Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How do you differentiate T1 and T2 MRIs?

A

T1 - 1 media is bright (fat)

T2 - 2 media are bright (fat and water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus?

A

Consolidation of information to long-term memory

Spatial memory that enables navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Postural instability

Frontal lobe abnormalities

Vertical gaze palsy, especially of downward gaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the features of Lewy body dementia?

A

Attention and executive function deficits

Hallucinations

Parkinsonism

Sensitivity to antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the features of corticobasal syndrome?

A

Dementia

Alien limb phenomenon

Asymmetric motor abnormalities, often initially affecting only one limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension

(hypertension is a more significant risk factor for stroke than it is cardiac events)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous cerebral haemorrhage in the elderly?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (amyloid deposits form in blood vessels of the CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous intracerebral haemorrhage in children?

A

Ruptured arteriovenous malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes amaurosis fugax?

A

TIA of the internal carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Wallenberg syndrome?

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

Occlusion of the PICA or branches of the vertebral artery

Symptoms include ipsilateral Horner syndrome, palate weakness, hemiataxia, and contralateral sensory disturbances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a cryptogenic stroke?

A

Brain infarction not attributable to a source of definite cardioembolism, large artery atherosclerosis or small artery disease despite thorough vascular, cardiac and serologic evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis?

A

Postictal weakness or paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia?

A

Anterograde - difficulty forming new memories (hippocampus)

Retrograde - difficulty retrieving old memories (hippocampus, temporal lobe and surrounding structures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Encephalitis involving the temporal lobe is strongly associated with which pathogen?

A

Herpes simplex meningitis

Also other herpes viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name two ergot-derived dopamine agonists

A
  1. Cabergoline
  2. Pergolide
  3. Bromocriptine
    * Associated with pulmonary and valvular fibrosis*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name two non-ergot derived dopamine agonists

A
  1. Pramipexole
  2. Rotigotine
  3. Ropinirole
  4. Apomorphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name two MOA-B inhibitors

A
  1. Selegiline
  2. Rasagiline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name and catechol-O-methytransferase inhibitor

A

Entacapone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of catechol-O-methytransferase inhibitors? (entacapone)

A

Inhibit peripheral breakdown of levodopa

Helps with motor fluctuations associated with levodopa use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of MAO-B inhibitors?

A

Reduce the breakdown of dopamine

21
Q

What is the most common human prion disease?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

22
Q

Where is pain from fibromyalgia predominantly experienced?

A

“Tender points”, usually where muscles and tendons attach to bone

No notable swelling, deformity or erythema

Laboratory tests are normal as there is no inflammation

23
Q

What are the three prodromal symptoms in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Constipation
  2. REM sleep disturbance
  3. Anosmia
24
Q

What is the classic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Decrementing bradykinesia
  2. Tremor
  3. Rigidity
25
Q

What is dysarthria?

A

Disorder of speech - poor articulation and pronunciation

26
Q

What is dysphasia?

A

A disorder of language - impaired selection of words and formulation of sentences

Can be expressive (Broca) or receptive (Wernicke)

27
Q

What is a Jacksonian march?

A

Spread of a focal seizure through the ipsilateral side of the body

28
Q

What is the major adverse effect of vigabatrin?

A

Permanent visual field defects

Perform regular visual testing while on treatment

29
Q

Is pseudobulbar palsy an UMN or LMN lesion?

A

UMN

30
Q

What is affected in pseudobulbar palsy?

A

Corticobulbar tracts

Stroke, neurodegenerative diseases, injury, malignancy

31
Q

If a patient has saccades, where is the lesion?

A

Midline cerebellum

32
Q

How can the C4 myotome be tested?

A

Shoulder shrug

33
Q

How can the C5 myotome be tested?

A

Elbow flexion

Shoulder abduction and external rotation

34
Q

How can the C6 myotome be tested?

A

Wrist extension

35
Q

How can the C7 myotome be tested?

A

Elbow extension and wrist flexion

36
Q

How can the C8 myotome be tested?

A

Thumb extension and finger flexion

37
Q

How can the T1 myotome be tested?

A

Finger abduction

38
Q

How can the L2 myotome be tested?

A

Hip flexion

39
Q

How can the L3 myotome be tested?

A

Knee extension

40
Q

How can the L4 myotome be tested?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion

41
Q

How can the L5 myotome be tested?

A

Great toe extension

42
Q

How can the S1 myotome be tested?

A

Ankle plantarflexion

43
Q

How can the S4 myotome be tested?

A

Bladder and rectum motor supply

44
Q

Which drugs are associated with hyperprolactinemia?

A

1st generation antipsychotics

Risperidone

Metoclopramide/domperidone

Methyldopa

45
Q

Why do dopamine antagonists cause hyperprolactinemia?

A

Dopamine inhibits prolactin

46
Q

What is a decorticate posture?

A
47
Q

What is a decerebrate posture?

A
48
Q

What is the empirical treatment for bacterial meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone IV

PLUS

Dexamethasone IV