MRI should precede LP in which group of pts?
1) presence of papilledema on physical examination 2) history of recent head trauma 3) known or suspected intracranial lesions (immunosuppressed, known malignancy) 4) focal neurologic findings. 5) depressed level of consciousness
27
Which mutation occurs in familial form of ALS?
SOD1 mutation
28
What is Kennedy's syndrome? Presentation? – X-linked lower motor neuron disorder – No UMN signs. – Associated with gynaecomastia and infertility. Underlying molecular defect is an expanded trinucleotide repeat (-CAG-) in the first exon of the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome
– X-linked lower motor neuron disorder – No UMN signs. – Associated with gynaecomastia and infertility. Underlying molecular defect is an expanded trinucleotide repeat (-CAG-) in the first exon of the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome
29
MOA of riluzole?
sodium channel blocker that inhibits glutamate release.May slow progression of disease marginally. Does not prolong survival
30
UMN signs only? Dx
Primary lateral sclerosis
31
LMN signs only?
Primary muscular atrophy
32
ALS. Presentation?
``` UMN LMN Bulbar dysfunction Respiratory failure Cramps and fasciculation NORMAL SENSATION ```
33
majority of anti-epileptics block Na channels except?
Tiagabine | GABA re-uptake inhibitor
34
MOA of Vigabatrin? indication
GABA transaminase inhibitor Refractory complex partial seizures Partial seizures with or without secondary generalisation
35
Which antiepileptic may cause OP? | Other AE of this anti-epileptic?
Phenytoin Osteoporosis, ataxia, nystagmus, gingival hyperplasia, coursening of facial features, loss of libido, hormone dysfucntion, bone marrow hypoplasia.
36
Which of anti-epileptic has the most teratogenic effect in pregnancy?
NaValproate Major malformations, such as congenital heart disease, neural tube defects, urogenital defects and cleft lips or palates, occur in about 3-7% of women with epilepsy who take antiepileptic drugs, although a substantially higher risk is attributed to high doses of valproate (greater than 1400 mg/day).
37
Which anti-epileptic drugs may cause visual field changes?
Vigabatrin - visual field changes! Drowsiness(most common), neuropsychiatric symptoms, weight gain
38
Which anti-epileptics cause weight gain and weight loss?
Gain: Vigabatrin Pregabalin Valproate. Loss: Topiramate
39
Which AED may cause renal calculi?
Topiramate
40
Which AED may cause insulin resistance?
Valproate causes insulin resistance and changes in sex hormone levels (anovulatory cycles, amenorrhea and PCOS). Also causes metabolic abnormalities such as hypocarnitinemia, hyperglycinemia and hyperammonemia
41
Presentation of PCA aneurysm?
``` Headache painful 3rd nerve palsy 3rd nerve palsy - eye deviated down and out -ptosis - pupils maybe dilated ```
42
Which AED does not affect the OCP?
Sodium Valproate (Cyp inhibitor)
43
Which AED may aggravate juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and should be avoided? Tx?
Carbamazepine | Tx: NaValproate
44
What is the most common symptom of excess Levodopa?
Nausea and vomiting ``` Common AE: orthostatic hypotension dyskinesia anorexia agitation insomnia drowsiness depression hallucinations confusion ```
45
MOA of amantadine? | Indications?
Amantadine enhances dopamine release and blocks cholinergic receptors. Acts as NMDA antagonist. Indications: PD Influenza A
46
MOA of COMT inhibitors?
prolong dopamine activity by blocking breakdown
47
Domperidone crosses BBB. T/F
False. Safe to use in PD. Indications: N/V Gastroparesis (idiopathic or diabetic)
48
Smoking is protective against PD. T/F
True
49
List the dopamine agonist. AE?
Pramiprexole Apomorphine AE: Impulse control disorder Somnolence Psychosis
50
Radial nerve supplies (C5-8)? Presentation of lesion?
Supplies triceps, brachioradialis. extensors of the hand ``` Lesion: wrist drop absent sensation over the anatomical snuff box weakness of finger and thumb extension loss of triceps reflex ```
51
Median nerve (c6-T1). Supplies? Presentation of lesion?
Supplies all the muscles of the forearm except flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar half of flexor digitorum Lesion: Carpel tunnel syndrome failure of flexion of index finger - cubital fossa lesion Loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of thumb, index and middle and lateral half of ring finger weakness of abduction/opposition of thumb
52
Ulnar nerve (C8-T1. Supply? Presentation of lesion?
Supplies all the small muscles of the hand (except LOAF), flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar half of flexor digitorum profundus Presentation: Clawing of ring finger loss of sensation over the palmar and dorsal aspect of the little finger and medial half of ring finger weakness of small finger flexion, abduction and adduction
53
If the peripheral nerve lesion involves more than one nerve and distribution of the sensory loss is wider (e.g. involves the distal forearm). Where is the lesion?
Brachial plexopathy.
54
Pt post ortho Sx. Foot drop and ankle reflex absent. Where is the lesion?
Sciatic Nerve. | if reflexes were intact, think of common peroneal or L5 radiculopathy
55
Cervical spinal cord compression. Presentation? Upper cervical C5 C8
Upper cervical - UMN signs in UL and LL C5 - UMN in UL and LL - biceps jerk lost - LMN weakness and wasting of rhomboids, deltoids, biceps and brachioradialis - brachioradialis jerk inverted C8 - UMN signs in LL - LMN weakness and wasting of intrinsic muscles of hands
56
Haemophilia pt develops haematoma. Weak knee extension, absent knee jerk and loss of sensation over inner aspect of thigh and leg. lesion?
Femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4)
57
Which antibiotic reduces the therapeutic effects of NaValproate?
Carbapenem (imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem) | Unknown mechanism
58
List the 4 pre-requisites to exclude before a pt is considered brain dead
1) Clinical or neuroimaging evidence of an acute CNS catastrophe that is compatible with the clinical diagnosis of brain death.ie: the cause of brain death should be known. 2) Exclusion of complicating medical conditions that may confound clinical assessment (no severe electrolyte,acid base or endocrine disturbance) 3) No drug intoxication or poisoning, which may confound the clinical assessment. 4) Core temperature >32 degrees celcius.
59
Why should phenytoin be avoided in Asians (Han chinese, Thai and malay)?
More likely to have HLA-B 1502 allele which sig increases the risk of severe skin reactions. Routine testing is not recommended.
60
Where is the lesion- difficulty making the ok sign?
right anterior interosseous nerve
61
Ventral (motor) tract? Dorsal (sensory) tracts?
Ventral (front-V shape) - corticospinal (motor) and spinothalamic tract (pain and temp) Dorsal - Dorsal comum meniscus (sensory, vibration), spinocerebellar (limb and joint propioception)
62
Which drugs cause an i) axonal neuropathy ii) demyelinating neuropathy?
axonal - ethanol, pyridoxine, thalidomide demyelinating - Cholorquine, Procainamide, Perhexiline, Tacrolimus
63
GBS is associated with which abs?
Anti-ganglioside (GM1, GD1a, GT1a and GQ1b) | GQ1b
64
What are the hallmarks of Supranucelar palsy?
Distinctive eye findings (impairment of vertical gaze movement, square wave jerks, slow saccades and a spuranuclear gaze paresis) Facial dystonia Axial rigidity
65
How to differentiate Multi systems atrophy (MSA) from PD?
* poor initial response to l-dopa * autonomic failure * speech and bulbar dysfunction * early falls * progression (50% wheelchair by 5 y) * preserved cognition
66
Hallmarks of corticobasal ganglionic degeneration?
* asymmetric dystonic syndrome with apraxia * cortical sensory loss * tremor * myoclonus * dementia
67
Clinical findings of a sciatic nerve lesion?
Loss of knee flexion Loss of ankle dorsiflexion (L4 deep peroneal) Loss of toe extension (L5 deep peroneal) Loss of sensation on dorsum of foot and sole Loss of ankle jerk (sciatic nerve) Clinical hx typically - hip dislocation, fracture or replacement, prolonged bed rest, deep seated pelted mass, performs syndrome
68
Clinical features of frontal lobe damage?
Attention disorder, ditractability, poor attention poor memory perservation, concrete thinking -> leads to difficulty with arithmetic calculations, serial sevens or carryover subtraction aphasia, urinary, faecal incontinence Epilepsy Reduced activity, lack of drive, inability to plan ahead, lack of concern
69
Patient having difficulty drawing animals, all the animals look the same. Where is the lesion?
Lateral temporal lobe/cortex. Pt has a semantic problem, having lost the sense of what features make an animal distinct from other animals.
70
Which lobe is responsible for visuospatial function?
Non dominant parietal lobe
71
What is the 1st line Tx for Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy? What medication will exacerbate myoclonic epilepsy?
Valproate and topiramate Lamotrigine may exacerbate myoclonus
72
MCA infarct. Clin pres? Which segment of MCA affected?
Dense hemoplegia Hemianopis Aphasia if dominant M1 of MCA segment. Increased attenuation of the proximal portion of the MCA is typically seen within 90 minutes
73
ACA infart. Clin Pres?
Sensory and Motor deficits of LL predominantly. Medical frontal lobe affected.
74
What sign is classic of a lacunar infarct?
Pure motor deficit
75
What is the pathophys of Lewy body disease?
Misfolding and intracellular aggregation of alpha synuclein. Extracellular aplha synuclein is internalised into neighbouring cells and degraded into lysosomes. In Lewy body a higher proportion of excreted alpha synuclein is in aggregated form which promotes further aggregation ind is pro inflammatory.
76
ACHR-Ab negative MG with positive MusSK Ab is not associated with underlying thymoma. T/F
True
77
50% of patients with REM sleep behaviour disorder progress to Parkinson’s D? Tx?
True Clonazepam or benzo suppress REM
78
Steps in Apnea Testing for the declaration of Brain Death?
1. Pre-oxygenate pt to 100% FiO2 2. Ensure pt is not hypoxic via ABG 3. Disconnect the ventilator but supply oropharyngeal O2 4. Monitor the patient for any signs of respiration 5. Obtain ANGs at selected intervals q3-4 min 6. Stop the test and return to mechanical ventilation if - haemodynamic instability occurs or - the patient exhibits attempts to breathe or pCO2 is > 60 mmHg or rises > 20 mmHg above baseline in the setting of arterial pH
79
Pregabilin - MOA, Indications, AE?
Binding to vgated calcium channels in the CNS to modulate calcium influx and inhibit release of excitatory neurotransmitters Indications Adjuvant treatment in focal seizures with or without secondary generalisation Neuropathic pain AE dizziness, drowsiness, confusion, irritability, visual disturbanve, ataxia, tremor, insomnia, euphoria, odema Gradually reduce dose over one week
80
Smoking is associated with increased risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture. T/F
False
81
What RF are associated with cerebral aneurysm rupture?
Age > 70 y Aneurysm size > 7 mm HT ACA, Posterior circulation and posterior communicating aneurysm Earlier SAH from another aneurysm
82
How long does HSV remain positive after antiviral therapy?
Positive for first week of antiviral therapy
83
Clinical Presentation of HSV encephalitis? Tx If no Dx after first PCR of CSF what is the next step
Severe headache Fever Impaired consciousness or cognitive state No meningism or photophobia Tx: Aciclovir 10 mg/kg TDS Next step - Repeat MRI and LP after 3 days Convalescent serological tests at weeks 1,2, and 6 for HSV, flavivirus or VZV
84
Clin Pres of Anterior spinal artery syndrome and tracts affected?
Loss of motor function - corticospinal Loss of sensation - spinothalamic Vibration and position sensation spared - posterior columns
85
Clin Pres of Central Cord syndrome and tracts affected?
Loss of pain and temperature in one or more adjacent dermatomes bilaterally at the level of the lesion - cape or vest like distribution across neck, shoulders or trunk As the central lesion enlarges it effects - the anterior horn cells, causing segmental lower motor neuron weakness at the level of the lesion - lateral corticospinal tracts causing UMN weakness and temperature and sensation loss below the lesion Arm weakness > LL - corticospinal Preserved vibration, light touch and joint position - dorsal column
86
Clin Pres of Brown Sequard syndrome and tracts affected?
Loss of motor function, vibration, position and deep touch sensation on same side as cord damage Loss of pain, temp and light touch on opposite side
87
Which nerve roots are affected in caudal equina syndrome?
Mechanical compression of sacral and lumbar roots between L2 and S1
88
Which Abs are highly specific with mid sensitivity to Inclusion Body Myositis?
Abs against 5 nucleotidase 1A (anti-cN1A)
89
What is the difference between Duchenne and Becker’s muscular dystrophy?
Duchenne = large deletion of dystrophin gene, child hood onset Becker’s = smaller deletion of dystrophin gene Both are X-linked R
90
What is the time course for NCS and EMG changes in radial nerve lesion?
Nerve conduction studies - motor conduction fails on D3-7 - sensory conduction fails on D6-10 EMG - reduced recruitment of normal morphology motor units on day 3-7 - Fibirllations, positive sharp waves develop on D10-42 - Regenrating units appear in months
91
Which epilepsy syndrome is drug resistant?
Mesial temporal sclerosis (atrophy of hippocampus on MRI)
92
Meniere disease. When does it begin, triad?
3-4th decade Triad : episodic vertigo, tinnitus and low frequency hearing loss Exlcude neurosyphilis as a cause of hearing loss by checking serum VDRL or RPR
93
Aminoglycoside toxicty: symptoms and Dx test?
Sensorineural loss and intermittent mild vertigo Corrective saccade indicates a positive test
94
What is Uhthoff phenomenon?
worsening of MS symptoms due to increased heat e.g. fever. heat increases conduction block in demyelinated pathways. e.g. worsening vision
95
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: What? Aetiology? Clinical? Ix? Tx?
Idiosyncratic response to potent neuroleptics resulting in autonomic dysfunction, extrapyramidal symptoms and high fever. Clinical: Characterised by 3 features hyperthermia - accompanied by tachycardia, diaphoresis, labile BP extrapyramidal signs - muscle rigidity or dystonia, elevated muscle enzyme levels delirium Aetiology: D2 receptor blockers e.g. risperidone and atypical neuroleptics Ix: CK elevated Tx: Discontinuing causative drugs Supportive measures Doapmine agonist bromocriptine can reverse the syndrome Dantrolene - muscle relaxant can inhibit the excessive muscle contractions that generate myoglobinemia
96
Which anti epileptics are broad spectrum? For all seizure types
NaValproate Lamotrigine Levetiracetam Topiramate Clobazam
97
Which anti epileptics are narrow spectrum? Focal without alteration in consciousness and focal evolving to bilateral convulsive seizure.
Carbamaepine Ganapentin Lacosamide Oxcarbazepine Phenobarbital Phenytoin Pregabilin Primidone
98
Tx for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
99
Tx for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
NaValproate
100
What is paraneoplastic syndromes?
An immune reaction to the primary tumour generating autos that cross react with epitopes on specific NS structures.
101
Anti-NMDA encephalitis is associated with which tumour?
Ovarina teratomas US or MRI of pelvis if suspected
102
# Define the following aphasia syndromes? Broca Wernicke Global Conduction Transcortical motor Transcortical sensory Mixed transcortical
Broca - Nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension Wernicke - Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension Global - nonfluent aphasia with impaired comprehension. Both Broca and Wernicke’s affected Conduction - poor repetition but fluent speech - intact comprehension - can’t repeat phrase: No ifs ands or buts - damage to arcuate fasiculus - Damage to left superior temporal lobe and/or left supra marginal gyrus Transcortical motor - nonfluent aphasia with good comprehension and repetition Transcortical sensory - poor comprehension with fluent speech and repetition Mixed transcortical - non fluent speech, poor comprehension and good repetition
103
What is Gerstmann syndrome?
Destruction to the inferior parietal lobule of the dominant hemisphere results in Gerstmann syndrome. •4 primary symptoms1. Dysgraphia/agraphia: deficiency in the ability to write 2. Dyscalculia/acalculia: difficulty in learning or comprehending mathematics 3. Finger agnosia: inability to distinguish the fingers on the hand 4. Left-right disorientation • Associated with lesions in the dominant hemisphere (usually left) including the angular and supramarginal gyri near the temporal and parietal lobe junction.
104
Clinical signs of 3rd nerve palsy?
Ptosis | Eyes pointing down and out.
105
Clinical signs of optic neuritis?
Relative afferent pupillary defect where the pupils appears to dilate in response to light, if the light is swung between the eyes rapidly
106
Treatment of essential tremor?
* 1st line - propanolol * 2nd line - Primidone, MOA unknown * 3rd line - combination of propranolol and primidone * Atenolol or metoprolol if asthma or bronchospasm in pts unable to tolerate primidone * Tremor resolves with EtOH and symmetrical - help differentiate from others.
107
What is the function of the angular gyrus?
Involved in translating visual patterns in words and lettrs into meaningful information such as what is done during reading. A lesion in the dominant hemisphere (left) results in Gerstmann syndrome (dysgraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and L-R disorientation, dysphagia)
108
Pt has numbness in neck. Bilateral and isolated to dermatomal region. Pain and sensation decreased in this same region. Motor function and neuro exam otherwise NAD. dx? Common causes?
Central cord lesion Manifest as sensory disorder with disruption of spinothalamic tract. Motor spared. Dermatomes above and below are normal. As lesion grows, corticospinal and anterior horn may be involved. Causes: Syringomyelia Intramedullary tumour Hyperextension in a pt with cervical spondylosis
109
What spinal cord syndrome will a knife lesion usually cause?
Brown sequard
110
What cord lesion will a disc herniation cause?
posterior cord function and nerve roots
111
Pt has UMN and LMN signs with no sensory deficits. Dx?
Amytrophic lateral sclerosis
112
Acoustic Schwannoma. Symptoms?
Hearing loss and constant vertigo
113
Restless leg syndrome. Symptoms. Common cause of secondary RLS?
Urge to move the legs accompanied by an uncomfortable and unpleasant sensation in the legs. Periodic limb movement while asleep Fe deficiency a widely recognised cause of secondary RLS. CRF- uraemia PVD DM Medications - antihistamines, dopamine antagonists, TCA, mirtazepine
114
Hall pike manoeuvre. How do you perform it?
Place the head in extension Rotate to 45 degrees while the patient is sitting Have the patient lay down quickly on her back with her head held in extension (head hanging off the examination table) 2-10 second of latency before the onset of rotational nystagmus confirms the diagnosis
115
Treatment for GBS?
IVIG Steroids NOT used.
116
Presentation of trigeminal neuralgia? Tx?
Lancinating pain of the face, triggered by eating. Common in patients with MS otherwise iodiopathic Tx: Carbemazepine is the 1st line Tx
117
What symptoms does dislocation of the stapes cause?
Hearing loss | Not specifically with dizziness
118
Vestibular neuritis. Symptoms?
``` Ear pain Tinnitus Monophasic Position dependent Symptoms last for hours to days ```
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How does Botulism manifest? Cause?
Neurotxin produced by Clostridium botulinum Causes weakness that is bilateral and descending in nature with symmetrical cranial nerve neuropathies No fever, confusion or pleocytosis
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West Nile virus infection. Cause, symptoms, Ix?
Caused by a bite from an infected culex mosquito Most patients are asymptomatic Age > 50 and immunosuppressed are at increased risk of meningoencephalitis and neuroinvasive disease involving anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. Fever, altered mental state, flaccid paralysis with arreflexia.
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Neurocysticercosis. Cause, presentation?
Caused by Taenia solium infection, parasitic worm. Transmitted by consumption of undercooked pork or by ingesting eggs via faecal-oral transmission. Characterised by seizures. Multiple cyst in brain. Tx: Albendazole and dexamethasone
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GBS: Pathophys Characterised by what symptoms
Patho: T cell driven AI response Associated IgG and complement deposition on Schwann cell. Progressive (days), symmetric muscle weakness that starts in the lower extremities (ascending paralysis) and accompanied by reduced or absent reflexes. Pain typically located in the back and extremities and can be the presenting feature. Paraesthesia, pain and paralysis are also common on initial presentation Dysautonomia in 70% of pts - tachy, urinary retention, HTN alternating with hypotension, brady, ileus, loss of sweating Important to perform PFTs as patient at risk of acute respiratory failure LP, EMG and NCS are normal in the 1st week of presentations in 50% of pts. HIV serology as may present with a GBS like syndrome.
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Recommended Tx for a patient with 70-90% stenosis of the carotid artery on a BG of MI presenting with recurrent TIAs.
Carotid stenting because carotid endarterectomy is associated with a higher risk of MI in the peri-procedural period. Stenting is associated with a higher risk of stroke. Otherwise carotid endarterectomy recommended. Stenting has been shown to be as effective. Tx within 2 weeks of symptoms have better outcomes.
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Eye movement and corresponding muscles?
LR6 SO4 rest 3 Lateral rectus CNVI Superior oblique CNIV
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Multiple systems atrophy characterised by?
Neurodegenerative disorder affecting multiple systems. ANS, extrapyramidal system and cerebellum Parkinsonian features, ataxia and AN dysfunction
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DDx of thunderclap headaches
``` SAH most common cause Cervical artery dissection Cerebral venous thrombosis Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome - think of this if headache recur over a few days Pituitary apoplexy ```
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Ix of thunderclap headache?
CT brain with no contrast within the 1st 12 hrs LP if CT -ve or equivocal - high ICP may be a clue to cerebral venous thrombosis where 25% of CT scans are -ve
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``` What is the following imaging useful for Dx in thunderclap headache: MRI Brain MRI brain with gad MRA/CTA brain MRV/CTV brain MRA/CTA neck Catheter angiography ```
MRI Brain - ischaemic stroke, cerebral oedema, pituitary apoplexy MRI brain with gad - intracranial hypotension - meningitis MRA/CTA brain - aneurysm - intracranial dissection - Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome MRV/CTV brain - Central venous sinus thrombosis MRA/CTA neck - cervical artery dissection Catheter angiography - aneurysm - Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome - arterial dissection - Central venous sinus thrombosis
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Pt post MVA with right sided headache, right Horner's syndrome and left arm weakness. Location of Pathology?
Carotid dissection. Horner's syndrome or cranila nerve palsies due to: - stretching of sympathetic nerve and cranial nerve fibres by an enlarged carotid artery and cervical root injury caused by compression from an enlarged vertebral artery Sympathetic fibres (carotid plexus, nerve to sweat gland, nerve to dilator muscle and tarsal muscle)
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Pt post MVA with right sided headache, right facial numbness, vertigo, vomiting and right sided Horner's syndrome. Location of pathology?
Brainstem stroke
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``` Neurological manifestations of the following Vitamin deficiencies: Vitamin B1 Vit B6/pyridoxine VitB12/cobalamin Folate Vitamin E ```
Vitamin B1/thiamine def (wernicke's encephalopathy) - ataxia with minimal lim dysmetria - opthalomoplegia: horizontal paralysis > other directions - encephalopathy - nystagmus: horizontal > vertical (opthalmoplegia corrects within hours of receiving IV thiamine) Vit B6/pyridoxine - painful sensorimotor neuropathy Excess Vit B6 can cause a peripheral neuropathy VitB12/cobalamin - subacute degeneration of the spinal cord. - Large fibre sensory neuropathy - depression and psychosis - encephalopathy - dementia - optic neuropathy Folate -subacute degeneration of the spinal cord Vitamin E - weakness and ataxia from spinocerebellar tract degeneration - opthalmoplegia - large fibre neuropathy
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How can you distinguish between a common peroneal nerve lesion and L5 radiculopathy?
Common peroneal nerve lesion (behind popliteal and crosses at fibula) - foot drop due to weak dorsiflexion from deep peroneal nerve - weak foot eversion (superficial peroneal nerve) - injuries from prolonged bed rest, crossing legs, hyperflexion of the knee L5 radiculopathy: - weak dorsiflexion - weak big toe extension - weak foot inversion (posterior tibialis) and eversion - lesions due to lumbosacral spine pathology therefore SLR +ve - normal reflexes - sensory loss over lateral aspect of leg and foot - extensor digitorum longus supplied by deep peroneal nerve L5
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Muscles of foot eversion. | Nerve supply?
Peroneus longus and brevis Supplied by superficial peroneal nerve; L5 and S1 Loss of sensation of dorsum of foot (sparing web space between first MTJ and 2nd MTJ.
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Muscles of dorsiflexion of toes. Nerve supply? Muscles of dorsiflexion of foot. Nerve supply?
Extensor digitorum longus Tendons of the lateral four toes can be seen during dorsiflexion. Supplied by deep peroneal nerve: L5, S1 Tibialis anterior Supplied by deep peroneal nerve L4,5
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Muscles of foot inversion. | Innervation?
Tibialis posterior | Supplied by tibial nerve; L4/5
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Convulsive syncope. Presentation?
Prodrome phase - lightheadedness - visual, auditory surroundings fading away - blurred vision - generalised weakness - tonic clonic movements a consequence of cerebral hypoperfusion. Always happen after a few seconds and never during the fall.
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Presentation of Raised intracranial pressure
Symptoms of raised ICP: Horizontal diplopia due to false localising CN VI palsy Pulsatile tinnitus nay be reported Symptoms of papilloedema: Transient visual obscurations, lasting up to 30s and described as black out of vision in one eye or both of the eyes. These obscurations may be predominantly or uniformly orthostatic. Progressive loss of vision in one or both eyes.
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Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsay Hunt Syndrome). Cause, Presentation, Prognosis?
Occurs when Herpes Zoster affects the trigeminal nerve and adjacent CN VII and VIII. Triad of: peripheral facial paralysis ear pain vesicles in the external auditory canal Prognosis poor. Recovery variable over months.
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Korsakoff syndrome. Symptoms?
Develops from Wernike encephalopathy - 80% of pts with WE who alcohol abuse develop Korsakoff Antegrade and retrograde amnesia confabulation
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Pt with symptomatic R ICA stenosis 75%. What Mx is best evidenced?
Aspirin. | Always started before CEA and continued 3/12 after.
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Acute vestibular syndrome. Symptoms. DDx?
Spontaneous, continuous vertigo lasting hours to days. DDx: Vestibular neuritis - isolated spontaneous vertigo with NO hearing loss Labrynthitis Stroke Migraine Meniere's - rare, 3% vertigo, associated hearing loss , tinnitus or fullness in the ear.
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Bilateral vestibulopathy. Main cause?
50% of cases are due to ototoxic medication. Gent accounting for 15-50%. Gentamicin ototoxicty is vestibular, not cochlear therefore producing permanent loss of balance but not of hearing.
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Complication of intercurrent illness in MS pts?
Pseudo relapse - worsening or unmasking of pre-exisiting neurological manisfestations in association with intercurrent illness (particularly febrile) or metabolic derrangement.
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What are the 3 types of peripheral nerve fibres?
A fibre - large, myelinated - alpha: efferents to skeletal muscle and afferents to muscle spindle, golgi tendon organs. - beta: efferent to muscle spindles and afferent to muscle spindles, touch and kinaesthesia - gamma: efferents to muscle spindles - delta: pain and temperature afferents B fibre - small diameter, thinly myelinated - preganglionic autonomic fibres C- fibre - small diameter, non myelinated - pain, temp, itch afferents and post ganglionic autonomic
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NCS findings in GBS?
Increased distal motor latency Slowing of motor conduction velocities Conduction block, dispersion.
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Focal seizures with or without secondarily generalised tonic clonic seizures. Antiepileptic Tx?
``` Narrow spectrum drugs: 1st line Carbemazapine Gabapentin Oxcarbazepine Phenytoin Pregabilin Tiagabine Eslicarbazepine Vigabatrin ``` In elderly, Lamotrigine and Keppra alternative options as carb is not ideal
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Generalised seizures. Antiepileptic Tx?
Valproate Absence: Ethosuximide Rufinamide If rapid response required, use medications which can be loaded e.g. valproate, phenytoin, keppra
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Focal and generalised seizures. Antiepileptic Tx?
``` Broad spectrum; Valproate Benzodiazepine Felbamate Phenonbarb Primidone Lamotrigine levetiracetam Topiramate Zonisamide ```
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Hippocampal sclerosis (aka Mesial temporal sclerosis). Cause, Presentation, Tx?
Characterised by temporal lobe epilepsy with hippocampal atrophy on MRI. Most common underlying cause of temporal lobe epilepsy. Presentation: complex partial seizures with epigastric or psychic auras are the most common manifestation Auras of taste and smell are less common are relatively specific for TLE Tx: Drug resistant
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Epidural haemmorhage. Cause, presentation?
Cause: Nearly always a result from direct head injury causing fracture of the temporal bone and laceration of the middle meningeal artery. Presentation: headache Mental status abnormalities rapid neurological decline with ipsilateral pupillary dilatation Tx: Surgical evacuation otherwise death within a few hours
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Subdural haemmorhage. Cause, presentation, Tx?
Injury to small bridging veins between the cortex and the dura. Presentation: Indolent acute develops over hours chronic develops over weeks to months Tx: Surgical intervention of clinical or neuroimaging evidence of pressure on adjacent brain tissue
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Cause of Intracerebral vs. subarachnoid haemmorhages.
Intracerebral - HT or stroke - trauma Subarachnoid - ruptured cerebral aneursym - trauma
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Tx of PML in MS?
Stop Natalizumab | Plasma exchange to remove natilizumab
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Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of GBS. Autoantibody associated?
Gq1b 90-95%
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``` Which autoab are associated with the following subtypes of GBS? Bickerstaff Brainstem encephalitis Acute motor axonal neuropathy Sensory GBS Bulbar Palsy ```
Bickerstaff Brainstem encephalitis - GQ1b, 66% Acute motor axonal neuropathy - GD1a, GM1 Sensory GBS - GD1b Bulbar Palsy GT1a
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CIPD. Presentation Tx
Weakness of both proximal and distal muscles Majority have sensory symptom findings - numbness and tingling. Neuropathic pain may be present. Deep tendon reflexes absent or depressed. Tx: Corticosteroids Plasma exchange IVIG
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Mulitfocal Motor Neuropathy. Presentation Autoab associated
Presentation: Asymmetric limb weakness, usually in the distribution of individual peripheral nerves Onset of weakness is usually in the upper extremeties Over time pt develops atrophy and EMG evidence of axon loss Deep tendon reflexes are usually decreased but intact in unaffected areas anti-GM1 in 40-80% Motor conduction block has been regarded as a core aspect of MMN.
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What is the most common presentation of vasculitic neuropathies?
Mononeuritis mulitplex - PAN - cryoglobulinaemia
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What is Heerfordt syndrome?
Facial palsy combined with uveitis, fever, parotid enlargement and transverse myelitis. Neuropathy associated with sarcoid.
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What is Parsonage Turner syndrome?
A multifocal immune mediated inflammatory peripheral NS disorder. Acute sudden onset pain radiating from shoulder to the upper arm. Affected muscles become weak and atrophied, usually upper trunk and long thoracic nerve. Middle aged men but can affect anyone. Tx: Steroids and analgesics
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Diabetic neuropathy. features?
Distal syymetric polyneuropathy Slowly progressive sensory predominant neuropathy Sensory loss in toes and feet that results from length dependent dysfunction of nerve fibres. Small fibre loss leading to pain, 25%
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Diabetic autonomic neuropathy. Features?
``` Resting tachycardia Orthostatic hypotension exercise intolerance Abnormla sweat patterns Gastric motor abnormlaities Errectile dysfunction T1Dm>T2DM Infreq seen in pts with typical diabteic distal sensory neuropathy More common in pts with pred small fibre neuropathy ```
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What is Diabetic amyotrophy?
Diabetic lumbosacral and cervical neuropathy Males > 50y Severe unilateral pain in the back, hip or thigh that spreads to involve the entire limb and can involve the other leg within weeks to months Shortly after the onset of pain, proximal weakness can be detected. Profound atrophy of the thigh can be seen. Weakness involves multiple root levels and peripheral nerves. Freq associated with weight loss. Occurrence is not related to glucose control or duration of diabtets.
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What is the commonest cause of an isolated CN IV nerve palsy?
Diabetes
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What is HSV-2 lumbrosacral radiculopathy? MRI findings CSF Tx
Radicular pain, paraesthesia, genital discomfort and lower extremity weakness. Involvememnt of cauda equina or conus medullaris may result in associated urinary retention. MRI: nerve root enlargement with associated T2 hyperintensity and T1 contrast enhancment in nerve roots and spinal cord CSF: positive HSV2 pcr, elevated protein, normla glucose, lymphocytic pleocytosis Tx: Valacyclovir
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What neuropathy is associated with HIV?
Distla, symmetric, sensory predominant polyneuropathy affecting small sensory fibres in isolation or both small and large sensory fibres occurs in 20-60%. Don't usually have motor symptoms.
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``` Paraprotiens and corresponding neuropathy associated: MGUS Waldentrom's MM POEMs Amyloidosis ```
MGUS: IgM Distal large fibre sensory predominant Demyelinating Waldentrom's: IgM Distal large fibre sensory Axonal>demyelinating Hallmark of IgM neuropathies is prolonged distal latencies implying terminal nerve involvement MM: IgG predominant Length dependent sensorimotor Aoxonal POEMs: IgG, IgA, Lambda CIDP like Demyelinating Amyloidosis: Lambda Sensorimotor and small fibre Axonal
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immunoglobulin light chain amyloidosis. What type of neuropathy and autonomic symptoms does it typically cause?
Painful length dependent peripheral neuropathy with generalised autonomic failure - orthostatic hypotension
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Parkinson's Tx: If too Parkinsonian If motor fluctuations and dyskinesia
If too Parkinsonian - increase the dose If motor fluctuations and dyskinesia - break up the dose into increased frequencies Never stop medmications abruptly as this can lead to a Parkinsonian crisis
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What is multisystem atrophy characterised by? | Tria
Alpha synuclein disorder | Triad of autonomic failure, parkinsonism, cerebellar signs
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Antiepileptic. Failure to 1st Tx. next step?
reach optimal dose. Gradually switch to another monotherpay. May go dual therpay if severe epilepsy and unlikely to respond to monotherpay or dual combination is efficacious. Combinations of Na channel blockers are not effective. Use another drug with diff MOA. Valproate and Lamotrigine are the best known combination
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When to stop antiepileptic therapy?
After 2-4 years f seizure freedomSlow tiration over 2-3 months, 6 months for benzos. Predictors of higher risk recurrence are: Adolescent onset epilepsy incl juvenile myoclonic epilepsy focal seizure underlying neuro disodrer Predictors of lower than average risk of recurrence: Childhood onet epilepsy Idiopathic generalised epilepsy
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Which antiepileptic can worsen absence and myoclonic seizures?
Carbemazepine Note: HLA 1502 and SJS in Han Chinese HLA A*3101 and hypersensitivity reaction in Europeans Phenytoin
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If you develop a rash on Carbemazapine, what is the risk of rash with other AED?
Phenytoin 58% Oxcarazepine 33% Phenobarb 27% Lamotrigine 20%
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``` AED: MOA and AE Carbamazapine Leviteracetam Phenytoin NaValproate ```
``` Carbamazapine: Na channel blocker AE - hyponatraemia, rash, blood dyscrasia - concentration dependent: diplopia, dizziness, drowsiness, nausea, lethargy, unsteadiness ``` Leviteracetam: Inhibits presynaptic CC reducing neurotransmitter release abd acting as a neuromodulator AE: Psychosis in 10% of pts Dose dependent - Sedation, behavioural disturbances Phenytoin: Na channel blocker AE: Ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia (dose related) skin thickening, acne, coarsening of facial features Can worsen absence and myoclonic seizures NaValproate: PIP3 reduction Na channel blocker Increases GABA AE: weight gain teratogenic PCOS like syndrome
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Which AED causes weight gain?
NaValproate
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Why is there an increased risk of OP and Osteopenia with AEDs?
Accelerated metabolism of Vit D and lower oestrodial levels. | 2-6 x higher rates of bone fractures
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``` Neuromyelitis Optica aka Devic's disease What Epid Diagnostic criteria Ab associated Tx Complications ```
relapsing remitting B cell mediated disease Epid: High predominance in Asian and African decent Dx Criteria: 1. Optic neuritis 2. Acute myelitis AND at least 2 supportive criteria: 1. Continguous spinal cord lesion on MRI that extends over three vertebral segments 2. Brain MRI does not satisfy Dx criteria for MS 3. NMO-IgG is seropositive AQP4 antibodies 70% sensitive and more than 90% specific for NMO - predicts risk of future relapses - 30% ARRR - Eculuzimab (Phase III) Complications: More severe disease than MS 50% are blind in at least one eye or required ambulatory assistance within 5 years of disease onset Longitudinally extensive centrally located necrotic spinal cord
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``` Multiple Sclerosis: Epid Pathophys 4 Types Diagnostic criteria MRI criteria LP findings ```
AI inflammatory demyelination and axonal degeneration Epid: HLA-DR2 (HLA-DRb1*15) in northern europeans Develops in genetically susceptible individuals as a result of environmental exposure (EBV, smoking, latitude) F>M Pathophys: Plaques (focal demyelination) through time and space, T cell mediated damage to oligodendrocytes B cell involvement Early axonal loss ``` Types: Relapse remitting (RRMS) most common - 90% F:M 2:1 Secondary progressive (SPMS) - 50-75% within 15 years Primary progressive MS (PPMS) - 10% overall - 20% of males - no relapse Progressive relapsing MS - ```
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Multiple sclerosis Tx: Acute Non acute
Acute attack: IV methylpred 500 mg -1 g for 3/7 OR Oral 1 g methylpred for 3/7 (was not inferior to IV, Lancet, 2015) Non acute Tx only effective in RR MS: Start with most efficacious drug and monitor closely for AE. ``` 1st line Tx: Interferon Beta (Modulates T cell and B cell function) - Injectable ``` Other Tx: Glatiramer Acetate - Modulates T cell and B cell function Teriflunomide - synthetic polypeptides resembling MHC class II molecules, stimulates reg T cells that resemble myelin reactive T cells. Dimethyl Fumurate/BG12 - Hydrolysed to its metabolite monomethyl fumarate (MMF) Laquinimod - unknown Fingolimod - Sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator Natalizumab - Targets a4B1-intergrin
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``` Multiple sclerosis drugs: MOA, AE Interferon Beta (SC) Glatiramer Acetate (SC) Teriflunomide (PO) Dimethyl Fumurate/BG12 (PO) Laquinimod (PO) Fingolimod (PO) Natalizumab (Infusion) Alemtuzumab (infusion) ```
``` Interferon Beta (1st line)- injectable MOA: - Modulates T cell and B cell function - decreases expression of matrix metalloproteinases - reverses BBB disruption - alters expression of a number of cytokines Efficacy - annually reduces relapses, 30% SE: Flu like symptoms, may worsen neurology Injection site reaction Subset will develop Ab Depression, leukopenia, LFTs and thyroid disorders Subset will develop ANTIBODIES ``` Glatiramer Acetate - injectable MOA: synthetic polypeptides resembling MHC class II molecules functions as an altered peptide ligand MHC class II molecules and stimulates reg T cells that resemble myelin reactive T cells. Efficacy: annually reduces relapses, 30%. Same as interferon beta AE: Injection site reaction, post injection systemic reactions No constitutional symptoms like IFN-B ``` Teriflunomide - Oral MOA: derived leflunomide Antimetabolite that interferes with the de novo synthesis of pyrimidines. Inhibits mitochondrial enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase. Unknown mechanism in MS Efficacy: Reduction in annual relapse 31%, disability progression 31% and MRI lesions 80% AE: Hair thinning, GIT, TERATOGENIC ``` Dimethyl Fumurate/BG12- Oral MOA: Hydrolysed to its metabolite monomethyl fumarate (MMF). Unknown mechanism Efficacy: Reduction in annual relapse 53%, disability progression 38% and MRI lesions 90% AE: Flushing and diarhhoea common N/abdo pain Cases of PML in pts treated for psoriasis ``` Laquinimod- Oral MOA: unknown Crosses CNS, reduces leukocyte trafficking into the CNS or the modulation of inflammatory cytokine production Efficacy: Reduction in annual relapse 23%, disability progression 36% and MRI lesions 37% AE: Mild LFT derrangement ``` Fingolimod - Oral MOA: Sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator Inhibits the migration of T cells from lymphoid tissue into the peripheral circulation and CNS Efficacy: Reduction in annual relapse 54%, disability progression 30% and MRI lesions 82% AE: First-dose bradycardia Herpes virus dissemination Macular oedema HTN ``` Natalizumab - Infusion MOA: Targets a4B1-intergrin Inhibits the leucocyte migration across the BBB by blocking the interaction between a4-integrin on leucocytes and vascular cell adhesion molecule 1 on endothelial cells Efficacy: Reduction in annual relapse 68%, disability progression 42% and MRI lesions 92% AE: Anxiety Pahrygitis periperhal odema Infusion related symtpoms 6% develop persistent anti-natalizumab neutralising antibodies PML ``` Alemtuzumab - yearly infusion MOA: Targets CD52 expressed in lymphocytes and monocytes and causes rapid and profound lymphopenia Efficacy: Reduced risk of relapse ad sustained accumulation of disability by 50% compared to IFN-B. AE: Infusion reactions Induce other AI diseases- ITP, Grave's, Anti-GBM, increased infection (URTI, Herpes)
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PML. | Presentation
Aubacute worsening of visual, motor or cognitive changes and/or gradually enlarging T2 hyperintensities with minimal or no gad enhancement. 90% will have worsening disability and 25% mortality.
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IRIS post PML. What? When does it occur?
Paradoxical deterioration in clinical status attributed to recovery of the immune system viral for controlling JCV. New contrast enhancement in PML lesions consistent with inflammatory breakdown of BBB. Occurs 2-5 weeks after plasma exchange and can persist for months.
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MS and pregnancy. Risk of relapse?
Relapses are reduced in pregnancy. Increased risk post partum - starting Tx post delivery does not protect against relapses in post partum period Women who are pregnant have a better long term outcome than those who have not been pregnant. Pregnancy associated with increased risk of conversion of radiologically isolated syndrome to 1st event.
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Tx of Multiple sclerosis in pregnancy?
Monthly IVMP for 6 months reduces relapses. COntinuing Tx during preg if high risk of severe relapses. Drugs that can be used are: Interferon B Glatiramer - safe with breast feeding too Natalizumab - crosses placenta and can have an immune effect Alemtuzumab - crosses placenta
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MS Drugs to avoid during pregnancy?
Fingolimod - teratogenic Teriflunomide - teratogenic and present in semen Dimethyl fumerate - teratogenic
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Best tolerated AED in pregnancy?
Lamotrigine
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Which AED causes defects in pregnancy?
``` Phenytoin - cleft palate Topiramate - cleft palate Carbemazepine - posterior cleft palate Valproate - neural tube defects, facila clefts, hypospadias, cog decline Phenobarb - cardiac malformations ```
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Which AED causes cognitive decline in children?
Valproate - dose dependent associated with low IQ socres Phenytoin Phenobarb
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Mycophenalate safe in pregnancy?
No, teratogenic
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Large vessel athersclerosis and CEA. Pts > 70 years have better outcomes?
True
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Which antiviral cause a painful sensory axonal neuropathy?
Zalcitabine Didanosine Stavudine
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What is the first sign of advanced disease in PD?
Visual hallucinations
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Huntington's disease. Inheritance Pathophys Presentation
AD Due to expansion of CAG repeats, Hungtinton > 35, definite phentoype > 40 repeats Ch4p16.3 in the huntington gene ``` Presentation Psychiatric: Depression irritability psychosis social withdrawal OCD ``` ``` Motor: Initial distal involuntary movements Chorea, face and axial bradykinesia and rigidity Dystonia can be the first sign ``` Cognitive: Can predate motor and vary in severity Executive function
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Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP). Cause? Who does it affect?
Usually young with convulsive seizures poor adherence to medications or poor seizure control tends to occur at night cause unknown - may result from brainstem mediated effects of seizures on pul, cardiac and arousal functions.
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Risk of seizure after: 1st 2nd
``` 1st = 46% 2nd = 70% ```
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``` Tx for following seizure types: Focal Generalised Idiopathic generalised Absence Don't know ```
``` Focal = carbamazepine Generalised = valproate Idiopathic generalised = valproate Absence = ethos ot valproate Don't know = valproate ```
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Parkinsons disease: Pathophys Criteria
Pathophys: a-synuclein is a neuronal protien, likely toxic leading to cell disruption. Found within Lewy bodies. (this is opposed to Tau protein found in other Parkinsonian disorders) Dx criteria: Inclusion criteria: Bradykinesia AND at least one of the following: Muscular rigidity 4-6 Hz rest tremor Postural instability not caused by primary visual, vestibular, cerebellar or proprioceptive dysfunction ``` Supportive criteria: 3 or more required for diagnosis of definite PD - unilateral onset - rest tremor present - progressive disorder - persistent asymmetry affecting side of onset most - excellent response to levodopa -severe levodopa induced chorea -levodopa response for more than 5 years -clinical course of 10 years or more ```
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EEG rhythms
``` Alpha 9-12 Hz = normal Beta 13-15 Hz = too much benzos Theta 5-8 Hz = drowsy or encephalopathic Delta 1-4 Hz = sleep or encephalopathic Spike and wave = epileptogenic ```
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Aneurysmal bleeding. Ix to confirm after CT negative?
CSF spec for bilirubin
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Diabetic neuropathic arthropathy most likely affects which area?
Mid foot
202
Clinical finding suggestive of spinal canal stenosis?
Lower extremity numbness with prolonged weight bearing
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``` Motor neuron disease: Variants Mean age Mutation Pathophy Presentation Tx ```
variants are: 1. ALS - mixed UMN and LMN - 40% have fronto-temporal dementia 2. Spinal muscle atrophy - predominant LMN 3. Primary lateral sclerosis - UMN predominant, better prognosis 4. Progressive bulbar palsy Mean age: 55y Mutation: SOD1 in familial ALS Pathophys: Anterior horn cell degeneration Loss of motor brainstem nuclei Diffuse loss of corticol neurons ``` Presentation: UMN LMN Slit hand syndrome- thinner and first dorsal interosseous wasting SENSATION SPARED ``` Tx: Riluzole - inhibits glutamate release from pre-synaptic terminals, stabilises the inactive state of voltage depends Na channels, inhibits high affinity uptake of GABA.
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Neurotransmitters. Inhibitory Excitatory
``` Inhibitory = GABA. 3 receptors A, B and C Excitatory = Glutamate, 2 major eceptors, GPCR and ionotropic (ligand gated on channels e.g. NMDA, AMPA) ```
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What are the 2 cholinergic recptors? | Where is ACh found?
Muscurinic (GPCR) and nicotinic ACh found at the neuromuscular junction in autonomic ganglia and postganglioninc parasympathetic nerve target junctions. Also found in the basal forebrain complex and postmesenchepalic cholinergic complex.
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What are the NA receptors? | Where is NA found?
alpha - NE greater affinity beta - E greater affinity NE neurons found in the locus coeruleus and other medullary pontine nuclei
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Where is 5HT found? Receptors?
Brainstem in the midline raphe nucle which project to portions of the hypothalamus, limbic system, neocorte and cerebellum. 7 receptors, most are GPCR (muscarinic)