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Nutrition CNC > Nutrition Review Test 6 > Flashcards

Nutrition Review Test 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following can a Nutrition Coach provide?

a. Nutritional advice and behavioral prescriptions
b. Nutritional advice and behavioral modification
c. Nutritional advice and behavioral counseling
d. Nutritional advice and behavioral prognosis

A

b. Nutritional advice and behavioral modification

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2
Q

A client confides that she is taking laxatives to help her lose weight. What is the best course of action?

a. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
b. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.
c. Tell her that regular use of laxatives are bad for her digestive tract.
d. Tell her to eat more fiber as that will help.

A

a. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.

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3
Q

With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?

a. Issues with consistent weight loss
b. Clients who wants to go vegan
c. Clients considering training for a half-Ironman
d. Clients who wants advice on supplements

A

a. Issues with consistent weight loss

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4
Q

A client has several relatives who have recently been diagnosed with cancer. She has been reading many books about natural health and is interested in taking herbal supplements that will help prevent cancer. What is the best course of action?

a. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.
b. Tell her to follow the guidelines of the books she read.
c. Tell her to save her money and stay away from herbal remedies.
d. Visit a health food store together.

A

a. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.

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5
Q

It is not uncommon for clients to confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?

a. Occasional constipation
b. Self-proclaimed “sugar addict”
c. Stress-eating from recent divorce
d. Daily panic attacks

A

d. Daily panic attacks

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6
Q

Scientists randomly assign subjects to a low or high carbohydrate group and then look at changes in body weight over 3 months. Which item represents the independent variable in this study?

a. Diet type
b. Body weight
c. Length of study (3 months)
d. Subjects

A

a. Diet type

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7
Q

Which of the following represents the lowest level of evidence?

a. Non-peer reviewed media
b. Randomized controlled trials
c. Peer reviewed editorials and expert opinion
d. Observational research

A

a. Non-peer reviewed media

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8
Q

Which term describes a variable in an experiment for which a scientist takes no steps to account for?

a. Uncontrolled variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Validity
d. Independent variable

A

a. Uncontrolled variable

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9
Q

Scientists perform a diet study in which they assign half the people to a continuous dieting group and the other half to an intermittent fasting group. Which term best describes this study design?

a. Parallel
b. Factorial
c. Observational
d. Crossover

A

a. Parallel

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10
Q

What is the leading contributor to preventable death?

a. Breast cancer
b. Heart disease
c. Obesity
d. Diabetes

A

b. Heart disease

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11
Q

The best approach to eating for a population’s diversity and differences includes which of the following?

a. A one-size fits all plan
b. Rigid and inflexible dietary guidelines
c. A flexible approach
d. Ketogenic or Paleolithic diets

A

c. A flexible approach

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12
Q

Which of the following is a primary contributor to preventable death?

a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Drinking
d. Suicide

A

b. Smoking

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13
Q

Which physiological change occurs with aging?

a. Greater physical activity
b. Slower metabolism
c. Higher hormonal response
d. Faster metabolism

A

b. Slower metabolism

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14
Q

To which of the following is one metabolic equivalent (MET) equal?

a. 1 ml O2 / Kg / min
b. 1 RMR equivalent of energy
c. 3.5 ml O2 / Kg / min
d. 10 ml O2 / Kg / min

A

c. 3.5 ml O2 / Kg / min

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15
Q

Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during digestion and processing of food?

a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
b. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
c. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)
d. Thermic effect of activity (TEA)

A

c. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)

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16
Q

The basic energy need of an average human being is approximately how many Calories?

a. 3000
b. 2500
c. 2000
d. 1500

A

c. 2000

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17
Q

What percent of daily energy expenditure is accounted for by the process of consuming food?

a. 0.05
b. 0.25
c. 0.1
d. 0.5

A

c. 0.1

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18
Q

Is post-workout protein consumption more important for novice or experienced weightlifters?

a. Experienced
b. Post-workout protein is important for both novice and experienced weightlifters.
c. Post-workout protein is not important for experienced or novice weightlifters.
d. Novice

A

a. Experienced

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19
Q

Which of the following is the best protocol for fat loss while maintaining muscle mass?

a. A high-calorie, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
b. A calorie-restricted, low-protein (0.4-0.8 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
c. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
d. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & cardiovascular training

A

c. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training

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20
Q

What are enzymes?

a. Protein-based structures which act as neurotransmitters
b. Protein-based structures which transport other compounds between cells
c. Protein-based structures which primarily eliminate pathogens
d. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions

A

d. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions

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21
Q

What is dehydration synthesis?

a. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together
b. Muscle protein synthesis occurring during a dehydrated state
c. When proteins help to regulate fluid balance by drawing water out of tissues into the blood stream
d. Consuming protein without a beverage

A

a. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together

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22
Q

To meet body composition goals, is it prudent for the client to meet the prescribed protein intake by choosing protein-based foods that also cause them to exceed prescribed fat intake?

a. Yes, if the goal is to gain weight. No, if the goal is weight maintenance or loss.
b. Yes, because protein is the most important of the macronutrients.
c. Yes, as long as it is not coming from saturated fat.
d. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.

A

d. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.

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23
Q

The acidic chyme leaving the stomach must be neutralized before any digestion can occur in the small intestine. What compound neutralizes this chyme?

a. Potassium citrate
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Pepsinogen
d. Chymotrypsin

A

b. Sodium bicarbonate

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24
Q

Which health benefit is attributed to soluble fiber?

a. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by accelerating atherosclerosis
b. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by binding to cholesterol particles
c. Protection against diabetes because it facilitates blood sugar spikes
d. Decreased absorption of foods because it speeds movement through the small intestine

A

b. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by binding to cholesterol particles

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25
Q

Which complex carbohydrate chain contains straight-chain structures?

a. Soluble fiber
b. Amylose
c. Amylopectin
d. Insoluble fiber

A

b. Amylose

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26
Q

What is the second priority for ingested carbohydrates in the human body?

a. Use as a fuel for endocrine glands
b. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles
c. Elevate insulin levels in the blood
d. Enhance fat-burning ability

A

b. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles

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27
Q

Which two monosaccharides combine to make sucrose?

a. Glucose and dextrose
b. Glucose and galactose
c. Glucose and maltose
d. Glucose and fructose

A

d. Glucose and fructose

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28
Q

What is the age group that should avoid consuming reduced fat milks?

a. Perimenopausal women with osteoporosis
b. Children under the age of 2 years
c. Any person who is considered underweight
d. Seniors over the age of 65

A

b. Children under the age of 2 years

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29
Q

What is the definition of hydrophobic?

a. Likely to repel or not mix with water.
b. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.
c. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat.
d. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants.

A

a. Likely to repel or not mix with water.

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30
Q

A client asks a Nutrition Coach about the benefits of medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) supplementation in weight loss. What is the BEST response?

a. Medium-chain triglycerides should be consumed in a supplement form for maximal absorption.
b. MCT supplements are a health risk for anyone experiencing dementia.
c. While there has been research linking MCT supplementation with weight loss, this should not replace dietary and lifestyle interventions.
d. MCT supplements are a health risk for anyone with osteopenia or osteoporosis.

A

c. While there has been research linking MCT supplementation with weight loss, this should not replace dietary and lifestyle interventions.

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31
Q

What is the BEST information to share with a client about coconut oil intake?

a. There is evidence that coconut oil significantly decreases LDL cholesterol.
b. Coconut oil probably has a neutral effect on heart health.
c. There is evidence that medium-chain triglycerides found in coconut oil raises the risk of diabetes.
d. Coconut oil is superior for heart heath compared to polyunsaturated fatty acids.

A

b. Coconut oil probably has a neutral effect on heart health.

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32
Q

A client asks a Nutrition Coach about taking omega-3 supplements. What is the BEST response to tell the client?

a. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise triglyceride levels.
b. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise LDL cholesterol.
c. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish.
d. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, omega-6 supplements are more beneficial for heart health.

A

c. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish.

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33
Q

What effect can regular, moderate alcohol consumption have on an individual’s health?

a. Improves the health of males more than females
b. Brings about positive health benefits
c. Has no effect on health
d. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases

A

d. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases

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34
Q

How many questions are there in the USAUDIT-C questionnaire?

a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1

A

a. 3

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35
Q

Which product of ethanol metabolism disrupts fatty acid oxidation in peripheral tissues?

a. NADH
b. Acetate
c. Acetyl-CoA
d. Acetaldehyde

A

b. Acetate

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36
Q

What effect can alcohol metabolism have if liver glycogen is low?

a. Cancer of the liver
b. Sever hypoglycemia
c. Fatty acid accumulation
d. Fatty liver disease

A

b. Sever hypoglycemia

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37
Q

What percent of the body is made of calcium?

a. 14-15%
b. 1-2%
c. 9-10%
d. 6-7%

A

b. 1-2%

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38
Q

What percent increased requirement do long distance runners have for iron compared to non-runners?

a. 0.25
b. 0.35
c. 0.7
d. 0.5

A

c. 0.7

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39
Q

Pyridoxal, pyridoxine, and pyridoxamine are all molecules of which vitamin?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin K

A

b. Vitamin B6

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40
Q

What is the normal range for the extracellular concentration of sodium?

a. 175 to 190 millimolar
b. 206 to 217 millimolar
c. 321 to 338 millimolar
d. 136 to 151 millimolar

A

d. 136 to 151 millimolar

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41
Q

A client who trains for triathlons has asked how much fluid he should consume between his morning runs and afternoon bike rides. He has determined his sweat losses from his early morning runs average around 2 liters. Which range of fluid intake would be most appropriate?

a. 3.0-3.5 liters
b. 1.0-1.5 liters
c. 2.5-3.0 liters
d. 1.5-2.0 liters

A

c. 2.5-3.0 liters

42
Q

A sweat loss assessment has determined a client loses ~1.5 % of their body mass during a typical training session. The client trains five days per week. What is the best hydration advice be for this client?

a. Drink enough water to ensure they never feel thirsty.
b. Assess sweat losses from every session and replace 150% of losses with measured fluid intake before the next training session.
c. Drink eight glasses of water per day.
d. Drink ad libitum. If this doesn’t assure the client, advise an extra 500 mL of water before bed and before reporting to train.

A

d. Drink ad libitum. If this doesn’t assure the client, advise an extra 500 mL of water before bed and before reporting to train.

43
Q

At what rate should individuals engaged in exercise in hot environments consume fluids?

a. There is no single fluid intake rate for all individuals.
b. 0.5 liters per hour
c. 1.0 liters per hour
d. 2.0 liters per hour

A

a. There is no single fluid intake rate for all individuals.

44
Q

Which item most appropriately describes the use of urine specific gravity?

a. It should be used during very long duration exercise to determine real-time hydration status.
b. It should be assessed multiple times before exercise to determine if clients with heavy sweat losses routinely fail to consume adequate fluid during recovery.
c. Only use USG after exercise.
d. It is a great tool to determine if sodium intake is too high.

A

b. It should be assessed multiple times before exercise to determine if clients with heavy sweat losses routinely fail to consume adequate fluid during recovery.

45
Q

Which meal/snack would be a good recommendation for a person to consume before an early morning workout?

a. Chocolate milk
b. Pancakes with syrup and bacon
c. A large bagel with cream cheese
d. Avocado with bacon and egg

A

a. Chocolate milk

46
Q

How many hours does a fat-containing food need to digest or leave the gut?

a. Up to 5-6 hours
b. Up to 3-4 hours
c. Up to 1-2 hours
d. Up to 7-8 hours

A

a. Up to 5-6 hours

47
Q

What is the energy pathway that does not require oxygen to produce ATP?

a. Aerobic pathway
b. Anaerobic pathway
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Electron transport chain

A

b. Anaerobic pathway

48
Q

When should a strength athlete’s pre-exercise snack be consumed?

a. 3 to 4 hours before exercise
b. 15 minutes before exercise
c. 5 minutes before exercise
d. 30 minutes to 2 hours before exercise

A

d. 30 minutes to 2 hours before exercise

49
Q

A client inquires about using fat burners to help her lose weight. Which of the following may be beneficial and safe?

a. Carbohydrate blockers
b. Ephedra
c. Caffeine
d. CLA (conjugated linoleic acid)

A

c. Caffeine

50
Q

Proven side effects from creatine use in healthy individuals include which of the following?

a. Muscle cramping
b. Weight gain
c. Kidney damage
d. Dehydration

A

b. Weight gain

51
Q

How might capsaicin aid in weight control?

a. It may have a slight positive impact on energy expenditure and appetite.
b. It is a banned substance.
c. It may increase daily energy expenditure by 30%.
d. It suppresses appetite, leading to reduced intake by 25%.

A

a. It may have a slight positive impact on energy expenditure and appetite.

52
Q

Which of the following is true regarding third party testing of supplements?

a. It determines whether a supplement is effective.
b. It is not required by law.
c. It determines whether product claims are accurate.
d. It is required by law.

A

b. It is not required by law.

53
Q

Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?

a. Persuasive
b. Emotional
c. Informational
d. Personable

A

b. Emotional

54
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client with a high level of self-efficacy?

a. A client who demonstrates knowledge of proper nutrition
b. A client who is aware of their personal limitations
c. A client who strongly believes they can reduce fat in their diet to help lower their cholesterol
d. A client who has a positive outlook on life in general

A

c. A client who strongly believes they can reduce fat in their diet to help lower their cholesterol

55
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as the ability to control impulses?

a. Willpower
b. Gratification
c. Self-efficacy
d. Personal effort

A

a. Willpower

56
Q

Which of the following is the most influential variable over self-efficacy?

a. Master experiences
b. Social modeling
c. Social persuasion
d. Emotional responses

A

a. Master experiences

57
Q

What best describes empathy in communication?

a. A relationship that is based on mutual trust and understanding
b. Mindfully comprehending the meaning of words in a conversation
c. Feeling sorry for the client’s feelings and experiences
d. Understanding what the client is feeling and experiencing

A

d. Understanding what the client is feeling and experiencing

58
Q

A coach spends the majority of his time in a conversation with a client looking down or around the room. This is an example of which of the following?

a. An ideal nonverbal communication strategy
b. Makes the client feel more comfortable
c. Not an ideal nonverbal communication strategy
d. Better than maintaining a constant stare

A

c. Not an ideal nonverbal communication strategy

59
Q

Which of the following should be the initial goal for coach-client communication?

a. Establish coach credentials.
b. Build trust and develop understanding.
c. Identify primary program goals.
d. Identify past nutritional program experiences.

A

b. Build trust and develop understanding.

60
Q

In terms of providing feedback to a client throughout a program, which of the following is the best approach?

a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.
b. Provide consistent praise and encouragement.
c. Provide feedback to keep clients on track.
d. Provide consistent and thorough feedback to all clients.

A

a. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.

61
Q

Which of the following is the best approach to dealing with program setbacks?

a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward.
b. Be stern and direct to keep the client focused.
c. Provide praise and encouragement regardless of behavior.
d. Identify key mistakes so the client knows what to change.

A

a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward.

62
Q

Which of the following is defined as the seemingly paradoxical state where a client wants to change but also does not want to change?

a. Ambivalence
b. Behavior paralysis
c. Precontemplation
d. Relapse

A

a. Ambivalence

63
Q

Which of the following is defined as all of the brain processes used to energize and direct behavior?

a. Self-efficacy
b. Attitude
c. Motivation
d. Intention

A

c. Motivation

64
Q

How many Motivational Interviewing strategies are there?

a. 7
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3

A

c. 5

65
Q

Which of the following reframes the idea of failures as ineffective solutions?

a. Affirmations
b. Self-determination theory
c. Self-esteem
d. A process mindset

A

d. A process mindset

66
Q

Jim wants to place in the top ten of a 5k race. What type of goal is this?

a. Performance goal
b. Outcome goal
c. Subjective goal
d. Objective goal

A

b. Outcome goal

67
Q

What is self-monitoring?

a. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar.
b. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time.
c. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not.
d. The degree to which an individual is invested in achieving his or her goal.

A

a. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar.

68
Q

Which of the following is an example of a SMARTS goal?

a. My goal is to eat more fruits and vegetables by only eating salads for the next 6-months.
b. After speaking with my Nutrition Coach, my goal is to reduce my calorie intake from 3,000 to 2,000 five days per week for the next three months by excluding junk foods (chips, cookies, pastries) during the weekday.
c. My goal is to look and feel better than I ever have before by exercising every morning and evening until I’m satisfied by my appearance.
d. My goal is to eat no more than 900 calories per day for the next 6 months so I lose at least 50 pounds.

A

b. After speaking with my Nutrition Coach, my goal is to reduce my calorie intake from 3,000 to 2,000 five days per week for the next three months by excluding junk foods (chips, cookies, pastries) during the weekday.

69
Q

What are goals in relation to one’s own level of performance or behavior?

a. Outcome goals
b. Subjective goals
c. Performance goals
d. Do your best goals

A

c. Performance goals

70
Q

Which body composition assessment method relies on the thickness of the fat layer under the skin to estimate body composition?

a. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
c. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. Skinfolds

A

d. Skinfolds

71
Q

What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for carbohydrates?

a. 35 to 45%
b. 45 to 65%
c. 20 to 35%
d. 10 to 35%

A

b. 45 to 65%

72
Q

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that adults do not consume more than how much sodium per day?

a. 2,300 mg
b. 3,600 mg
c. 2,600 mg
d. 3,200 mg

A

a. 2,300 mg

73
Q

Of the options provided, which body composition assessment method has the highest accuracy?

a. Electrical impedance myography
b. Ultrasound
c. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. Skinfolds

A

c. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

74
Q

If a food label in the EU and UK mentions a dietary ingredient in the product name or on the primary display panel, what must be included in the Ingredients List in addition to the name of the dietary ingredient?

a. The source of the dietary ingredient
b. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product
c. The ratio of the dietary ingredient to the total number of ingredients in the product
d. The volume of the dietary ingredient in the product

A

b. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product

75
Q

How many grams of fat does a ‘Low Fat’ product labeled on the Nutrition Facts panel have?

a. Three grams of fat or less per serving
b. One gram of fat per serving
c. Five grams of fat or less per serving
d. Three grams of fat per serving

A

a. Three grams of fat or less per serving

76
Q

A client mentions that he is trying to find a brand of cereal that is high in fiber but is not sure how to compare different products. What recommendation could a Nutrition Coach provide to help him choose a brand that is high in fiber?

a. Choose a brand that has a % Daily Value of 5% or less for fiber.
b. Choose a brand that has a % Daily Value of 20% or less for fiber.
c. Choose a brand that has a % Daily Value of 20% or more for fiber.
d. Choose a brand that has a % Daily Value of 5% or more for fiber.

A

c. Choose a brand that has a % Daily Value of 20% or more for fiber.

77
Q

What is one problem associated with using larger plates at meals?

a. It is more difficult to estimate palm-sized portions
b. Larger plates increase appetite
c. People tend to serve themselves larger portions
d. Larger plates decrease appetite

A

c. People tend to serve themselves larger portions

78
Q

Which of the following is a useful strategy that can help clients be more efficient during meal prep?

a. Set out all the ingredients and tools needed prior to starting.
b. Cook all the protein foods at the same time, then all the starches and vegetable dishes.
c. Prepare one recipe at a time to avoid multi-tasking.
d. Chop and cook different foods at the same time.

A

a. Set out all the ingredients and tools needed prior to starting.

79
Q

A client expresses that she usually likes to have a piece of fruit as a snack in the afternoon, but she is usually hungry again soon after. What might a Nutrition Coach recommend she do to prolong satiety?

a. Drink water with her fruit to help her feel full.
b. Add some protein to her snack.
c. Have another snack until she feels full.
d. Have two pieces of fruit for satiety.

A

b. Add some protein to her snack.

80
Q

When dining out, what is one useful strategy that consumers can employ prior to going to a restaurant in order to determine some healthy food choices?

a. Look up the menu ahead of time.
b. Eat ahead of time.
c. Avoid eating excessively ahead of time.
d. Call ahead to ask for the daily specials.

A

a. Look up the menu ahead of time.

81
Q

A client expresses that she often has late dinner events and is usually hungry beforehand, but is not sure what to eat without ruining her appetite. What type of snack might a Nutrition Coach recommend?

a. Coffee
b. A fruit and cheese platter
c. A light, protein rich snack
d. A granola bar

A

c. A light, protein rich snack

82
Q

According to B.J. Fogg’s model, what is a strategy that a client could use to turn a healthy behavior change into a sustainable habit?

a. Associate the change with an existing behavior that they perform or engage in regularly.
b. Perform the behavior on a daily basis until it becomes a habit.
c. Add the behavior change to a list of activities that they plan to do each day.
d. Write down the behavior change and how often they plan on implementing it.

A

a. Associate the change with an existing behavior that they perform or engage in regularly.

83
Q

An extremely low intake of what macronutrient, on a consistent basis, may increase the risk of low testosterone?

a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Alcohol

A

c. Fat

84
Q

What is the recommended total daily fat intake on a low-fat diet (LFD)?

a. 20-35% of total calories
b. 10-15% of total calories
c. >40% of total calories
d. <5% of total calories

A

a. 20-35% of total calories

85
Q

How many grams of protein per meal is advisable to maximize the muscle repair/building response?

a. 20-40 g
b. 5-10 g
c. 10-20 g
d. 50-75 g

A

a. 20-40 g

86
Q

The Institute of Medicine recommends that vegans have an intake 1.8 times greater than that of non-vegetarians of what micronutrient?

a. Iron
b. Selenium
c. Sodium
d. Potassium

A

a. Iron

87
Q

Which diet would be most likely to lead to the most rapid decrease in bodyweight over a four-week period?

a. Gluten-free diet
b. DASH diet
c. Very low-energy diet (VLED)
d. Paleo diet

A

c. Very low-energy diet (VLED)

88
Q

What is the primary difference between conventional and organic agriculture?

a. Type of crop
b. Land use
c. Cost of production
d. Pesticide use

A

d. Pesticide use

89
Q

Compared to other carbohydrates, calorie-equated exchange for fructose affects which of the following?

a. Body weight
b. Fatty liver
c. Glycemic control
d. Blood lipids

A

c. Glycemic control

90
Q

Nonnutritive sweeteners may be associated with weight gain because of what psychological phenomenon?

a. Satiety signaling
b. Taste preferences
c. Glycemic control
d. Brain activation patterns

A

d. Brain activation patterns

91
Q

Grass-fed / -finished cattle are different from organic cattle primarily because of which of the following reasons?

a. Grass-fed / -finished cattle have more illnesses.
b. Organic cattle do not eat fresh pasture grass.
c. Organic cattle eat grains during the end of their life.
d. Grass-fed / -finished cattle get more exercise.

A

c. Organic cattle eat grains during the end of their life.

92
Q

A client is looking to change nutritional habits and start a diet consisting of high protein and plenty of fruits and vegetables. Which item represents the best way to initially go about this?

a. Rely on the person’s initial high motivation to help start the diet.
b. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.
c. Provide the client with a general guide to high protein/low energy-density diets.
d. Educate the client on the benefits of high protein and high fruit and vegetable intakes.

A

b. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.

93
Q

A client tells their Nutrition Coach that coworkers bring donuts to work every morning. Which psychological barrier to adherence does this represent?

a. Perception of choice
b. Situational barrier
c. Confusion
d. Stress-related eating

A

b. Situational barrier

94
Q

A client’s weight loss progress is very slow. The client is reporting a low calorie intake of 1200 per day. Their Nutrition Coach decides to increase the client’s calorie intake to give the person a diet break. Suddenly, the client starts to lose weight again. Which of the following best describes why this happened?

a. The client was in “starvation mode” and boosting calorie intake got the client out of it.
b. The client had a more attainable calorie intake and was better able to adhere to the diet.
c. The client felt more energetic on the higher calorie intake and became more active.
d. The increase in calorie intake boosted metabolism.

A

b. The client had a more attainable calorie intake and was better able to adhere to the diet.

95
Q

Which item best represents a psychological barrier to dietary adherence?

a. Strong increase in hunger in response to a calorie deficit
b. Abundance of hyperpalatable, energy-dense foods
c. Tenacity of eating habits
d. No decrease in hunger during overfeeding

A

c. Tenacity of eating habits

96
Q

Which item refers to the tendency to eat more when a wide variety of foods are present?

a. Buffet effect
b. Hyperpalatable
c. Impaired satiety signals
d. Energy dense

A

a. Buffet effect

97
Q

What percent of information that is told to a client is immediately forgotten?

a. 5-10%
b. 40-80%
c. 25-35%
d. 15-20%

A

b. 40-80%

98
Q

What do guidelines suggest as a protein intake target for endurance athletes?

a. 1.2-1.6 g/kg/day
b. 2.2-3.0 g/kg/day
c. 0.8-1.0 g/kg/day
d. 1.7-2.2 g/kg/day

A

a. 1.2-1.6 g/kg/day

99
Q

What is the evidence-based technique that the Nutrition Coach can use when discussing key findings to increase the client’s comprehension of new information, promote accurate retention of the key findings once the session has ended, and improve adherence to the recommended plan known as?

a. Teach-back method
b. Client debriefing
c. Motivational interviewing
d. Coach-client communication

A

a. Teach-back method

100
Q

Which equation includes measures of body composition for estimating resting metabolic rate?

a. Mifflin St. Jeor
b. Harris-Benedict
c. Stratton-Willis
d. Katch-McArdle

A

d. Katch-McArdle

Nutrition CNC (6 decks)

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