Neurophys 3 Final Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
Arousal systems in the brain appear to be determined by the interaction between what structures?
A
brainstem, hypothalamus, thalamus, and basal forebrain
2
Q
Dampening of arousal systems w/concomitant (at the same time) active inhibition by thalamo-cortical systems produces _?
A
sleep
3
Q
Name 3 areas that maintain wakefulness.
A
oral pontine reticular formation (glutamate), midbrain central tegmentum, posterior hypothalamus (histamine)
4
Q
Name 3 sleep-promoting areas.
A
midline brainstem (raphe nuclei-serotonin), dorsolateral medullary reticular formation, anterior hypothalamic preoptic region (parasymp-conservation)
5
Q
What is considered the sleep modulating center of the brain? what type of projections does it have? where does it project to?
A
Magnocellular nucleus basalis of Meynert (located in the forebrain); it has an intermingling of both sleep & waking active sites, & uses acetylcholine projections; it projects to neocortex & midbrain reticular formation
6
Q
The caudal mesencephalic (cholinergic) and cells of the oral pontine reticular formation (glutaminergic) produce wakefulness & travel through ascending projections to the _ (using a dorsal pathway). These neurons also communicate w/the hypothalamus & basal forebrain using a _ pathway?
A
thalamus; ventral
7
Q
What is a behavioral state that differs from wakefulness by a readily reversible loss of reactivity to events in one’s environment? What stages is it divided into?
A
Sleep; 1. electroencephalography (EEG) most commonly 2. electro-occulogram (EOG) 3. electromyogram (EMG)
8
Q
Non-REM sleep aka? Which stage has high amplitude delta waves (20-50%) Which stage has theta, delta (low amplitude) horizontal eye drift? Which stage has high amplitude delta waves (>50%)? Which stage includes theta & delta waves, sleep spindles, & K complexes? Which 2 stages are light sleep?
A
aka slow wave sleep; Stage III; Stage I; Stage IV; Stage II; Stages I & II are considered light sleep while III & IV are deep sleep
9
Q
What does REM stand for? The EEG resembles an awake state or NREM stage _? During REM, what is the result of the EMG activity?
A
rapid eye movement (REM); stage I; dramatic decrease in EMG activity
10
Q
In REM, sleep is usually episodic, occurring roughly every _ minutes, and occurs for a _ time period than the previous REM cycle? During REM, how is one woken up from the deepest sleep? How is one woken up spontaneously from lighter sleep?
A
90 mins; longer time period than the previous REM cycle; external arousability for deepest sleep; internal arousability from lightest sleep
11
Q
An electrical stimulation of this area of the brain produces slow wave brain sleep, and lesions here produce cortical desynchronization (waking pattern of EEG)?
A
nucleus tractus solitarius
12
Q
Lesions in which area of the brain produce insomnia? Blocking which NT also produces insomnia?
A
serotonin-rich raphe nucleus; blocking production of serotonin can also produce insomnia, which can be done by parachlorophenylalanine (PCPA), a tryptophan hydroxylase inhibitor (tryptophan, found in Thanksgiving turkeys, has an abundance of serotonin & promotes sleep)
13
Q
What is serotonin a precursor for? Sleepwalking aka? what type of stage is sleepwalking occuring during?
A
melatonin; somnambulism; occurs during slow wave sleep
14
Q
Melatonin is synthesized & released by which brain area? Is it sympathetic/parasympathetic? What does melatonin enhance? Name a symptom that is treated w/melatonin.
A
pineal gland; sympathetic; melatonin enhances sleep (prolonged bright light stimulation suppresses melatonin & sleep); jet lag has been treated w/melatonin
15
Q
Which area of brain appears to inhibit waking areas in the rostral midbrain & mesopontine reticular core?
A
preoptic nucleus of anterior hypothalamus
16
Q
What is highly concentrated in the preoptic nucleus and induces both slow wave sleep and REM sleep? The anterior hypothalamus may also produce sleep by inhibiting the waking area in the __ __?
A
prostaglandin D2; posterior hypothalamus (histamine secreting)
17
Q
What are rhythmic cortical waveforms generated by oscillatory activity in the nucleus reticularis of the thalamus? These, along w/delta waves, are physiologic events involving GABAergic neurons via inhibition promoting brain deafferentation (prevents senses from getting to cortex @ the level of the thalamus). what stimulate GABA receptors & facilitate sleep?
A
sleep spindles; sedatives (barbituates) & hypnotics (benzodiazepines)
18
Q
REM sleep is read off of this diagnostic tool that becomes highly desynchronized during REM? REM sleep is associated w/these types of spikes, which themselves are associated w/many phasic events such as rapid eye movements, changes in respiration, heart rate, muscle twitches, and dreaming.
A
EEG; pontine geniculate occipital (PGO) spikes
19
Q
PGO spikes originate from __ cells in medial pontine reticular formation & adjacent reticular tegmental nucleus? In animals, REM sleep has been eliminated by placing lesions ventral to which structure? REM-OFF cells are represented by noradrenergic cells of locus ceruleus which become _ during REM?
A
REM-ON; locus cereleus; silent
20
Q
Many _ are REM suppressors, which increase activity of norepinephrine &/or serotonin. During REM, there is a progressive _ in muscle tone associated w/hyperpolarization of motor neurons? What is 30% greater in REM sleep?
A
antidepressants; decrease in muscle tone; Rheobase is 30% greater in REM (rheobase is a measure of membrane excitability, the threshold at which the stimulus causes a response); in essence, this rheobase being 30% higher during REM means it’s harder to excite those neurons when one is in REM sleep
21
Q
What is the minimum time required for an electric current 2x the strength of the rheobase to stimulate a muscle or a neuron?
A
chronaxie
22
Q
Normally, REM sleep is associated w/a progressive decrease in muscle tone associated w/hyperpolarization of motor neurons. However, in this disorder, there is persistent muscular tone during REM sleep, and it is characterized by bursts of excessive limb & body movements (although cause is unknown in humans).
A
REM behavior disorder
23
Q
The use of _ in the 50’s & 60’s as sleeping pills proved unsatisfactory, as they led to addiction, dependence & disruption of normal sleep stages. Chronic users frequently became addicted & refractory to the drug, giving poorer sleeping habits.
A
barbituates
24
Q
During sleep, what happens to brain & body temp? metabolism? what serves as an endogenous clock influencing both sleep & body temp in a closely-coupled fashion? brain metabolism decreases _% in slow wave sleep? what happens to cerebral blood flow during SWS (slow wave sleep)? what appears to be a somnogenic (sleep-producing) NT, which caffeine can block?
A
reduction of body & brain temp @ onset of sleep associated w/vasodilation; decrease in metabolism; suprachiasmatic nucleus; brain metabolism decreases 20-35% in SWS; cerebral blood flow decreases in SWS; adenosine is a somnogenic NT
25
Sleep onset is associated w/inhibition of _ & _, and stimulation of GH & prolactin.
TSH, cortisol
26
Name 3 functions of sleep.
1. restores normal levels of brain activity & normal balance among different parts of the CNS (restores natural balance).
2. physiologic effects on the rest of the body (decreases SNS, increased parasymp in SWS)
3. enhanced immune function
27
There appears to be a link btwn. sleep & __ __? Sleep deprivation, a stressor, can raise _, can contribute to _ resistance, _ SWS, and individuals who sleep longer than _ hours are less likely to be obese than individuals who sleep less than 6 hours.
weight loss; raise cortisol (which increases insulin & produces fat storage); contributes to insulin resistance (high fat, high sugar diets-linked to obesity, CV disease, type II diabetes); decreases SWS (esp. stage III & IV NREM sleep, linked w/decreased levels of GH); longer than 9 hours
28
This hormone from the GI tract increases feelings of hunger, increases food intake, and promotes weight gain? This hormone from adipose tissue decreases drive for food intake, increases energy utilization, and promotes weight loss? increasing sleep will increase _ & decrease _?
ghrelin; leptin; increasing sleep increases leptin, decreases ghrelin
29
What disrupts normal brain function as there is uncontrolled excessive brain activity of either part or all of the CNS, an electrical storm? Predisposition is _ than incidence?
epilepsy (seizures); greater
30
Name some causes of epilepsy. What is the incidence? When do seizures terminate?
trauma, oxygen deprivation, tumors, infections, toxic states, strong emotional stimuli, alkalosis (hyperventilation), drugs, fever, loud noises/flashing lights (**1/2 cases of all seizures are unknown cause); incidence is .5-1% of the population (2nd MC neurological disease behind migraines); termination of a seizure happens w/neuronal fatigue & active inhibition
31
What is the 2nd MC neurological disease? what disease is MC?
epilepsy (seizures); MC is migraines
32
Name the different types of seizures. Which one is most global? Which one is the most severe form?
Grand Mal (tonic-clonic)- most global; Petite Mal (absence); psychomotor (focal); jacksonian; myoclonic; atonic; status epilepticus-worst form b/c it's 24/7
33
Name the 4 stages of a Grand Mal seizure.
1. Aura-altered sensation prior to seizure (tingling)
2. Tonic phase- rigid body stiffening, loss of consciousness
3. Tonic-clonic phase: strong muscle contractions & convulsions, over within minutes
4. Post-ictal phase: return to consciousness; may be associated w/confusion, stupor, slurred speech, weakness
34
What are 4 ways to deal w/epilepsy?
1. Chiropractic adjustments
2. Vagal stimulator (decreases seizure frequency/severity
3. Surgery: excision of epileptic foci
4. Drugs, including phenobarbital, dilantin, tegratol, and depekene (valproic acid)
35
What is a change in EEG resulting from stimulation of a sensory pathway that is extracted from the EEG using computer averaging techniques? EEG is recorded during repetitive _ stimulation (tap on skin, flash of light). When does the computer sample the EEG?
Sensory Evoked Potential (EP); repetitive natural stimulation; computer samples the EEG before & after stimulation & sample data are averaged
36
What are Sensory EP's clinically useful for?
sensory EP consist of multiple components related to various aspects of subcortical & cortical processing, so they are clinically useful for 1. assessing the function of sensory systems, or 2. evaluating demyelinating diseases (Multiple Sclerosis)
37
Destruction of myelin causes conduction velocity to _ which _ latencies.
decrease; increases
38
What is the phenomenon of increasing sensitivity of the nervous system (increasing neuroexcitability) due to multiple acute withdrawals of sedative-hypnotic drugs, such as alcohol & benzodiazepines? What symptoms/side effects can this cause?
Kindling; the increased neuroexcitability may result in increased seizures. An intensification of anxiety & other psychological symptoms can also occur. "kindling the nervous system"
39
Kindling: may underlie impulsivity associated w/binge drinking where there is kindling of the _ w/resultant distortion of neurotransmission. Who is most sensitive to the neuropsychological effects of binge drinking? What else can be associated w/alcohol withdrawal kindling?
amygdala; adolescents, females & young adults most sensitive to binge drinking; increased fear & anxiety & cognitive impairments also associated
40
Kindling: the mechanisms of neurotoxicity & kindling of neurotransmission systems is thought to be due to alcohol's acute effects on _ enhancement and _ suppression?
```
GABAergic enhancement (inhibitory); NMDA suppression
- process: CNS depression-tolerance-rebound effect-hyper-excitability state; if this hyperexcitability state occurs mutliple times, kindling & possible neurotoxicity can occur
```
41
What affects core elements that define humanity (such as personality, goal-directed behavior, language, creativity, mood, emotion, abstract thinking, social organization), are considered neural disruptions that are probably complex, multiple, and not readily observable (occur at biomolecular/molecular level), and range from mild to severe?
Mental illnesses
42
Name 2 mild mental illnesses. Name some severe mental illnesses.
mild: OCD, antisocial personality
severe: dementias, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major depression, anxiety disorders (panic attacks)
43
This severe mental illness means "shattered mind" and is characterized by a mixture of signs & symptoms of which no single one is necessarily present. There is a significant deterioration in functioning, an early onset in life, follows a relatively chronic course, and strikes 1% of the population worldwide.
schizophrenia (2-3% of the population has schizotypal personality disorder, a milder form without psychotic behavior
44
In schizophrenia, these symptoms are distortions or exaggerations of normal cognitive function where reality is incorrectly interpreted? What are 4 of these symptoms?
positive symptoms;
1. delusions (wrong beliefs not supported by facts & not changed by evidence)
2. hallucinations-perceptions occuring without an external stimulus ("a higher voice told me to do it")
3. bizarre behavior
4. illogical thinking (loss of normal connections or associations between ideas (derailment) resulting in incoherent thoughts & speech
45
In schizophrenia, is the disease dominated by positive or negative symptoms and impairs the person's functionability more? Which symptoms are associated w/excessive mesolimbic activity? associated w/excessive mesocortical activity? which symptoms are more episodic?
dominated by negative symptoms (in terms of total amount of time); positive & mesolimbic; negative & mesocortical; positive = more episodic
46
In schizophrenia, which symptoms are a loss or decrease of normal functions? What are 5 of these symptoms?
negative symptoms;
1. alogoria-poverty of speech or empty content
2. flat affect-decrease in ability to express emotion
3. anhedonia-inability to experience pleasure (as hedonists are pleasure-seeking)
4. avolition-inability to initiate or persist in goal-directed behavior
5. attentional impairment
47
This "subset" of negative symptoms includes poor attention, is chronic & persistent (which are the most difficult aspects of the disease to manage), and has deficits in working memory (involving the prefrontal cortex where one cannot organize the day or planning/carrying out a sequence of events).
cognitive symptoms
48
Name the 3 forms of symptoms associated w/schizophrenia.
1. positive symptoms
2. negative symptoms (worst, most frequent)
3. cognitive symptoms (subset of negative)
49
In this severe mental illness, there is anatomical abnormalities that include an enlargement of ventricles & prominent sulci due to abnormal brain development. There is a mix of genes & environment that are causative factors, and it's said to be a disease of abnormal neural connectivity during final maturation of the brain.
schizophrenia
50
In genetic causes of schizophrenia, what is the concordance in monozygotic twins, meaning the second twin will develop it also? What about the concordance in dizygotic twins? What are some non-genetic factors associated w/schizophrenia?
40%; 10%; poor nutrition (gluten connection), infections during pregnancy/childhood, toxins that damage neurons or affects NT systems, and radiation that produces mutations
51
What is the working hypothesis between dopamine & schizophrenia?
It is thought that in patients w/schizophrenia, there is increased levels of dopamine metabolites
52
Name 3 mood disorders.
1. Depression
2. Mania
3. Anxiety disorders
53
This word means a sustained emotional state? What is a sign that can be observed? What are some normal affective responses?
mood; affect; euphoria, elation, pleasure, surprise, anger, anxiety, disappointment, sadness, grief, despair, depression
54
What was first descibed in the 5th century BC where moods were thought to depend upon the balance of the four humors, which are blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile? An excess of black bile was thought to cause what? which terms means black bile today?
unipolar depression; excess of black bile=depression; melancholia means black bile
55
Unipolar depression is most likely several disorders that typically lasts how long when untreated? It is characterized by what? what is there an inability to experience? which 2 NT's is there a decrease of?
last 4-12 months untreated; characterized by pervasive unpleasant mood that is present most of the day; inability to experience pleasure (anhedonia); decreased levels of norepinephrine/serotonin (*exercise can increase norepinephrine/serotonin levels)
56
In unipolar depression, when are the symptoms usually worse? what else needs to be excluded? what is the incidence of unipolar depression in the US? average age of onset? 2 subtypes?
symptoms usually worse in the morning (diurnal variation); other neurological diseases, like schizophrenia, need to be excluded; incidence of unipolar depression is 5% in the US w/avg. age of onset around 30; subtypes: 1)endogenous melancholic (unknown cause), and 2)reactive (from some traumatic life event); unipolar depression is often basal glucocorticoid (cortisol) hypersecretion & negative feedback resistance
57
Bipolar disorder aka? Gives rise to _? What is an elevated expansive or irritable mood which lasts at least a week, including overactivity (speech), social intrusiveness, increased energy & libido, decreased need for sleep, and reckless involvements?
aka manic-depressive; euphoria (manic phase); mania
58
In terms of general depression, _ can play a role? the average age of onset has _ over the last century? there is a strong _ predisposition?
stress; declined; genetic
59
Name some common treatments of depression.
1. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) - 90%
2. Drugs- 70% effective (MAO inhibitors, tricyclic compounds, specific serotonin uptake blockers, lithium salts)
3. Alternatives: st. john's wort (herb), chiropractic, omega 3 FA, transcranial magnetic stimulation, *exercise*
60
This treatment of depression has been in use for over 50 years, and has a full remission or marked improvement in about 90% of patients w/well defined major depression? What is the treatment protocol? What is one disadvantage associated w/it?
ECT (electroconvulsive therapy); treatment: 6-8 treatments at 2 day intervals over 2-4 weeks, including anesthesia w/complete muscle relaxation; disadvantage: possibly memory loss that can be severe, similar to closed head trauma
61
This depression treatment decreases breakdown of biogenic amines (norepinephrine & serotonin), has a 70% response rate, and has a lag of 1-3 weeks with 4-6 weeks needed for full effect.
MAO inhibitors (mono amine oxidase)
62
This depression treatment uses biogenic amine uptake blockers, has a 70% rate, and has a lag of 1-3 weeks with 4-6 weeks needed for full effect.
tricyclic compounds
63
This depression treatment is considered 85% effective by specifically blocking the re-uptake of serotonin using Prozac. It has a lag of 1-3 weeks with 4-6 weeks needed for full effect.
specific serotonin uptake blockers
64
This depression treatment is effective at terminating manic episodes by having inhibitory effects on neuronal signal transduction systems (characteristic of mood stabilizers). Omega 3 FA have similar effects and are less harmful.
lithium salts
65
This form of depression treatment uses magnetic fields to stimulate different areas of the brain. It is a relatively new technique used to treat depression (FDA approval in 2008), used typically when medicine has failed, and the treatment is 5x/week for up to 6 weeks. Who is it used by to speed up learning?
transcranial magnetic stimulation; used by military
66
Chronic back pain sufferers have a high rate of this emotion, by far the most common emotion associated w/chronic back pain? In addition, chronic back pain is associated w/increased rates of _ _?
depression; brain shrinkage (loss of gray matter; brain may age up to 20x faster than normal)
-termed the triad: chronic back pain, depression, brain shrinkage
67
Which disease has a key feature of frequent occurrence of symptoms of fear (increased SNS), such as arousal, restlessness, heightened responsiveness, sweating, a racing heart, and increased BP?
anxiety disorders
68
Anxiety is considered _ while excessive anxiety is _? What are subjective manifestations associated w/anxiety?
adaptive (signals potential danger & can contribute to mastery of difficult situation); excessive anxiety is maladaptive (too intense, inappropriately provoked by events that present no real danger); subjective manifestations are a heightened sense of awareness and a deep fear of impending disaster & death
69
These are brief episodes of terror, are recurrent & unexpected, last 15-30 minutes 1-3x/week, have an intense overactivity of the SNS (heart races, shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness, trembling, flushes, chills), an average age of onset in the late 20's, and are induced by inhalation of CO2 & an infusion of sodium lactate into the blood?
panic attacks (many people think they're experiencing a myocardial infarction)
70
This type of anxiety is long lasting w/unrealistic or excessive worry greater than 6 months, increased motor tension (trembling, twitching muscle aches, restlessness), increased SNS (heart palpitations, increased HR, sweating, cold hands, feeling on edge), an exaggerated startle response, and difficulty concentrating.
generalized anxiety disorder
71
In terms of drug treatment for anxiety, _ enhance the activity of GABA receptors (inhibitory). This stimulation of GABA receptors opens chloride channels, increasing the chloride influx and hyperpolarizing the cell?
Benzodiazepines (valium, librium); a possible side effect of taking these is an increase in smelling capability
72
This broad term is a progressive decline in mental function that is age-related but doesn't have to occur; it's rare btwn. the ages of 45-65. In the US, 11% of the population older than _ show mild-severe mental impairment (and from 75 on, there is a 2% increase per year).
Dementia- Alzheimer's is the most common form at 70%
73
Physiologically, what age is considered to be a full life?
85
74
In Alzheimer's, the findings on CT & MRI are non-specific, but they do show which features? What are some early manifestations of Alzheimer's?
thinning of cortical gyri (therefore more prominent sulci) & enlarged ventricles; early manifestations: forgetfulness, untidiness, transient confusion, periods of restlessness, lethargy, errors in judgment
75
Alzheimer's has a DNA marker on the long arm of chromosome _, and is therefore present in almost all people w/_ _ who live past age 35? Currently, mutations in four genes, situated on which chromosomes, are believed to play a role in the disease?
21; Down's syndrome (trisomy 21); mutations in chromosomes 1, 14, 19, 21
76
In Alzheimer's, there is an accumulation of extracellular plaques containing __, a variety of proteins that accumulate as extracellular fibrils. The gene for this is on the long arm of chromosome 21. Which areas of the brain is Alzheimer's concentrated in? Which type of protein is specifically associated w/Alzheimer's?
amyloid; concentrated in neocortex & hippocampus (memory storage); Tao protein
77
What is the effect of mental stimulation (appears to retard development & progression of Alzheimer's), which can bind to cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain & help prevent degeneration?
nerve growth factor
78
Lack of cerebral blood flow results in loss of consciousness in how much time? What is the normal blood flow in ml/min? How much of resting cardiac output is sent as cerebral blood flow? _ matter receives about 2x as much blood flow as _ matter? Name some metabolic controls that will cause vasodilatation?
5-10 seconds; 750-900 ml/min (1500 grams of brain tissue); Gray matter receives about 2x as much as white matter; vasodilatation-increased CO2, increased H+ (decreased pH), decreased O2
79
Lack of cerebral flood flow is termed a _? There are 2 types, occlusive @ 75%, and hemorrhagic @ 25%. Which type is more damaging? The neurological effects depend on the area of the brain effected. Where is a catastrophic stroke located?
stroke; hemorrhagic stroke is more damaging; catastrophic stroke located at brainstem
80
Most substances that must cross the blood brain barrier (BBB) are NOT _ soluble & use specific carrier mediated transport systems? Brain uses _ primarily which gains entrance via a specific transporter called _?
lipid; glucose; Glut 1
81
The Glut 1 transporter to get glucose across the BBB & into the brain is facilitative, saturable, stereospecific, & non-energy dependent (only need a concentration gradient). T/F: insulin is required for the transporter?
False. insulin is NOT required to facilitate glucose transport across BBB
82
T/F: the BBB is found in all areas of the brain?
False. BBB not found in all areas of the brain. It is consistent w/physiologic function, found where secretory products must pass.
83
Name 2 places where the BBB is NOT found. The leaky areas are isolated from the rest of the brain by specialized ependymal cells (tanycytes) which prevent free exchange w/_?
1. posterior pituitary (area postrema)
2. circumventricular organs (median eminence)
prevent free exchange w/CSF
84
Amino acids (AA) are transported across the BBB via 1 of 3 carrier systems. What are these 3 carrier systems?
1. L system (energy, Na independent)- large neutral AA w/branched or ring-side chains like leucine & valine
2. A system (energy, Na dependent)- neutral AA w/short linear or polar sidechains like alanine & serine; may limit the accumulation of NT glycine in cord & NT glutamate in the brain
3. ACS system (energy, Na dependent)- alanine, serine, cysteine
85
In terms of AA being transported across the BBB, which system(s): 1. is energy/Na depedent? 2. energy/Na independent? 3. may limit accumulation of NT glycine in cord & NT glutamate in brain? 4. typically consists of leucine & valine?
1. energy/Na dependent: A system, ACS system
2. energy/Na independent- L system
3. A system limits accumulation of NT's
4. L system typically has leucine & valine
86
T/F: L-dopa, used for Parkinson's, can cross the BBB?
TRUE
87
CSF (cerebral spinal fluid) is secreted by which area and in which quantity? Total CSF volume at any given time is _ ml, turns over about _x/day? It is a secretory product similar to plasma w/less protein, glucose, K, Ca, Mg, lower pH, more Cl & water, and =osmolarity in Na.
secreted by Choroid plexus at 500 ml/day; total CSF volume of 150 ml, turns over about 3x/day
88
T/F: CSF is an isotonic solution?
TRUE
89
The brain itself actually isn't sensitive to pain. What is? What is the term for CSF on the brain?
the dura; hydrocephaly
90
What are some functions of CSF?
communicates w/brain's ISF (important in maintaining a constant external environment for neurons & glia), removal of potenitally harmful brain metabolites (modified lymphatic system), mechanical cushion, reduces weight of brain, transport of peptides to distant sites, pH affects both ventilation & blood flow
91
What is the study of secreted immune cell products (like cytokines, lymphokines & monokines) & their actions in the CNS & PNS? It also looks at the nerve supply & regulation of lymphoid organs (thymus, spleen, etc) as well as neuroendocrine regulation of the proliferation & activities of monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, & glial cells.
neuroimmunomodulation
92
Activation of _ inhibits proliferation of lymphocytes & results in suppressed immune response?
SNS; nervous system & immune system are in communication*
93
Name 3 peptides found in the autonomic nerves innervating the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes that are also regulators of the immune system? Lymphocytes possess receptors for these products.
VIP, NPY, substance P
94
What effects does stress have on neuroimmunomodulation?
During physical or psychological stress, many of these neuropeptides (VIP, NPY, substance P) are released, along w/activation of the SNS. They may mediate the suppression of the immune system & an increased susceptibility to disease & infection that often follows period of prolonged stress
95
What are soluble mediators that are produced by immune cells and can modify the proliferation & activity of other cells of the immune system? Activated immune cells can cross the __ & release cytokines into the brain. Many different types of _ receptors exist in the brain?
cytokines (such as interleukin); BBB; interleukin
96
This cytokine was formerly known as lmphocyte activating factor. It is produced by macrophages as well as hypothalamic & hippocampal neurons. It is involved in immune cell proliferation & fever production.
Interleukin-1
97
Physical (trauma, infection, inflammation) & psychological stressors of brain tissue stimulate production of _? IL-1 is produced by glial cells & neurons in the brain. Prolonged production of IL-1 & other cytokines (IL-6, TNF) in the brain during pathologic states can produce fever, sleep induction, anorexia, dementia, & neuronal death, and therefore is elevated in which diseases?
cytokines; elevated in Alzheimer's & AIDS
98
Name 2 things that can offset the negative effects of elevated IL-1?
1. Alpha MSH
| 2. endogenous IL-1 receptor antagonist (both negate fever-producing response of IL-1)
99
Which cytokine can suppress thyroid function directly and indirectly via TRH, which decreases BMR & contributes to fatigue & lethargy?
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)
100
_ peptides have been shown to be produced by immune cells, and immune cells possess receptors for neuroendocrine (NE) products like NT's, peptides, & hormones.
Neuroendocrine (NE)
101
Name the nerve carrying parasympathetics that can tone down inflammation.
Vagus n.
102
There is _ _ between the cells of the nevous & immune systems directly or indirectly via endocrine messengers.
bidirectional communication
103
Patients w/spinal cord injuries have decreased immune functionability and wound healing. Which specific cells are affected by spinal cord injuries?
NK cells, T cells (adaptive), and CAM's (cellular adhesion molecules) for proper trafficking
104
__ __ is associated w/immunosuppression by releasing corticosteroids, catacholamines, endorphins, and met-enkephalins.
chronic stress
105
This structure coordinates the response to stress through the release of soluble products from the SNS & HPA axis.
Hypothalamus
106
The nervous system and endocrine system do influence the intensity, kinetics, and localization of immune responses, but they are not concerned with __ specificity.
immunological
107
This hormone was shown to have some antistress effects in mice, and works through the body's opiate receptors. It also is a sleep aid and helps offset jetlag. It is produced by the pineal gland
melatonin
108
Damage to the nervous system can induce remodeling of neural pathways. Such remodeling reflects _? Which division of the ANS is more plastic?
neural plasticity; PNS is more plastic than the CNS
109
T/F: the CNS is much less plastic that once believed?
False. More plastic than once believed
110
In the CNS, where is the plasticity the greatest? Does any degree of plasticity remain in the adult brain?
the developing brain; yes, a small degree of plasticity remains in the adult brain
111
What is the term for a reduced visual capacity? In visually deprived neonates, there can be an alteration of connections in the visual cortex via the sprouting of new axons in the damaged CNS, but it has to be done within a critical period.
amblyopia
112
Target tissues play a critical role in regulating the # of surviving neurons by secreting a variety of _ factors.
neurotrophic
113
Elimination of neurotrophic factors & their receptors lead to neuronal _? sensory & sympathetic neurons require trophic support from neurotrophins secreted by their targets. Target cells secrete limited amounts of neurotrophic factors. Deprivation of neurotrophic factors activates a cell death program in neurons called _?
death; apoptosis
114
What are the 4 characteristics of cell death (apoptosis)? What is the process prevented by?
1. cell shrinkage
2. condensation of chromatin
3. cellular fragmentation
4. phagocytosis of cellular remnants
- apoptosis prevented by neurotrophins
115
When there is damage in the nervous system, most injuries involve damage to what? What is a transection of the axon called?
damage to axons; axotomy
116
T/F: Axotomy, a transection of the axon, dooms both the distal segment as well as the proximal portion due to lack of trophic receptors from the target cell?
TRUE
117
T/F: Neuronal degeneration can propagate through a circuit only in the anterograde direction?
False. Neuronal degeneration can propagate through a circuit in both the anterograde & retrograde directions.
118
In which part of the ANS are Schwann cells located?
PNS- chemotropic factors secreted by Schwann cells in the PNS attract axons to distal stump
119
Once they return to their targets, regenerated axons can form functional _ _?
functional nerve endings; this results in the regeneration of neuromuscular junctions, re-innervation of glands, blood vessels, & viscera by the ANS, & sensory axons can re-innervate muscle spindles
120
T/F: In all 3 divisions of the PNS (motor, sensory, & autonomic), the effects of axotomy are irreversible.
False. They are reversible, although not necessarily perfect.
121
In the CNS following injury, there is little regeneration because long distance regeneration of axons is _? They may have a latent regenerative capacity that can be exploited via therapeutic interventions, such as the environment & growth promoting factors.
rare
122
Central myelin is a(n) _ of axon outgrowth.
inhibitor
123
Name 2 ways which we can minimize damage in nerve trauma.
1. antioxidants
2. preventing excitotoxicity
- NMDA receptor antagonists, which block the binding of glutamate to avoid excitotoxicity
124
What is it called when the patient is unable to independently control digits of the hand? It can happen when fingers are moving together at a high rate of activity for a long period of time, such as practicing a piano for 8 hours/day.
focal hand dystonia; an example would be writer's cramp or the piano example-the cortical areas controlling the fingers get fused together & then don't fire independently like they should
125
T/F: Glia affect synaptogenesis.
TRUE
126
Glia affect synaptogenesis. Synapses increase their electrical activity when adjacent astrocytes stimulate _ waves.
calcium
127
T/F: There is one single attention center in the brain?
False. There isn't one single attention center. What you choose to focus your attention on increases activity of those brain cells (neurons) concerned w/that stimulus. When you pay attention to something, the part of your brain that processes "that something" becomes more active.
128
T/F: What you choose to pay attention to can change brain activity and physically rewire the brain?
TRUE
129
T/F: Attention exerts real physical effects in the brain.
True. Subjects paying attention to vibration (in a study) had a 13% increase in blood flow (indicating an increase in nerve cell activity)
130
What is the immune organ that induces proliferation & differentiation of stem cells to mature T-cells? It has a progressive, irreversible decline in function as one ages.
thymus
131
T/F: Neuroendocrine system influences immune functions and primarily thymus efficiency by modulating its hormonal activity.
TRUE
132
Neuroendocrine manipulations are able in old age to rejuvenate the _, fully recovering its endocrine activity.
thymus
