odontogenesis: cellular and molecular Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

hereditary disease affecting bones and teeth

A

osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)

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2
Q

OI caused by mutations in COL1A1 or ____

A

type I collagen

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3
Q

OI is ____, in which one mutant allele is enough to cause OI phenotype

A

autosomal dominant (genotype and phenotype are the same)

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4
Q

need 2 mutant alleles to change the phenotype

A

autosomal recessive

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5
Q

with autosomal recessive, two ____ are necessary to contribute 2 mutant alleles to offspring

A

carriers

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6
Q

percent chance of offspring having disease in AD and AR

A

AD: 50%- usually shows up in every generation
AR: 25%- does not show up every generation

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7
Q

x-linked disease; mutations in AMELX gene on X chromosome

A

amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

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8
Q

an affected father with AI passes on mutant X chromosome to _____ only

A

daughters

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9
Q

The process of a generalized cell becoming specialized for a job (changes in size, shape, products, activities, cell division, etc.)

A

cell differentiation

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10
Q

the process that initiates differentiation

A

induction

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11
Q

ability of a cell to receive and respond to a molecular signal

A

competence

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12
Q

the ultimate generalized cell

A

stem cell

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13
Q

in cell signaling, ____ chemical signal directs changes in target cells that express ____

A

secreted; receptors

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14
Q

Proteins that control whether genes will be transcribed into mRNA (to be translated into proteins)

A

transcription factors (TFs)

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15
Q

DLX3 stands for:

A

distal-less homeobox 3

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16
Q

DLX 3 regulates what 3 things

A
  1. hair follicle differentiation
  2. enamel genes
  3. bone
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17
Q

mutations in DLX3 lead to _____

A

TDO syndrome - tricho-dento-osseous syndrome (hair-teeth-bone)

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18
Q

ball of cells about day 3-4 of development

A

morula

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19
Q

hollow fluid-filled ball about day 5 of development

A

blastocyst

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20
Q

inner cell mass of the blastocyst that forms ALL tissues of the embryo- embryonic stem cells

A

embryoblast

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21
Q

other cells of the blastocyst ; the outer cell layer

A

trophoblast

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22
Q

___ are established in the blastocyst at about 13 days

A

axes

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23
Q

with axes established, the embryo is ____ with ___ being dorsal and ____ being ventral

A

bilaminar (2 layer); ectoderm; endoderm

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24
Q

ectoderm is the floor of the ____; it is dorsal and consists of ____ cells

A

amniotic cavity; columnar

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25
endoderm is the roof of the _____; is is ventral and consists of ____ cells
second cavity (secondary yolk sac); cuboidal
26
conversion to a trilaminar embryo, occurs during the 3rd week
gastrulation
27
____ converge toward the midline to form the primitive streak
ectodermal cells
28
ectodermal cells migrate thru the primitive streak between ____ and _____ to form a new ____ layer
ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm
29
cephalic (more rostral) migrating cells form the ____ to support the embryo
notochord
30
_____ remains bilayer of endoderm and ectoderm (NO mesoderm)
buccopharyngeal membrane
31
____ folding happening during week 4; when folding begins, the cardiac plate is ____ to the future buccopharyngeal membrane
rostro-caudal (front-back); rostral
32
_____ folding also occurs during week 4 and contributes to reorganization to 3D embryo or trilaminar disc
lateral (side-side)
33
one consequence of rostral-caudal folding
mouth
34
_____ defines most rostral boundary of the primitive gut
buccopharyngeal membrane
35
the buccopharyngeal membrane breaks down to allow ____ to communicate with the ____
stomatodeum (primitive oral cavity); foregut
36
NCCs are induced to undergo _____ transformation
epithelial-mesenchymal
37
skeletal bones come from ____
mesoderm
38
during brain development, the ____ expands as:
neural tube expands as forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
39
the hindbrain forms ____ _____ or bulges, which define the origins of distinct populations of NCCs
8 rhombomeres
40
NCCs from midbrain and rhombomeres 1 and 2 contribute to ____
branchial arch 1
41
NCCs from rhombomeres greater than/equal to 3 express _____, ancient rostral-caudal patterning genes that define body segments
Hox TFs
42
NCCs that migrate to the face and branchial arch 1 are ____
Hox-free
43
all TFs include a ____ that allows them to interact with genes
DNA-binding domain
44
controls the formation of legs during development
HOM-C Homeobox gene
45
loss of function of HOM-C Homeobox gene causes:
legs--> antennae (loss of body patterning)
46
gain of function of HOM-C Homeobox gene causes:
antennae --> legs (ectopic expression)
47
what patterning TFs direct craniofacial development?
Otx2: orthodenticle homeobox 2 Msx: muscle segment homeobox Dlx: distal-less homeobox Barx: BarH-like homeobox
48
NCCs contribute to the ____ in the branchial arches
mesoderm
49
arches are external bumps which are internally, a mix of ___ and ____
NCCs and mesoderm
50
the oral cavity is lined with ____ while the rest of the digestive tract is lined with ____
ectoderm; endoderm
51
branchial arch 1 gives rise to:
1. maxilla and mandible | 2. meckel's cartilage portion
52
meckel's cartilage gives rise to:
- malleus and incus of middle ear - sphenomalleolar ligament - sphenomandibular ligament
53
branchial groove/cleft 1 gives rise to:
external auditory meatus
54
pouch 1 gives rise to:
tympanic membrane tympanic cavity mastoid antrum eustachian tube
55
Dlx1/2 mutant mice show altered ____ and lack of _____
craniofacial morphology; maxillary molars
56
Dlx1/2 affects ____ BA1 or the _____
proximal; maxillary process
57
disease caused by failure/impairment of NCC migration to the facial region; causes underdevelopment of craniofacial region and mandible
Treacher-Collins syndrome aka mandibulofacial dysostosis
58
_____ interactions drive tooth formation
epithelial-mesenchymal
59
signaling in odontogenesis is described as ____, ____, and _____
reciprocal, reiterative, sequential
60
which tissue holds the odontogenic potential during initiation stage?
epithelium first, then mesenchyme
61
morphogenesis begins during the ____ stage of odontogenesis
cap
62
non-dividing enamel organ cells in the cap stage; expresses numerous signaling molecules; directs proliferation of surrounding epithelial cells
primary enamel knot
63
2-3 cell layers thick, adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium (IEE)
stratum intermedium (SI)
64
contains star-shaped cells with lots of space in between them
stellate reticulum (SR)
65
non-dividing enamel organ cells in bell stage, appearing at sites of cusps (NOT in incisors); express signaling molecules; direct proliferation of surrounding epithelial cells
secondary enamel knot(s)
66
secondary enamel knot(s) stimulate terminal differentiation of _____ to begin _____ (always begins at cusp tips)
odontoblasts; dentinogenesis
67
in the late bell stage, the dental papilla forms ____ and the inner enamel epithelium forms _____
odontoblasts; ameloblasts
68
autosomal dominant mutations in PAX9 transcription factor (expressed in dental mesenchyme early in development)
oligodontia
69
most oligodontia affected individuals are missing maxillary and mandibular _____
2nd and 3rd molars
70
autosomal dominant mutations in RUNX2 transcription factor, expressed in dental mesenchyme; causes supernumerary primary teeth
hyperdontia
71
RUNX2 probably ____ regulates tooth-initating signal like ____
negatively; Wnt
72
constitutively active Wnt signaling in mouse caused:
- supernumerary teeth - ectopic enamel knots - numerous and malformed teeth
73
embryonic stem cells are _____ and have the ability to differentiate into all 3 germ layers and divide indefinitely
pluripotent
74
adult (postnatal) stem cells are _____ and have the ability to differentiate within limits; they divide _____
multipotent; asymmetrically (not indefinitely)
75
dental stem cells have several populations of _____ stem cells
adult/postnatal
76
Absence of all primary or secondary teeth; tooth agenesis
anodontia
77
6 or more missing teeth
oligodontia
78
1-5 missing teeth
hypodontia
79
more than the normal numbers of teeth (supernumerary teeth)
hyperdontia
80
dental stem cells can be from what locations?
dental pulp, periodontal ligament (PDL), dental follicle, apical papilla