Nur 113 Final Exam Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

a nurse is educating a group of parents about ADHD, which of the following is considered a risk factor for developing ADHD?
a. Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6
months
b. Prenatal exposure to tobacco smoke
c. High socioeconomic status
d. Regular physical activity during childhood

A

prenatal exposure to tobacco smoke

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2
Q

a school-aged child is diagnosed with ADHD is experiencing difficulties in academic performance and peer relationships. Which of the following complications is the child most likely exhibiting?

a. Improved self-esteem
b. Enhanced social skills
c. Academic underachievement
d. Decrease risk of substance abuse

A

academic underachievement

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3
Q

a nurse is developing a care plan for a child with ADHD. Which intervention is most appropriate to include?

a. Encourage unstructured playtime
throughout the day
b. Provide a consistent daily routine and
clear expectations
c. Allow the child to complete homework
without supervision
d. Minimize the use of positive
reinforcement to avoid dependency

A

provide a consistent daily routine and clear expectation

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4
Q

a child with adhd has been prescribed methylphenidate. which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

a. Increased appetite
b. Weight gain
c. Insomnia
d. Bradycardia

A

insomnia

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5
Q

During a follow-up visit, a parent expressed his frustration about their child’s ADHD behaviors. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. “Your child will outgrow these behaviors
eventually”.
b. “Let’s discuss strategies to manage these
behaviors effectively”.
c. “Beat the child with a belt”.
d. “Reducing physical activity might help
control the symptoms”.

A

let’s discuss strategies to manage these behaviors effectively

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6
Q

The nurse is observing a 4-year-old during a developmental assessment. Which behavior would be most suggestive of autism spectrum disorder?

a. Occasional temper tantrums.
b. Fear of the dark.
c. Hand flapping when excited.
d. Difficulty with fine motor skills.

A

hand flapping when excited

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7
Q

A nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child with autism spectrum disorder who is admitted for dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

a. Maintain a quiet environment with
minimal stimuli.
b. Insist on making direct eye contact during
interactions.
c. Restrain the child if they attempt to leave
the room.
d. Provide many new toys and activities to
keep the child engaged.

A

maintain a quiet environment with minimal stimuli

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8
Q

A nurse is assessing a 20-month-old toddler during a well-child visit. The parent reports that the child does not speak any words, does not make eye contact, and frequently flaps his hands when excited. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

a. Reassure the parent that some children
develop speech skills later than others.
b. Recommend the child begin attending
daycare to encourage socialization.
c. Refer the child for a comprehensive
hearing and language evaluation.
d. Suggest the parent increase verbal
interaction at home.

A

Refer the child for a comprehensive hearing and language evaluation.

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9
Q

A nurse working at a hospital in Greensboro is preparing to discharge a 3-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to the parents? Select all that apply.

a. Encourage the parents to schedule ASD
screenings every six months.
b. Provide information about local support
services such as Direct Services in
Greensboro, NC.
c. Instruct the parents to observe for signs of
self-injurious behavior and report them
promptly.
d. Emphasize the importance of structured
routines and predictable environments.
e. Recommend limiting the child’s exposure
to other children to prevent
overstimulation

A

b. provide information about local support
services such as in Greensboro, NC
c. instruct parent to observe for signs of self-
injurious behavior and report them promptly
d. emphasize the important of structured
routine and predicatble environment

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10
Q

A nurse is educating a group of parents about cerebral palsy. Which statement demonstrates correct understanding of the condition?

a. “Cerebral palsy worsens with age as the
brain damage progresses.”
b. “Cerebral palsy only affects movement
and had no impact on learning.”
c. “Cerebral palsy is a lifelong condition but
is not progressive.”
d. “Cerebral palsy is always caused by birth
conditions.”

A

“Cerebral palsy is a lifelong condition but is not progressive.”

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11
Q

What are the expected outcomes of the patient diagnosed with cerebral palsy after receiving therapeutic intervention? Select all that apply.

a. Establish communication and self-help
skills
b. Gain optimum appearance and integration
of motor functions
c. Remain secluded from others and refrain
from obtaining social skills
d. Obtain education adapted to their
individual needs

A

a establish communication and self-help skills
b gain optimum appearance and integration of motor function
d obtain education adapted to their individual needs

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12
Q

which is the most significant preventative measure during pregnancy to prevent cerebral palsy?

a. Optimal prenatal care
b. Exercise
c. Eating plenty of fruits and vegetables
d. Avoidance of harmful substances

A

optimal prenatal care

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13
Q

A 3-year-old child presents with red, itchy eyes and thick yellow discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Viral conjunctivitis
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Allergic conjunctivitis
d. Blepharitis

A

bacterial conjuctivitis

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14
Q

A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with acute otitis media. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

a. Oral antibiotics
b. Topical antibiotic ear drops
c. Oral antihistamines
d. Watchful waiting

A

oral antibiotic

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15
Q

A patient comes to the clinic with unilateral eye redness, pain, and photophobia. The nurse suspects:

a. Viral conjunctivitis
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Allergic conjunctivitis
d. Corneal abrasion

A

corneal abrasion

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16
Q

When conducting an educational class for expectant mothers, which information should the nurse include as a way to decrease the risk of SIDS? Select all that apply.

a. Cessation of cigarette smoking in the
home
b. Place the infant on the back to sleep
c. Use a heated mattress pad to keep the
infant warm
d. Avoid the use of pacifier when putting the
infant to sleep

A

a cessation of cigarette smoking in the home
b place infant on the back to sleep

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17
Q

which of the following is not a risk for sids

a. Premature infants
b. Low birth weight infants
c. Female infants
d. Infants born to mothers who are still
young

A

female infant

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18
Q

which of the following statements about SIDS is incorrect

a. Uncommon under the age of 1 month
b. Peaks at 2 months
c. 70% occur by 6 months
d. Very few occur after 1 year

A

70% occur by 6 months

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19
Q

The nurse provides an education session on methods to decrease the risk for SIDS. Which statement, made by an expectant mother, reflects a need for further education? Select all that apply.

a. “A pacifier is safe for my baby to use at
bedtime and while napping”
b. “A sleep sack is a safe method to keep my
baby at a comfortable temperature while
sleeping at night”
c. “A soft mattress will help my baby sleep
more comfortably”
d. “Bumpers lining the sides of the crib will
decrease the risk for injury”
e. “Keeping my baby up to date on
recommended immunizations decreases
the risk for SIDS”

A

c. a soft mattress will help my baby sleep more comfortably
d. bumpers lining the sides of the crib will decrease risk for injury

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20
Q

A 3-month-old is showing signs of heart failure. An echocardiogram is ordered and shows the infant has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Which statement below best describes the blood flow in the heart due to this congenital defect?

a. “The blood in the heart is bypassing from
the right ventricle to the left ventricle,
which is increasing pulmonary blood flow”.
b. “The blood in the heart is shunting from
the left ventricle to the right ventricle,
which is decreasing pulmonary blood
flow”.
c. “The blood in the heart is shunting from
the left ventricle to the right ventricle,
which is increasing pulmonary blood
flow”.
d. “The blood in the heart is bypassing the
left ventricle and is being shunted to the
right ventricle, which is decreasing lung
blood flow”.

A

The blood in the heart is shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, which is increasing pulmonary blood flow

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21
Q

The nurse caring for a 3-month-old infant with a diagnosed moderate ventricular septal defect (VSD). The infant tired easily with feedings and has not gained adequate weight. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to promote adequate nutrition?

a. Encourage breastfeeding every 4 hours for
30 minutes
b. Offer oral feeling for up to 45 minutes,
then stop regardless of intake
c. Provide small, frequent feedings with
high-calorie formula as ordered
d. Limit feedings to once every 6 hours to
allow rest.

A

provide small, frequent feedings with high-colorie formula as ordered

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22
Q

The nurse is caring for an infant with a large VSD who is showing signs of congestive heart failure. Which nursing interventions are appropriate in this situation? Select all that apply.

a. Administer furosemide as prescribed
b. Weigh the infant daily
c. Encourage tummy time to improve
circulation
d. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress
e. Cluster care to promote rest
f. Keep the infant NPO indefinitely

A

a. administer furosemide as prescribed
b. weigh the infant daily
d. monitor signs of respiratory distress
e. cluster care to promote rest.

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23
Q

The clinic nurse advocates for smoking cessation during pregnancy. Potential harmful effects of prenatal tobacco use include:
Select all answers that apply.

A

preterm birth

low birth weight

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24
Q

A pregnant woman informs the nurse that her last normal menstrual period was on July 6, 2007. Using Naegele’s rule, which of the following would the nurse determine to be the patient’s estimated date of delivery (EDC)?

A

april 13, 2008

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25
The clinic nurse is aware that the pregnant woman's blood volume increases by:
40-45%
26
chadwick's sign
bluish or purplish discoloration of the vulva, vagina, and cervix
27
pregnancy weight gain of normal weight
25-35 pounds
28
pregnancy weight gain for overweight women
15-25 pounds
29
pregnancy weight gain for obese women
11-20 pounds
30
how id EDD calculated
nagele's rule identify LMP count backwards 3 months add 7 days update year if applicable
31
goodwell's sign
softening of the cervix
32
hedgar's sign
softening of the lower uterine segment
33
positive sign of pregnancy
audible fetal heartbeat fetal movement felt by examinar fetus visual on ultrasound
34
presumptive signs of pregnancy
amenorrhea nausea breast tenderness deepening pigmentation urinary frequency quickening
35
presumptive sign
amenorrhea breast tenderness quickening frequent urination uterine growth
36
probably sign
goodell's sign chadwick's sign hedgar's sign mcdonald's sign abdominal enlargement braxton hicks ballotment striae positive pregnancy test
37
What is the most common expected emotional reaction of a woman to the news that she is pregnant?
ambivalence
38
A woman provides the nurse with the following obstetrical history: Delivered a son, now 7 years old, at 28 weeks' gestation; delivered a daughter, now 5 years old, at 39 weeks' gestation; had a miscarriage 3 years ago, and had a first-trimester abortion 2 years ago. She is currently pregnant. Which of the following portrays an accurate picture of this woman's gravidity and parity?
g5p1122
39
GPTAL
gravidad para term abortion living
40
Vaccines contraindicated during pregnancy
live vaccine
41
The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant patient. Which statement indicates to the nurse that further clarification is necessary?
the placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for the baby
42
A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of expectant parents. Which information should the nurse include in her discussion of the purpose of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
cushion fetus allows buoyancy for fetal movement maintain stable temp of fetus
43
The perinatal nurse explains to the new nurse that the maternal pelvic shape can determine the fetal presentation. A fetus in a transverse presentation may be due to which maternal pelvic type?
platypelloid
44
A pregnant patient asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
oxygen-rich blood is delivered through umbilical vein to baby
45
A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?
cervical cap
46
Stage 1 of Labor
Begins with onset of labor and ends with complete cervical dilation. Latent: Longest stage (6-19 hours) Dilation of 4 cm, UC's 5-15 min for a duration of 10-30 seconds, membranes usually intact. Mother is anxious and excited. Active: 2-5 hours, Dilation of 7 cm, UC's every 5-7 min for a duration of 30-45 seconds, membranes are intact of ruptured. Mother is restless, increasing anxiety. Transition: 1-2 hours, 10 cm dilated, UC's every 1-2 min with a duration of 40-60 seconds, membranes have usually ruptured. mother is nauseous, perspiring, panic, emotional.
47
Stage 2 of Labor
begins with complete dilation of cervix and ends with delivery of baby. 1-2 hours, fully dilated, heavy contractions for 50-90 seconds, membranes have ruptured. Mother has urge to push.
48
stage 3 of labor
beings after delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta. Sudden gush of blood. May loose 500 ml's of blood. 1-20 minutes, cervix is closing, uterus rises and becomes globular shaped. Mother may want to sleep, is relieved.
49
stage 4 of labor
begins after the delivery of the placenta and ends four hours later; immediate postpartum period. First 2-4 hours after delivery, cervix is closing, may feel cramping, post partum chills, hungry, thirsty, lochia is present.
50
5 Ps of labor
Powers: involuntary UC's of labor and the voluntary pushing or bearing down powers that combine to propel and deliver the fetus and placenta. Resting phase: uterine relaxation --> allows for blood flow to the uterus and placenta that was reduced during the contraction phase. Passage: includes the bony pelvis and the soft tissues of the cervix, pelvic floor, vagina, and introitus (external opening of vagina). Types of pelvis' include gynecoid, android, anthropoid, platypelloid. Passenger: the fetus. assess the fetal skull, fetal attitude, fetal lie, fetal presentation, fetal position, and fetal size. Psyche: the psychosocial aspect during labor to result in woman's wellness and satisfaction. Preparation helps the woman manage labor. Affected by culture, expectation, support system, and type of support during labor. Position: Maternal position during labor and birth. Upright position is favored in first and second stage of labor, and lithotomy position is favored during birth.
51
braxton-Hicks contraction
irregular UCs that do no result in cervix change and is associate with false labor
52
Spontaneous Rupture of Membranes (SROM)
Spontaneous Rupture of Membranes (SROM) may occur before the onset of labor but typically occurs during labor. once the membranes have ruptured the mother should deliver the baby within 24 hours because infection rate goes up without this protection. There is an increase risk of umbilical cord prolapse with ROM (assess FHR). fluid is clear or cloudy with a normal order similar to the smell of ocean water. Fluid may be meconium stained.
53
Three Medications administered to the newborn
Erythromycin ointment is administered to the eyes as prophylaxis to prevent gonococcal and Chlamydia infections. Vitamin K is administered via intramuscular injection to prevent hemorrhage due to K deficiency. Hep B virus vaccine is recommended for all newborns.
54
A nurse assesses the frequency of a client's contractions by timing them from the beginning of the contraction until when?
To the beginning of the next contraction
55
During labor, a client who has been receiving epidural anesthesia has a sudden episode of severe nausea, and her skin becomes pale and clammy. What is the nurse's immediate reaction?
turning patient on her side
56
A client is admitted to the birthing suite in early active labor. Which nursing action takes priority during the admission process?
auscultating the fetal heart
57
A client's membranes rupture while laboring is being augmented with an oxytocin infusion. A nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate on the fetal monitor strip. What action should the nurse take next?
Change the client's position
58
What nursing care should be provided to a woman with a third- degree laceration immediately after delivery?
cold pack to perineum
59
A woman is having a difficult labor because the fetus is presenting in the right occipital position (ROP). What position will the nurse promote to encourage fetal rotation and pain relief?
sitting up learning forwardon the over-bed table
60
The nurse is caring for a patient who is threatening preterm labor and has been given glucocorticoids. What is the purpose of glucocorticoid administration?
increase fetal lung maturity
61
After a vaginal birth complicated by shoulder dystocia, the nurse should particularly assess the newborn for
clavicle fracture
62
Which skeletal injuries does the nurse assess for in an infant after a difficult birth? Select all that apply.
skull fracture clavicle fracture
63
Which statement by the nursing student about the prevention of health care-associated infections (HAIs) in a nursery unit indicates effective learning?
hand washing helps prevent HAIs in a nursery unit
64
What instruction does the nurse provide to parents of an infant who is being treated for galactosemia?
use lactose-free infant formulas
65
he nurse finds poor feeding, lethargy, and constipation in an infant. In reviewing the maternal history, the nurse finds that the infant's mother was treated for Graves' disease during pregnancy. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the infant?
congenital hypothyroidism
66
which torch infection could be contracted by the infant because the mother own a cat
toxoplasmosis
67
Which prescription will be included in an infant's plan of care to decrease the withdrawal effects of heroin in an infant?
phenobarbital
68
syphillis
penicilin G
69
chlamydia
azithromycin
70
trichomoniasis
metronidazole
71
candidiasis
miconazole and fluconazole
72
genital herpes
acyclovir
73
gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
74
At a health education class for teenagers, the nurse discusses the sexually transmitted infection chlamydia trachomatis. Which information would the nurse most likely include?
this infection is the most common infectious cause of infertility
75
Copious amounts of frothy, greenish vaginal discharge would be a symptom of which infection?
trichomoniasis
76
A nurse is presenting a program for a local women's group about STIs. When describing the information, the nurse would identify which infection as the most common cause of vaginal discharge?
candidiasis
77
During unprotected sex, a 17-year-old female high school senior has been exposed to the human papillomavirus (HPV). The school nurse would recognize that the student is at a considerable risk of developing which diagnosis?
genital wart
78
amniotic fluid for fetal development
protect from outside trauma F&E balance maintain temperature
79
medroxyprogesterone acetate
cuase loss of bone density
80
During a counseling session on natural family planning techniques, how should the nurse explain the consistency of cervical mucus at the time of ovulation
thin and elastic
81
Inservice presentation on contraception we teach about different methods. Which method is mechanical barrier?
condom, female condom, cervical cups, diaphragm
82
advantage of cervical cups and diaphragm
do not affect menstrual cycle can be used during menstruation can be inserted ahead of time so as not to disrupt spontaneity
83
What are the disadvantages of cervical cups and diaphragms?
They are difficult and unpleasant to insert - Diaphragm size needs to be determined by the doctor - They need to be used in conjunction with spermicide to be more reliable - They do not protect against STIs - Must be kept in place 6 hours after ejaculation
84
Which information is important for a woman to understand before undergoing a scheduled tubal ligation?
she must think of the procedure as irreversible
85
A nurse is teaching a woman how to use the basal body temperature method of contraception. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies that she should refrain from having sexual intercourse at which time?
3 days after she records a slight drop in her temperature followed by an increase.
86
The nurse is teaching a patient on the use of a diaphragm for contraception. Which patient statement indicates that instruction has been effective?
I need to have the diaphragm checked if my weight changes by 30 lb
87
A postpartum patient asks the nurse when the subdermal hormone implant for contraception can be inserted. What should the nurse respond to this patient?
in 6 weeks
88
The nurse is providing care to a client with abnormal uterine bleeding. Treatment with medications has been unsuccessful, and surgical intervention is being considered. The nurse identifies which technique as being the last resort?
hysterectomy
89
presenting with possible signs of menopausal
vasomotor
90
preparing class of young women about emergency contraceptive, what does the nurse need to stress to the group?
EC must be used within 72 hours of unprotected sex
91
24-year-old pregnant patient smokes a pack a day. We encourage her to stop smoking because newborn of mothers who smoke are at risk for
LBW preterm birth fetal hypoxia conginital anomalies
92
Man seen in outpatient clinic has c/o of rash on sole of his hands and soles of his feet, sore throat and flu like symptoms. Priority assessment for nurses
check for RPR (syphilis)
93
Which of the following are goals of managing babies who are going through FAS?
parent and newborn interaction meeting nutritional needs preventing any complication promote comfort
94
endometriosis
cause infertility
95
describe passive change of cervix during labor
dilation and effacement
96
What instructions about medication is important for postpartum patients who have an episiotomy?
stool softner
97
Providing care for a woman who’s on labor who complains, what do we assess when evaluation the passageway?
cephalic
98
When it comes to the postpartum uterus, the nurse should be aware that
after 2 weeks it should not be palpable
99
A G2P1 client in the 3rd trimester comes for visit during assessment they report increase prevalent pressure, frequent urination, LBP. What should the nurse ask the client?
is it easier to breathe lately
100
A client in labor has been admitted to the labor and birth suite. The nurse assessed her notes that the fetus is in a cephalic presentation. Which description should the nurse give by the term presentation?
part of the fetal body entering the maternal pelvis first vertex, cephalic
101
gynocoid
ideal birth shape
102
Assessing a newborn immediately after vaginal birth, mother is concerning baby’s head has assumed an abnormal shape, what will the nurse inform the mother of the baby’s head?
return to normal after 3 days molding of the head allows them to adapt to the pelvis
103
Nurse document in client’s record Live male in vertex position ROA?
Head down, right maternal pelvis, occiput anterior ROA is facing toward the front and slightly to the right of the mother's pelvis, and he is exhibiting a flexed attitude
104
what assessment findings most associated with possible placenta abruption during labor
gestational hypertension
105
PPROM
increase in pulse
106
signs of cold stress
increase respiratory rate
107
newborn has an apgar of 6 at 5 minutes. what action would be the priority?
resusitive measure (oxygen)
108
postpartum client is prescribed medication therapy as part of a plan for PPH. what medication would the nurse expect to administer?
methergine
109
patient is 38 weeks with suspected placental abruption. what finding requires immediate notification to the provider?
fetal heart rate of 90 bpm
110
risk factor for PPH?
abruption chorioamnioitis obesity
111
which skeletal injury does the nurse assess for in an infant after a difficult birth?
clavical fracture
112
caring for a client diagnose with preeclampsia-eclampsia, what information should the nurse provide to the client about this condition?
kidney function
113
client has been diagnosed with shoulder distocia, what factors would the nurse expect in the prenatal history
fetal macrosomia DM HTN
114
teaching about risk of late PPH in client in labor and birth unit, which measure would the nurse emphasize in this program
inspecting placenta to make sure it's all intact
115
don't feel like taking a should
postpartum depression
116
feeling really overwhelm and tire
postpartum blues
117
intentional prevention of pregnancy is known as
contraceptive