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Flashcards in North Bend Test Deck (358)
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1
Q

The secondary hydraulic system supplies fluid at _____ PSI to the landing gear.

A

2000

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2
Q

Radio Transmissions can only be made on a selected radio if the associated radio knob is pushed up (“ON” Position). (True/False)

A

False

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3
Q

What is the function of the “WPN” button on the CDU (and also on the MFDs)?

A

Captures a screenshot from the live video feed

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4
Q

What power setting must you be below in order to return the Training switch to normal position?

A

40

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5
Q

The maximum cargo load is _____.

A

2,000lbs

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6
Q

How many positions are there for the HOIST master switch on the overhead control panel?

A

3

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7
Q

What is considered transition flight?

A

Flight from zero to 80 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

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8
Q

The Guarded Emergency HOIST POWER switch provides directly from the ____ should the electrical system fail.

A

Battery

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9
Q

What is the fuel filter located before?

A

Before the high-pressure pump

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10
Q

The isolation valves may be isolated by the TAIL HYD ISOLATE switch, mounted on the overhead control panel, to the ____ position.

A

CUTOFF

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11
Q

During slope operations Landing with the nose of the helicopter pointed ____ slope in the most desirable procedure.

A

Up Slope

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12
Q

What does the amber light on the landing gear indicator represent?

A

In transit or in unsafe

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13
Q

The left accessory gearbox drives the secondary hydraulic pump and the #1 alternator. (True/False)

A

True

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14
Q

What component provides overspeed protection to the engines?

A

BIM

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15
Q

The aircraft’s current position is displayed on what CDU page?

A

?

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16
Q

What hydraulic fluid is used on the aircraft?

A

MIL-H-83283

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17
Q

How is the TGB lubricated?

A

Splash lubricated

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18
Q

During external load operations, what is the emergency command for releasing cargo?

A

Pickle, Pickle, Pickle

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19
Q

What is the minimum number of ground crew personnel required to hot refuel?

A

3

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20
Q

The alternators will fail if the MRH rpm drops below ______.

A

320 to 330

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21
Q

How many LPCAPs are there in the aircraft (low Profile Control Audio Panel).

A

4

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22
Q

Hoist rate in the manual mode is preset at _____.

A

50 fpm

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23
Q

What is the minimum voltage required for SFI battery upon startup

A

18 VDC

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24
Q

The acronym “CAAS” is an abbreviation for what exactly?

A

Common Avionics Architecture System

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25
Q

What is the slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor?

A

10 degree

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26
Q

MFDs and the VPU run off of what power source?

A

AC

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27
Q

Can the Radar system pick up clear-air turbulence by utilizing the “TRB” function?

A

No

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28
Q

What is the maximum allowable load in the baggage compartment?

A

440 lbs

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29
Q

In AEO mode the Power Limit for Max Takeoff is?

A

10

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30
Q

Proper engine oil servicing levels will be checked within ___ minutes of shutdown due to draining for the oil tank to the engine gearbox.

A

15

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31
Q

The engine oil pump unit is made up of a rotor pump and three scavenger elements all driven on the same shaft. (True/False)

A

True

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32
Q

Which Dial on the LPCAP controls the R/T 5000 SAR (COMM 3)

A

Dial 3, top Row

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33
Q

What is the maximum fuel load in pounds that may be achieved during hot refueling?

A

1500

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34
Q

What temperature are engine fie detectors rated?

A

200 and 400

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35
Q

What is the maximum touchdown speed for an MH-65?

A

60 Kgs

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36
Q

The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of 2.5 gallons. (True/False)

A

False (2 gallons)

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37
Q

What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and refueling source during a hot refuel?

A

50 ft

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38
Q

What is the maximum angle of bank with NR in HI?

A

40 degrees

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39
Q

What must be done if the crew raft is to be deployed?

A

Disconnect tether line

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40
Q

Where is the external air conditioning receptacle located?

A

Left side forward of the ECS exhaust port

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41
Q

What is the capacity of the primary hydraulic reservoir?

A

1 gallon

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42
Q

When a channel is disengaged on the AFCS control panel, what will that specific channel look like?

A

Illuminated

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43
Q

The sliding door shall be opened ____.

A

Below 200 feet at 40 knots or less when over water

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44
Q

Where is the engine oil temperature sensor located?

A

Downstream of the oil tank

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45
Q

The landing gear shall be ___ whenever the cargo hook is installed.

A

Down

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46
Q

Each EGI contains its own internal GPS receiver. (True/False)

A

True

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47
Q

What is the BIG 4 in order

A
  1. NR
  2. AIRSPEED/ALTITUDE
  3. WHEELS/FLOATS
  4. ANALYZE

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48
Q

Use of HIPSARM beyond ____ will require engine maintenance.

A

30 minutes

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49
Q

The primary hydraulic system operates at a pressure rating of ___ psi?

A

870

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50
Q

Mutltiple hot refueling operations are allowed as long as total flight time does not exceed ____ hours?

A

6

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51
Q

The BOOM STOW switch will operate regardless of MASTER or EMERGENCY switch position, as long as the #1 MAIN DC BUS is powered. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

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52
Q

“VOX” mode on the LPCAP can be adjusted at any time in one simple step, by turning the Master Volume knob? (True/False)

A

False

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53
Q

What is the emergency blow down bottle for the landing gear serviced with?

A

Maybe be serviced with Nitrogen or Dry Compressed air

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54
Q

Main landing gear operate at what PSI?

A

2,000

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55
Q

What is the phraseology response when checking the landing gear position on the landing/hover checklist?

A

Confirmed Down (FP/NP/FM)

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56
Q

OEI automatically defaults to which setting when in AEO mode?

A

OEI HI

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57
Q

Where is the spike suppression switch located?

A

Forward right shine panel

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58
Q

How many modules are there on the engine?

A

5

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59
Q

Despressing the primary (PRI) fire extingushing pushdownbutton for the #1 engine will discharge the right extingusiher into the left engine compartment. (True/False)

A

False

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60
Q

The red-arc area at the base of the Radar display is a representation of _________.

A

No-return “dead” zone

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61
Q

What 3 indications are used to indicate a positive rate of climb?

A
  • RadAlt
  • BarAlt
  • IVSI

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62
Q

The cabin avionics switches MUST be placed in the “DACS” position before the battery relay switches are turned on, to prevent “GOV LVL 1” and/or “GOV LVL 2” failures. (True/False)

A

True

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63
Q

The primary hydraulic system supplies a rated pressure of 870 psi to the _____ bodies of the main rotor flight control servos and the ______ body of the tail rotor control servo.

A
  • Upper
  • Right

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64
Q

How many engine oil coolers are there?

A

2

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65
Q

During engine rinse, what is the max permissible N1 decrease of the idled engine?

A

10%

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66
Q

Unacknowledged Master Warning/Caution/Advisory Lights will be displayed differently from acknowledged ones. What do the unacknowledged warnings/cautions/advisories look like?

A

Highlighted on the display with Red, Yellow, and White background (black lettering)

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67
Q

At what airspeed is RAMAIR alone sufficient for MGB oil cooling?

A

120 KIAS

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68
Q

EICAS, also known as “Engine Indicating and Crew Alert System.” Where is it located in the cockpit?

A

It is one of the display modes of the MDF

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69
Q

The SFI (Standby Flight Instrument) is a standalone system that is redundantly powered by the battery bus and a self-contained backup battery and is designed to operate independently from other aircraft systems. This allows the pilot to transition to the SFI for primary aircraft control and continued safe flight in the event of a failure of the aircraft corresponding primary flight displays. (True/False)

A

True

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70
Q

What type of battery is the MAIN battery on a MH-65E?

A

Nickel-Cadmium

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71
Q

What is the 4th step in ENGINE COMPARTMENT FIRE IN FLIGHT emergency?

A

EFSL (affected engine) - Confirm; off

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72
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for battery start?

A

17 Volts

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73
Q

During hot refuel operations, place as much distance between the refueling source and the helicopter as the hose will permit. This should be at least ____.

A

50 feet

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74
Q

The fuel jettison rate is approximately _____ pounds per minute and will exhaust all jettisonable fuel in ____ mintues.

A
  • 270
  • 6.5

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75
Q

The 6” X 8” Multifunctional Displays, numbered 1 thru 4 (left to right) default to what display modes upon initial power-up? (IOW, how does the dashboard look when you power up)?

A

PFD, EICAS, EICAS, PFD

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76
Q

The secondary hydraulic system operates at a rated pressure of _____ psi?

A

3000

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77
Q

The VPM-8600 (video processing module) is located on the FAT (forward avionics tower). (True/False)

A

False

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78
Q

What is the maximum load limit per square feet in the cabin area?

A

125 lbs/sq. ft.

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79
Q

The wheel brake accumulator is charged by placing the ELEC PMP switch in the “Test” position. (True/False)

A

False

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80
Q

The primary hydraulic system operates at what pressure?

A

870

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81
Q

The hoist assembly is mounted on the ______-Drive pivoting boom.

A

Electrically

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82
Q

How many magnetic plugs are on each engine oil system?

A

3

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83
Q

Fuel load is limited to _____ lbs during hot refueling.

A

1500

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84
Q

When rigging the LRU-25 aircrew raft for delivery to people in the water, which devices are attached to the trail line?

A

Float strobe and weight bag, with additional flotation such as a sling

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85
Q

Dynamically the Main rotor blade can droop to _____.

A

5’ 2”

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86
Q

During preflight, the engine oil level will be visible between the _____ and the _____ (without shaking the aircraft).

A

Bottom of the sight glass/Min line more than 15 minutes after shutdown

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87
Q

How many chip detectors on each engine?

A

1

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88
Q

The rescue hoist operates at what psi?

A

3000

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89
Q

OEI automatically defaults to which setting when it training mode?

A

OEI LO

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90
Q

What is the cargo hook rated at?

A

2000 lbs

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91
Q

If you experience an ICU Failure (interface Control Unit), or LPCAP Failure, the pilot will only be able to transmit out on COMM1 and the copilot will only be able to transmit on HF. The Flight Mechanic/BA will only be able the initiate Backup Mode via the selector dial located on the LPCAP? (True/False)

A

True

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92
Q

What is the minimum flotation bottle pressure?

A

3,700 psi

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93
Q

When is the Rescue Swimmer radio check to be completed?

A

During hoist check

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94
Q

How many fire detectors are in each engine compartment?

A

3

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95
Q

The float bottles are filled with _____.

A

Helium

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96
Q

At what altitude does the L GEAR light illuminate?

A

200 ft with gear up

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97
Q

What is the total usable length of the hoist cable?

A

245

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98
Q

How many volts does the aircraft battery supply?

A

24 VDC

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99
Q

The aircraft wheels must be down during all over water evolutions (approaches, CATCH, etc.)? (True/False)

A

False

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100
Q

When NR drops below _____ rpm a 3 Hz tone is heard.

A

345

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101
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with NR HI?

A

135 kts

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102
Q

A Fully charged aircraft battery gives off how many volts?

A

24 VDC

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103
Q

How many lubricating systems does the MGB have?

A

2

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104
Q

What is the proper oil for servicing the engines?

A

Mobil Jet 254

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105
Q

What is required after cargo hook installation?

A

Landing gear to stay down

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106
Q

Moving the spike suppression switch to “START PROTECTION” places the battery in what with the DC external power?

A

Parallel

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107
Q

The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of _____ gallons?

A

2.1

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108
Q

Circuit breakers of associated components should only be reset one time. (True/False)

A

True

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109
Q

The MGB and TGB are serviced with ______?

A

6086

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110
Q

An engine out or flameout condition is report by the engine FADEC. The EICAS displays a red X through the entire engine data display. If the engine out condition is detected will the affected engine parameters continue to be displayed?

A

Yes

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111
Q

Where are the FADEC backup switches located?

A

Overhead quadrant

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112
Q

What indication is given outside the helicopter that the nosewheel is in the locked position?

A

Red Metal Flag

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113
Q

How many different modes are the MFD’s capable of displaying?

A

7

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114
Q

What temperature are engine fire detectors rated?

A
  • 400
  • 800

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115
Q

The #1 CCP (CAAS Control Panel) controls what exactly?

A

1 and #2 MFDs

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116
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with floats armed?

A

90 kts

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117
Q

The #1 fuel system has three cells: right forward, left forward, and _____.

A

Left center

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118
Q

The AC system produces how many volts and hertz?

A

200 VAC three-phase (115V single phase) 400Hz

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119
Q

The primary hydraulic filter clogging indicator is located on the regulations manifold. (True/False)

A

True

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120
Q

The engine fuel pump is a _____ _____ ______.

A

Dual Stage Pump

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121
Q

If the PIC determines that pilot NVG use would increase safety for personnel near the rotor arc, pilots may keep their NVGs in use. (True/False)

A

True

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122
Q

The TOT for each engine is measured at the free power turbine inlet by ______ dual-thermocouples connected to a temperature conformation box.

A

8

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123
Q

What is the phraseology for load jettison?

A

Pickle

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124
Q

The nose landing gear assembly is a dual wheel, _____ degree swiveling-type gear.

A

360

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125
Q

The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing _____ psi form the secondary hydraulic system.

A

3,000

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126
Q

What is the MAX airspeed for opening and closing the hoist hatch?

A
  • 60KIAS forward
  • 30 KIAS sideward

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127
Q

The hoist is capable of lifting ____ pounds.

A

600

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128
Q

What is the maximum pressure for single-point pressure refueling?

A

55

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129
Q

What oil is used to service the MGB and TGB?

A

Mil-Prf-6086E Grade M

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130
Q

Engine oil should be checked within ____ minutes after shut down?

A

15

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131
Q

For the MH-65E, what position are the #1 and #2 Bus Tie Circus Breakers always configured?

A

Pushed in

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132
Q

What is the MAX airpseed for sliding door open and locked

A

100 KIAS

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133
Q

Moving the EMERGENCY CUTOFF switch down (off) opens the battery relays and disconnectes both generators and both alternators. (True/False)

A

True

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134
Q

How are the Main Rotor blades attached?

A

Pins

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135
Q

The primary fire extinguisher buttons are located where in relation to all four extinguisher buttons?

A

Inboard two

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136
Q

Where are the DECUs loacted?

A

Baggage compartment

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137
Q

What is the maximum braking time for the rotor brake?

A

13 seconds

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138
Q

To reset Aual Warnings, you must cycle the “CAWS” switch. Where is this switch located?

A

Overhead Panel

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139
Q

How many boost pumps are located in each fuel system’s feed tank?

A

2

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140
Q

Boost pumps #1 and #3 provide pressure to what?

A

1 engine

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141
Q

The towing speed of the aircraft shall not exceed the speed of the walking team members. (True/False)

A

True

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142
Q

Is it permissible to start engine 1 on external power, disconnect, and use aircraft power to start engine 2?

A

No

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143
Q

A blue light, mounted externally on the fuselage and forward of the nose gear, illuminates to confirm to the ground observer that all wheels are down and locked. (True/False)

A

True

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144
Q

If jettisoning fuel below ____ the landing gear is required to be down.

A

60 kts

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145
Q

What is the normal operating pressure of the secondary hydraulic system?

A

3,000 psi

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146
Q

When adjusting Barometric Altimeter setting on the MFD’s, does the SFI’s Altimeter correct automatically?

A

No

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147
Q

Below 200 ft and before touchdown the flight mech must confirm wheels down. (True/False)

A

False

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148
Q

What is the maximum speed for sliding door movement?

A

80 kts

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149
Q

“CALL” mode on the LPCAP stay active until you press the button to deactivate. (True/False)

A

True

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150
Q

Where is the MGB oil sight guage located?

A

Forward, Lower, right

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151
Q

Where is the Volt/Load Electrical Control Panel located?

A

Center console

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152
Q

The _____ is responsible for safe responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft and aircraft and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie for home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.

A

PIC

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153
Q

Who is the CG’s Primary reviewer for aircraft modification and changes?

A

ACCB

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154
Q

______ allows randomly selected aviators to form a disciplines, coordinated crew on any aircraft in which they have been designated as qualified in type and model.

A

Standardization

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155
Q

______ develops and promulgates standardized flight procedures. It evaluates adherence to these procedures through annual Standardization Program Visits to all operation units.

A

ATC Mobile, AL

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156
Q

Aircrew personnel should consult their _____ when the slightest doubt as to their fitness exist.

A

Flight Surgeon or other Doctor

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157
Q

If a precautionary landing is made away from home station for observed or suspected aircraft malfunctions or damage, the _______ shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the result reported to the home stations engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer.

A

PIC

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158
Q

The _____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient performance of the aircraft, aircrew and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie from home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.

A

PIC

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159
Q

If the aircraft has been damaged and the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated the damage to be non-structural or cosmetic, the _____ may clear the aircraft for further flight.

A

CO

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160
Q

The minimum aircrew requires for a day MH-65 SAR flight is _______

A

Flight Mechanic

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161
Q

A new 24-hour period will begin any time a crewmember has completed _____ of rest, regardless of duty status.

A

10

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162
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time of 7 hours?

A

10

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163
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for crew mission time of 10 hours?

A

10

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164
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time for 6 hours of two or more consecutive days?

A

12

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165
Q

Off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of _____ of bed rest.

A

8 hours

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166
Q

If adequate crew rest facilities are not available between multiple sorties, crew mission time shall continue to accure. (True/False)

A

True

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167
Q

One half of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as crew mission time. (True/False)

A

True

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168
Q

An aircraft may continue flight operations as long as no member of the minimum crew required for the missions exceeds the individual flight time or crew mission time limits. (True/ False)

A

True

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169
Q

A flight crewmember shall be relieved for all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ______ consecutive days (192 hours).

A

8

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170
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than _____ hours in any seven consecutive days.

A

50

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171
Q

For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirements and limits may be waived by the _____ on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated.

A

Commanding Officer

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172
Q

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for _____ hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

A

12

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173
Q

Aircraft personnel shall obtain permission from the ____ before donating blood.

A

Commanding Officer

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174
Q

Aircrew personnel should not be permitted to engage in flight above 35,000 feet, night flying, or other demanding flights for a period of ____ after blood donation.

A

7 days

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175
Q

Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within ____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions.

A

24 Hours

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176
Q

Egress breathing device training does not limit personnel from flight or low-pressure chamber training. (True/False)

A

True

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177
Q

Standard takeoff minimums are meteorological visibility of ____ statute mile for non-operational missions; and meteorological visibility of ___ statues mile for operational mission.

A
  • 1/2
  • 1/4

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178
Q

H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. (True/False)

A

True

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179
Q

NVGs shall not be used during takeoff/landing except when conducting specifically authorized _____ operations.

A

Level II NVG

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180
Q

Handguns carried by flight crewmembers shall be carried with ____

A
  • Magazine inserted
  • Round chambered
  • Decocked with the decocking or safety lever in the SAFE position

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181
Q

The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. (True/False)

A

True

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182
Q

Transportation of privately owned/leased vehicles, including automobiles, motorcycles, and boats, aboard Coast Guard aircraft, is _____.

A

Prohibited

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183
Q

If not current, rotary-wing aircrews must complete SWET within ____ days of arrival at a unit.

A

60

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184
Q

The LPU-26PE may be used as a survival vest, but not as an egress breathing device by personnel who have not completed the initial and recurrent shallow water egress training (SWET). (True/False)

A

True

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185
Q

In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen shall be used at all altitudes above ____ feet above mean sea level (MSL).

A

10,000

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186
Q

When no oxygen equipment is available, a pressurized aircraft may ascend to 12,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) provided it does not remain above 10,000 feet MSL for more than ___ hours.

A

1/2

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187
Q

Personnel hoisting devices maintained at air stations shall be enrolled in ___.

A

ACMS

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188
Q

Flight may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. (True/False)

A

True

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189
Q

The flight made while on a leave status may not be considered to meet minimum flight requirements for crediting flight pay. (True/False)

A

True

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190
Q

Instructor/Flight Examiner designations lapse upon PCS. (True/False)

A

True

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191
Q

If the aircraft has been damaged and the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated the damage to be non-structural or cosmetic, the ____ may clear the aircraft for further flight.

A

Commanding Officer

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192
Q

Offf duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of ____ of bed rest.

A

8 hours

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193
Q

For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirements and limits may be waived by the ____ on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated.

A

Commanding Officer

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194
Q

Approved litters aboard cutters or at Small Boat stations shall be marked as _____

A

Helicopter Hoistable

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195
Q

The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. (True/False)

A

True

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196
Q

Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the ____ Before donating blood.

A

CO

North Bend Test

197
Q

A flight crewmember shall be relieved from all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ____ consecutive days.

A

8

North Bend Test

198
Q

Flight may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. (True/False)

A

True

North Bend Test

199
Q

Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within ____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions.

A

24 Hours

North Bend Test

200
Q

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for ____ hours after last alcohol and must have no residual effects.

A

12 hours

North Bend Test

201
Q

H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. (True/False)

A

True

North Bend Test

202
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more then ____ hours in any seven consecutive days.

A

50

North Bend Test

203
Q

Aircrew personnel should consult their ____ when the slightest doubt as to their fitness exists.

A

Flight Surgeon or Other Doctor

North Bend Test

204
Q

The primary responsibility and authority for the operation of Coast Guard aircraft is vested in the _____.

A

Commandant

North Bend Test

205
Q

The ____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft and aircrew and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie from home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.

A

PIC

North Bend Test

206
Q

If a precautionary landing is made away from home station for observed or suspected aircraft malfunctions or damage, the ____ shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to the home stations engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer.

A

PIC

North Bend Test

207
Q

If an individual fails a standardization or instrument check, the individual lapses to ____.

A

Unqualified

North Bend Test

208
Q

Any pilot or other crew member who has not flown in his or her primary crew position (in flight or in an approved simulator) during the previous ____ days will be required to fly a warm up flight prior to ________.

A
  • 30
  • Flying in that crew position on an operational mission

North Bend Test

209
Q

Helicopter Crew members shall attend 9D5 training at least once every ____ months

A

75 months

North Bend Test

210
Q

Is gravity hot refueling an authorized method of refueling?

A

No

North Bend Test

211
Q

Repetitive hot refueling an MH-65 aircraft should not routinely exceed how many hours?

A

6

North Bend Test

212
Q

In the event of a leak or fuel spill while hot refueling aboard ship, what should happen?

A

Secure the JP-5 pump, secure and evacuate the helicopter

North Bend Test

213
Q

What is the marking on the flight deck where the HIFR rig is to be delivered to/retrieved from a Coast Guard cutter the flight deck?

A

“H”

North Bend Test

214
Q

What is the signal from the LSO when the JP-5 pump is secured?

A

RED flag/paddle over GREEN flag/paddle

North Bend Test

215
Q

What is the signal from the LSO that the JP-5 pump is pumping?

A

GREED flag/paddle over RED flag/paddle

North Bend Test

216
Q

What is the only aviation fuel authorized for use aboard Coast Guard Cutters?

A

JP-5

North Bend Test

217
Q

What is the color of Helmet, Jersey and vest the LSO should wear?

A

Yellow Helmet, Yellow jersey, and yellow vest

North Bend Test

218
Q

What is the color of Helmet, Jersey, and vest the Tiedown should crew wear?

A

Blue helmet, blue jersey, blue vest

North Bend Test

219
Q

What is the color of Helmet, Jersey, and vest the fire party should crew wear?

A

Red helmet, Red jersey, and red vest

North Bend Test

220
Q

What is the color the Helmet, Jersey, and vest the Fuel Detail crew wear?

A

Purple helmet, Purple jersey, and Purple vest

North Bend Test

221
Q

What is the color of helmet, jersey, and vest the Medical Detail should wear?

A

White helmet, White Jersey, White Vest

North Bend Test

222
Q

What does AMBER deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is cleared to start engine and engage/disengage rotors

North Bend Test

223
Q

What does the RED deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is not cleared

North Bend Test

224
Q

What does the GREEN deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is cleared to perform the desired evolution

North Bend Test

225
Q

What is NOT part of the HIGH Primary Tiedown assembly?

A

Chain link with indentations on one end of each link

North Bend Test

226
Q

How many standard aircraft cargo strap assemblies are used on the tail boom for heavy weather tiedowns?

A

2

North Bend Test

227
Q

What is the only signal from the LSO that is mandatory for the pilots?

A

Wave-off

North Bend Test

228
Q

Are the deck status lights to be used during NVG operations?

A

No

North Bend Test

229
Q

Primary tiedowns are installed on which Tiedown rings on the MH-65E?

A

Forward Tiedown rings and High Tiedown rings

North Bend Test

230
Q

If the aircraft is to be spotted on the flight deck for more than ____ after shut down or before start-up, primary tiedowns shall be installed with enough slack to allow the struts to decompress and TALON system disengaged to release pressure on the landing gear struts.

A

1-hour

North Bend Test

231
Q

The flight deck shall be completely free of ________ to operate or traverse a helicopter without tiedowns.

A
  • Ice
  • snow

North Bend Test

232
Q

What are the two types of primary Tiedown assemblies?

A
  • High
  • Lower

North Bend Test

233
Q

How many people are required to manually traverse a helicopter?

A

9

North Bend Test

234
Q

What must all involved personnel be equipped with during traversing evolutions?

A

Whistle

North Bend Test

235
Q

The Flight Deck Director (FDD) for helicopter traversing shall normally be:

A

One of the pilots or the senior enlisted member AVDET

North Bend Test

236
Q

The Brake Rider for helicopter Traversing Shall normally be:

A

PIC

North Bend Test

237
Q

What shall the Brake Rider wear when the helicopter is moved on a boat?

A

Cranial or helmet and inflatable vest

North Bend Test

238
Q

Who shall the Driver normally be for helicopter traversing?

A

A member of the AVDET

North Bend Test

239
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the LOCKED position for direct deployment of the rescue swimmer to a vertical surface and rescue litter recoveries. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

240
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the UNLOCKED position for what type of hoist?

A

Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer

North Bend Test

241
Q

The hoist hook shall be locked during what rescue swimmer evolution?

A

Direct deployment to a vertical surface

North Bend Test

242
Q

The use of the HSD is ________?

A

Used at the discretion of the RS

North Bend Test

243
Q

During the deployment of the rescue swimmer (except for free fall deployment) in high winds, the rotor wash may be displaced aft. In any event do not place the rescue swimmer closer than ____ from the survivor.

A

5 feet

North Bend Test

244
Q

What is the objective when hoisting?

A

To minimize time spent in a hover due to single-engine risk

North Bend Test

245
Q

When is one instance that the hoist hook should be in the unlocked position?

A

During swimmer evolutions

North Bend Test

246
Q

The flight mech shall stand by the sliding door until.

A

40 Knots and positive rate of climb

North Bend Test

247
Q

The trail line is ____ feet long.

A

105

North Bend Test

248
Q

During hoisting with a heavy load of 300 lbs or more, what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

30 seconds

North Bend Test

249
Q

During hoisting with a normal load of 300 lbs or less, what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

10 seconds

North Bend Test

250
Q

SADPU is the acronym for _____ _____ Double Pick Up.

A

Sling Augmented

North Bend Test

251
Q

MADPU is the acronym for ____ ____ Double Pick Up.

A

Military Aviator

North Bend Test

252
Q

“ADVISE PILOT” is bold face in both the hoist electrical runaway and hoist failure emergency procedures. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

253
Q

The HOIST SHEAR can be accomplished at any station when the HOIST MASTER switch is in the off position. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

False

North Bend Test

254
Q

The rescue hoist can be used to deliver “small internal loads” to a Coast Guard cutter. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

255
Q

What do you do with a weak link end of the trail line during an indirect delivery of the LRU-20 raft to a vessel?

A

Deliver weak line end. with weight bag, to the vessel

North Bend Test

256
Q

What is the total useable length of the hoist cable?

A

210-245ft

North Bend Test

257
Q

Except for the 10-foot cable extremities, what is the variable speed of the hoist when operated from the hoist control panel, using normal power?

A

Variable speed from 0 to 200 fpm

North Bend Test

258
Q

What is the fixed rate speed of the hoist when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

A

Fixed-rate of 100 fpm

North Bend Test

259
Q

What is the hoist cables foot-per-minute speed for the 10-foot extremities when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

North Bend Test

A

Fixed-rate of 50 fpm

North Bend Test

260
Q

The weak link is a safety device used between the trail line and the hoist hook which protects the helicopter by not allowing more than ____ pounds of force to be applied to the hoist.

A

300 lbs

North Bend Test

261
Q

What is the length of the triple-strand polypropylene trail line?

A

105 feet

North Bend Test

262
Q

During RESCUE CHECK PART 3, the Flight Mechanic shall stand close the cabin door and stand by until a safe single engine speed of ____ and a ____ of climb are achieved.

A
  • 40 KIAS
  • Positive rate

North Bend Test

263
Q

When should RESCUE CHECK PART 2 completed?

A

In a hover

North Bend Test

264
Q

Dewatering or salvage pumps may be delivered to a vessel by one of two methods, Direct and Indirect. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

265
Q

A standard dewatering pump weighs approximately _____ pounds.

A

104 pounds

North Bend Test

266
Q

The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing _____ pressure from the secondary hydraulic system.

A

3,000 PSI

North Bend Test

267
Q

The handheld hoist pendant is fitted with a 7.5 foot coiled cord to provide the operator with mobility during a hoist procedure. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

268
Q

During Rescue Check Part 3, what brief must be completed before transitioning to forward flight?

A

Departure brief

North Bend Test

269
Q

The hoisting device must be placed ____ to ____ feet from the survivor and rescue swimmer.

A

5 to 10 feet

North Bend Test

270
Q

For a catenary deployment of the Rescue Swimmer the correct placement of the swimmer and survivor is?

A

2-3 oclock just outside the rotor wash

North Bend Test

271
Q

Can Rescue check part 2 be completed on deck?

A

No

North Bend Test

272
Q

You are performing a trail line hoist. The device is being delivered through rigging on board the vessel, that represents a snag hazard. Are you committed?

A

Yes

North Bend Test

273
Q

When rigging the LRU-20 aircrew raft for delivery to people in the water, which device are attached to the trail line?

A

Float strobe and weight bag, with additional flotation such as a sling

North Bend Test

274
Q

What must be done after the rescue device is in the cabin (or at the door not being used) during a hoist utilizing manual override?

A

Close STEP 1 VALVE

North Bend Test

275
Q

During hoisting with no load (only the rescue device attached), what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

None required

North Bend Test

276
Q

What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?

A

600 pounds

North Bend Test

277
Q

How many boom motor circuit breakers must be pulled and reset for hoist boom failure?

A

2

North Bend Test

278
Q

When Direct-Deploying a rescue swimmer to the water, the RS shall be placed approximately ____ away from the survivor.

A

2 to 3 feet

North Bend Test

279
Q

The correct phraseology after the basket is well clear of deck and rigging, IAW the 1H-65D-1, is _________?

A

BASKET CLEAR OF VESSEL, CLEAR TO MOVE _________(as briefed)

North Bend Test

280
Q

When doing an indirect pump delivery, the non-weak link end of the trail line is clipped to ______.

A

The two pump bridle “D” rings

North Bend Test

281
Q

The trail line prevents sailing and swinging of the rescue device during a high hoist or when the rescue device needs to be lowered to the restricted location. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

282
Q

The ____ ____ is the primary device for hoisting individuals in most situations. It affords a measure of protection for the individual being hoisted for vessel rigging, etc., particularly for an untrained person.

A

Rescue Basket

North Bend Test

283
Q

Due to the center of gravity of the basket and litter, survivors shall be brought into the cabin head first (situation permitting). (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

284
Q

In rescue situations where the survivor is not ambulatory, what rescue device should be used?

A

Litter

North Bend Test

285
Q

The chest strap on the rescue sling shall be used by all personnel with the exception of whom?

A

Rescue Swimmer

North Bend Test

286
Q

The flight mechanic’s Rescue CHECK is divided into how many parts?

A

3

North Bend Test

287
Q

When should RESCUE CHECK PART 1 be accomplished?

A

At altitude

North Bend Test

288
Q

The only member of the aircrew authorized to deploy the rescue swimmer is

A

PIC

North Bend Test

289
Q

During free fall deployments what altitude, if flight conditions permit should the aircraft remain below once the “check swimmer” command is given?

A

30 feet

North Bend Test

290
Q

How far should the rescue devices be placed from the swimmer and survivor during recovery?

A

5 to 10 feet

North Bend Test

291
Q

During the deployment of the rescue swimmer (freefall, sling, and harness deployments) in high winds the rotor wash may be displaced aft, allowing closer placement. In any event do not place the rescue swimmer closer than ___ from the survivor.

A

5 feet

North Bend Test

292
Q

During a free fall deployment, after the command “DEPLOY SWIMMER” is given the FM then _____.

A

Taps the swimmer on the shoulder 3 times and simultaneously release his hold of the harness

North Bend Test

293
Q

When leaving RS on scene after you MARK AND RECORD POSITION the next step is?

A

Deploy lighted raft

North Bend Test

294
Q

If the aircrew observes a hazard to RS in the water, hoisting of the RS should be initiated by

A

Place the rescue device or bare hook between the RS and the hazard.

North Bend Test

295
Q

The preferred emergency recovery method of the RS is?

A

Rescue basket

North Bend Test

296
Q

During a DAY LOST SWIMMER emergency, after establishing a right hand orbit, you should.

A

Look and listen for RS signal

North Bend Test

297
Q

Emergency procedures can be practiced with the RS on the Hook. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

False

North Bend Test

298
Q

During a hypothermic lift the rescue swimmer may require _____ to place both strops around the victim and prepare the survivor for the hoist.

A

30 minutes

North Bend Test

299
Q

During a hypothermic lift the rescue swimmer may require _____ to place both strops around the victim and prepare the survivor for the hoist.

A

30 minutes

North Bend Test

300
Q

When using the quick strop the side with the red webbing and reflective tape should be placed

A

Facing outward and placed second on the hook

North Bend Test

301
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the LOCKED position during direct deployment of the rescue swimmer to the vertical surface and rescue litter recoveries. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

302
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the UNLOCKED position for what type of hoist?

A

Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer

North Bend Test

303
Q

The hoist hook shall be locked during what rescue swimmer evolution?

A

Direct deployment to a vertical surface

North Bend Test

304
Q

The use of the HSD is ____?

A

Used at the discretion of the RS

North Bend Test

305
Q

During the deployment of the rescue swimmer (except for free fall deployments) in high winds, the rotor wash may be displaced aft. In any event do not place the rescue swimmer closer than ____ from the survivor.

A

5 feet

North Bend Test

306
Q

What is the objective when hoisting?

A

To minimize time spent in a hover due to single engine risk

North Bend Test

307
Q

When is one instance that the hoist hook should be in the unlocked position?

A

During swimmer evolutions

North Bend Test

308
Q

The flight mech shall stand by the sliding door until?

A

40 knots and a positive rate of climb

North Bend Test

309
Q

The trail line is ____ feet long.

A

105 feet

North Bend Test

310
Q

During hoisting with a heavy load of 300 lbs or more, what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

30 seconds

North Bend Test

311
Q

During hoisting with a normal load of 300 lbs or less, what is the REQUIRED rest periods between delivery and recovery?

A

10 seconds

North Bend Test

312
Q

SADPU is the acronym for _____ _____ Double Pick Up.

A

Sling Augmented

North Bend Test

313
Q

MADPU is the acronym for ____ ____ Double Pick Up.

A

Military Aviator

North Bend Test

314
Q

“ADVISE PILOT” is bold face in both the hoist electrical runaway and hoist failure emergency procedures.

A

True

North Bend Test

315
Q

The HOIST SHEAR can be accomplished at any station when the HOIST MASTER switch is in the off position. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

FALSE

North Bend Test

316
Q

The rescue hoist can be used to deliver “small internal loads” to a Coast Guard cutter. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

317
Q

What do you do with the weak link end of the trail line during an indirect delivery of the LRU-20 raft to a vessel?

A

Deliver weak link end, with weight bag, to the vessel

North Bend Test

318
Q

What is the total useable length of the hoist cable?

A

210-245 feet

North Bend Test

319
Q

Except for the 10-foot cable extremities, what is the variable speed of the hoist when operated from the hoist control panel, using normal power?

A

Variable speed of 0 to 200 fpm

North Bend Test

320
Q

What is the fixed rate speed of the hoist when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

A

Fixed rate of 100 fpm

North Bend Test

321
Q

What is hoist cables foot-per-minute speed for the 10-foot extremities when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

A

Fixed rate of 50 fpm

North Bend Test

322
Q

The weak link is a safety device used between the trail line and the hoist hook which protects the helicopter by not allowing more than ____ pounds of force to be applied to the hoist.

A

300 lbs

North Bend Test

323
Q

During RESCUE CHECK PART 3, the Flight Mechanic shall stand close the cabin door and stand by until a safe single engine speed of ____ and a ____ of climb are achieved.

A

40 KIAS, Positive rate

North Bend Test

324
Q

When should RESCUE CHECK PART 2 completed?

A

In a hover

North Bend Test

325
Q

Dewatering or salvage pumps may be delivered to a vessel by one of two methods, Direct and Indirect. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

326
Q

A standard dewater pump weighs approximately ____ pounds.

A

104 lbs

North Bend Test

327
Q

The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing ____ pressure from the secondary hydraulic system.

A

3000 psi

North Bend Test

328
Q

The handheld hoist pendant is fitted with a 7.5 foot coiled cord to provide the operator with mobility during a hoist procedure. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

329
Q

During Rescue Check Part 3, what brief must be completed before transitioning to forward flight?

A

Departure brief

North Bend Test

330
Q

Hoisting device must be placed ___ to ____ feet from survivor and rescue swimmer.

A

5 to 10 feet

North Bend Test

331
Q

For a catenary deployment of the Rescue Swimmer to correct placement of the swimmer and survivor is?

A

2-3 oclock just outside rotor wash

North Bend Test

332
Q

Can Rescue Check Part 2 be completed on deck?

A

Yes

North Bend Test

333
Q

You are performing a trail line hoist. The device is being delivered through rigging on board the vessel, that represents a snag hazard. Are you committed?

A

Yes

North Bend Test

334
Q

When rigging the LRU-20 aircrew raft for delivery to people in the water, which device are attached to the trail line?

A

Float strobe and Weight bag, with additional flotation such as a sling

North Bend Test

335
Q

What must be done after the resue device is in the cabin (or at the door not being used) during a hoist utilizing manual override?

A

Close STEP 1 Valve

North Bend Test

336
Q

During hoisting with no load (only the rescue device attached), what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

None required

North Bend Test

337
Q

What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?

A

600 pounds

North Bend Test

338
Q

How many boom motor circuit breakers must be pulled and reset for hoist boom failure?

A

2

North Bend Test

339
Q

When Direct-Deployment a rescue swimmer to the water, the RS shall be placed approximately _____ away from the survior.

A

2 to 3 feet

North Bend Test

340
Q

The correct phraseology after the basket is well clear of deck and rigging, IAW the 1H-65D-1, is _________.

A

Basket clear of vessel, clear to move ____ (as briefed)

North Bend Test

341
Q

When doing an indirect pump delivery, the non-weak link end of the trail line is clipped to ________.

A

The two pump bridle “D” rings

North Bend Test

342
Q

The trail line prevents sailing and swinging of the rescue device during a high hoist or when the rescue device needs to be lowered to a restricted location. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

343
Q

The ______ _______ is the primary device for hoisting individuals in most situations. It affords a measure of protection for the individual being hoisted from vessel rigging, etc., particularly for an untrained person.

A

Rescue Basket

North Bend Test

344
Q

Due to the center of gravity of the basket and litter, survivors shall be brought into the cabin head first (situation permitting). (TRUE/FALSE)

A

True

North Bend Test

345
Q

In rescue situations where the survivor is not ambulatory, what rescue device should be used?

A

Litter

North Bend Test

346
Q

Chest strap on the rescue sling shall be used by all personnel with the exception of whom?

A

Rescue Swimmer

North Bend Test

347
Q

The flight mechanic’s RESCUE CHECK is divided into how many parts?

A

3

North Bend Test

348
Q

When should RESCUE CHECK PART 1 be accomplished?

A

At altitude

North Bend Test

349
Q

The only member of the aircrew authorized to deploy the rescue swimmer is

A

The PIC

North Bend Test

350
Q

During free fall deployment what altitude if flight conditions permit should the aircraft remain below once the “go on hot mic check swimmer” command is given?

A

5

North Bend Test

351
Q

During a free fall deployment, after the command “DEPLOY SWIMMER” is given the FM then ______

A

Taps the swimmer on the shoulder 3 times and simultaneously released his hold of the harness

North Bend Test

352
Q

When leaving RS on scene after you MARK AND RECORD POSITION the next step is?

A

Deploy lighted raft

North Bend Test

353
Q

If the aircrew observes a hazard to RS in the water, hoisting of the RS should be initiated by

A

Place the rescue device or bare hook between the RS and the hazard

North Bend Test

354
Q

The preferred emergency recovery method of the RS is?

A

Rescue basket

North Bend Test

355
Q

During a DAY LOST SWIMMER emergency, after establishing a right hand orbit you should.

A

Look and listen for RS signal

North Bend Test

356
Q

Emergency procedures can be practiced with the RS on the hook. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

False

North Bend Test

357
Q

a hypothermic lift the rescue swimmer may require ____ to place both strops around the victim and prepare the survivor for the hoist.

A

30 minutes

North Bend Test

358
Q

When using a quick strop the side with the red webbing and reflective tape should be placed?

A

Facing outward and placed second on the hook

North Bend Test