Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How do you differentiate T1 and T2 MRIs?

A

T1 - 1 media is bright (fat)

T2 - 2 media are bright (fat and water)

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2
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus?

A

Consolidation of information to long-term memory

Spatial memory that enables navigation

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3
Q

What are the features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Postural instability

Frontal lobe abnormalities

Vertical gaze palsy, especially of downward gaze

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4
Q

What are the features of Lewy body dementia?

A

Attention and executive function deficits

Hallucinations

Parkinsonism

Sensitivity to antipsychotics

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5
Q

What are the features of corticobasal syndrome?

A

Dementia

Alien limb phenomenon

Asymmetric motor abnormalities, often initially affecting only one limb

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension

(hypertension is a more significant risk factor for stroke than it is cardiac events)

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous cerebral haemorrhage in the elderly?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (amyloid deposits form in blood vessels of the CNS)

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous intracerebral haemorrhage in children?

A

Ruptured arteriovenous malformations

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9
Q

What causes amaurosis fugax?

A

TIA of the internal carotid artery

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10
Q

What is Wallenberg syndrome?

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

Occlusion of the PICA or branches of the vertebral artery

Symptoms include ipsilateral Horner syndrome, palate weakness, hemiataxia, and contralateral sensory disturbances.

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11
Q

What is a cryptogenic stroke?

A

Brain infarction not attributable to a source of definite cardioembolism, large artery atherosclerosis or small artery disease despite thorough vascular, cardiac and serologic evaluation

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12
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis?

A

Postictal weakness or paralysis

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13
Q

What is the difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia?

A

Anterograde - difficulty forming new memories (hippocampus)

Retrograde - difficulty retrieving old memories (hippocampus, temporal lobe and surrounding structures)

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14
Q

Encephalitis involving the temporal lobe is strongly associated with which pathogen?

A

Herpes simplex meningitis

Also other herpes viruses

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15
Q

Name two ergot-derived dopamine agonists

A
  1. Cabergoline
  2. Pergolide
  3. Bromocriptine
    * Associated with pulmonary and valvular fibrosis*
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16
Q

Name two non-ergot derived dopamine agonists

A
  1. Pramipexole
  2. Rotigotine
  3. Ropinirole
  4. Apomorphine
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17
Q

Name two MOA-B inhibitors

A
  1. Selegiline
  2. Rasagiline
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18
Q

Name and catechol-O-methytransferase inhibitor

A

Entacapone

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of catechol-O-methytransferase inhibitors? (entacapone)

A

Inhibit peripheral breakdown of levodopa

Helps with motor fluctuations associated with levodopa use

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of MAO-B inhibitors?

A

Reduce the breakdown of dopamine

21
Q

What is the most common human prion disease?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

22
Q

Where is pain from fibromyalgia predominantly experienced?

A

“Tender points”, usually where muscles and tendons attach to bone

No notable swelling, deformity or erythema

Laboratory tests are normal as there is no inflammation

23
Q

What are the three prodromal symptoms in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Constipation
  2. REM sleep disturbance
  3. Anosmia
24
Q

What is the classic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Decrementing bradykinesia
  2. Tremor
  3. Rigidity
25
What is dysarthria?
Disorder of speech - poor articulation and pronunciation
26
What is dysphasia?
A disorder of language - impaired selection of words and formulation of sentences ## Footnote *Can be expressive (Broca) or receptive (Wernicke)*
27
What is a Jacksonian march?
Spread of a focal seizure through the ipsilateral side of the body
28
What is the major adverse effect of vigabatrin?
Permanent visual field defects ## Footnote *Perform regular visual testing while on treatment*
29
Is pseudobulbar palsy an UMN or LMN lesion?
UMN
30
What is affected in pseudobulbar palsy?
Corticobulbar tracts ## Footnote *Stroke, neurodegenerative diseases, injury, malignancy*
31
If a patient has saccades, where is the lesion?
Midline cerebellum
32
How can the C4 myotome be tested?
Shoulder shrug
33
How can the C5 myotome be tested?
Elbow flexion Shoulder abduction and external rotation
34
How can the C6 myotome be tested?
Wrist extension
35
How can the C7 myotome be tested?
Elbow extension and wrist flexion
36
How can the C8 myotome be tested?
Thumb extension and finger flexion
37
How can the T1 myotome be tested?
Finger abduction
38
How can the L2 myotome be tested?
Hip flexion
39
How can the L3 myotome be tested?
Knee extension
40
How can the L4 myotome be tested?
Ankle dorsiflexion
41
How can the L5 myotome be tested?
Great toe extension
42
How can the S1 myotome be tested?
Ankle plantarflexion
43
How can the S4 myotome be tested?
Bladder and rectum motor supply
44
Which drugs are associated with hyperprolactinemia?
1st generation antipsychotics Risperidone Metoclopramide/domperidone Methyldopa
45
Why do dopamine antagonists cause hyperprolactinemia?
Dopamine inhibits prolactin
46
What is a decorticate posture?
47
What is a decerebrate posture?
48
What is the empirical treatment for bacterial meningitis?
Ceftriaxone IV PLUS Dexamethasone IV