Nutrition and Integumentary

Question 1

Consists of foods or fluids that have no residue and are liquid at room temperature.
Primarily to prevent dehydration and relieve thirst, consists of water and carbohydrates. Requires minimal digestion, leaves minimal residue, and is non-gas forming. Not meant for long-term use.
Indications include acute illness, reduction of colon fecal material prior to certain diagnostic tests and procedures, acute gastrointestinal disorders, and some postoperative recovery.

What diet is this?

Answer 1

Clear liquid diet

Question 2

Consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature including plain ice cream and strained cereals. Some facilities include pureed vegetables.
Indications include a transition from liquid to soft diets, postoperative recovery, acute gastritis, febrile conditions, and intolerance of solid foods.
Use cautiously with clients who have dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) unless liquids are thickened appropriately.
Many dietary manuals have removed the full liquid diet, so it might be used infrequently.

What diet is this?

Answer 2

Full liquid diet

Question 3

Consists of liquids and foods that are pureed to liquid food.
The composition and consistency of a pureed diet varies, depending on the client’s needs.
Modified with regards to calories, protein, fat, or other nutrients based on the dietary needs of the client.
Adding broth, milk, gravy, cream, soup, protein, fat, or fruit juice in foods in place of water provides additional calories and individual flavour.
Indications include clients who have chewing or swallowing difficulties, oral or facial surgery, and wired jaws.

Answer 3

Blenderized liquid pureed diet

Question 4

Contains whole foods that are low in fiber, lightly seasoned, and easily digested.
Food supplements or snacks in between meals add calories.
Food selections vary and can include smooth, creamy, or crisp textures. Raw fruits and vegetables, coarse breads and cereals, benas, and other potentially gas-forming foods are excluded.
Indications include clients transitioning between full liquid and regular diets, and those who have acute infections, chewing difficulties, or gastrointestinal disorders.
Predisposes clients to constipation.

Answer 4

Soft (bland, low-fiber) diet

Question 5

Infection prevention, wound healing, collagen formation, iron absorption, amino acid metabolism, antioxidants, and bone growth in children are functions of what vitamin?

Answer 5

Vitamin C

Question 6

Nerve function; metabolism of carbohydrates, fat, amino acids, glucose, and alcohol; appetite and digestion are functions of what vitamins?

Answer 6

B1

Question 7

Protein and carbohydrate metabolism, healthy skin, and normal vision are functions of what vitamins?

Answer 7

B2 (Riboflavin)

Question 8

Glycogen metabolism, cell metabolism, tissue, regeneration, fat synthesis, nerve function, digestion, and skin health are functions of what vitamins?

Answer 8

B3 (Niacin)

Question 9

Protein metabolism and red blood cell formation are functions of what vitamins?

Answer 9

B6 (Pyridoxine)

Question 10

Coenzyme in protein metabolism and cell growth, red blood cell formation, and prevention of fetal neural tube defects in utero.

Answer 10

B9 (folic acids)

Question 11

Water balance is the function of what macromineral?

Answer 11

Sodium

Question 12

Muscle contraction, cardiac muscle function, and nerve function are the function of what macromineral?

Answer 12

Potassium

Question 13

Bone and teeth development, nerve function, muscle contraction, immunity and blood clotting are the function of what macromineral?

Answer 13

Calcium

Question 14

Cell energy, muscle function, cardiac function, and glucose metabolism is the function of what macromineral?

Answer 14

Magnesium

Question 15

Fluid and electrolyte balance and digestion is the function of what macromineral?

Answer 15

Chloride

Question 16

Bone strength and cellular function is the function of what macromineral?

Answer 16

Phosphorus

Question 17

An inflammatory reaction of the skin to physical, chemical, or biological agents

Answer 17

Contact dermatitis

Question 18

Clinical manifestations and assessment of contact dermatitis

Answer 18

The eruptions begin when the causative agent contacts the skin. The first reactions include pruritus, burning, and erythema, followed closely by edema, papules, vesicles, and oozing or weeping.

Question 19

Occurs when tissue layers move over the top of each other, causing blood vessels to stretch and break as they pass through the subcutaneous tissue.

Answer 19

Shear

Question 20

Refers to rubbing the skin against a hard object, such as the bed or the arm of a wheelchair. Rubbing causes heat, which can remove the top layer of the skin and often results in skin damage.

Answer 20

Friction

Question 21

Term used to describe an area of reddened skin that does not turn white when pressured.

Answer 21

Nonblanchable erythema

Question 22

Intact skin with a localized area of nonblanchable erythema where prolonged pressure has occurred.

Answer 22

Stage 1 pressure injury

Question 23

Partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis. The wound has completely broken through the top layer of skin, and partly through the second layer, resulting in a shallow wound. Wound bed is viable and may appear like an intact or ruptured blister. Wound area may be painful and the surrounding tissue may be swollen or discolored.

Answer 23

Stage 2 Pressure injury

Question 24

Full thickness tissue loss in which fat is visible, but cartilage, tendon, ligament, muscle, and bone are not exposed. Undermining and tunnelling may occur in this type of pressure injury.

Answer 24

Stage 3 Pressure Injury

Question 25

Occurs when the tissue under the wound edge becomes eroded, resulting in a pocket beneath the skin.

Answer 25

Undermining

Question 26

Refers to passageways underneath the skin surface that extend from a wound and can take twists and turns.

Answer 26

Tunneling

Question 27

Inflammatory exudate that is usually light yellow, soft, and moist.

Answer 27

Slough

Question 28

is dark brown/black, dry, thick, and leathery dead tissue. If this obscures the wound so that tissue loss cannot be assessed, the pressure injury is referred to as unstageable.

Answer 28

Eschar

Question 29

serious bone infection that may require amputation or cause death if not promptly treated aggressively with antibiotics

Answer 29

Osteomyelitis

Question 30

full thickness tissue loss, like in stage 3 pressure injuries, but also have exposed cartilage, tendon, ligament, muscle, or bone.

Answer 30

Stage 4 Pressure Injuries

Question 31

Full-thickness skin and tissue loss in which the extent of tissue damage within the ulcer cannot be confirmed because it is obscured by slough or eschar.

Answer 31

Unstageable Pressure injuries

Question 32

Consist of persistent nonblanchable and deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration of an area

Answer 32

Deep tissue Pressure injuries

Question 33

The ______ of a score on a braden scale, the more severe the risk.

Answer 33

Less/Lower number/smaller number