Old Material Flashcards
1
Q
An increase in parasympathetic tone causes
A
bronchoconstriction
2
Q
The adrenal medulla releases
A
Mostly epinephrine, a smaller amount of norepinephrine
3
Q
Which is characteristic of the “fight or flight” response?
A
Vasodilation of vessels supplying skeletal muscle
4
Q
What type of receptor is found on the pacemaker cells of the heart?
A
beta 1 adrenergic
5
Q
Which of the following causes an increase in heart rate?
A
Norepinephrine at beta 1 adrenergic receptors of the SA node
6
Q
Plasma and interstitial fluid contain higher _____ and lower _____ compared with intracellular fluid.
A
Na+; K+
7
Q
Oxygenated blood is found in the
A
pulmonary vein
8
Q
What are the predicted effects of a muscarinic cholinergic agonist?
A
Decreased heart rate
9
Q
Which of the following stimulates increased release of erythropoietin?
A
All of the above
tissue hypoxia, low blood oxygen, anemia
10
Q
In erythrocyte recycling by the liver and spleen, the heme group of hemoglobin is metabolized into
A
bilirubin and bile
11
Q
Blood cells form from stem cells located in
A
bone marrow
12
Q
Males generally have a higher hematocrit than females. Thus males have
A
Higher amount of erythrocytes than females
13
Q
An excess of white blood cells is associated with
A
leukemia
14
Q
Which accurately describes the sequence of activation in the common pathway of clotting?
A
Factor X/prothrombin/thrombin/fibrin
15
Q
Platelets aid in clotting by
A
All of the above
secreting vasoconstrictors; activating clotting factors; aggregating at a vessel injury
16
Q
A blood clot is the combination of erythrocytes, platelets and
A
fibrin
17
Q
A traveling blood clot is called
A
embolus
18
Q
The mitral valve is located between the
A
Left atrium and left ventricle
19
Q
What allows electrical signals to travel throughout the heart muscle?
A
Gap junctions
20
Q
The right side of the heart contains _____ blood. The left side of the heart contains _____ blood.
A
Deoxygenated; oxygenated
21
Q
The heart is contained in the
A
pericardial cavity
22
Q
Acetylcholine is a
A
negative chronotropic agent
23
Q
The plateau phase in the action potential of the cardiac myocyte
A
All of the above
24
Q
An increase in vagal (parasympathetic) tone results in
A
Hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells
25
Which sequence accurately describes the order of the Cardiac electrical conduction pathway?
SA node/atrial myocardium/AV node/AV bundle/Ventricular myocardium
26
Sympathetic stimulation of the pacemaker cells of the heart causes
Calcium influx through L-type calcium channels
27
Semilunar valves open during
ventricular systole
28
In order to eject blood from the heart, ventricular pressure must
exceed aortic pressure
29
Increased preload (End Diastolic Volume) causes
increased stroke volume
30
epinephrine is a
Positive chronotropic and inotropic agent
31
What type of agent will block (prolong) phase 3 of the action potential of cardiac myocytes?
Potassium channel blocker
32
Stroke volume=
End diastolic volume (EDV) - End systolic volume (ESV)
33
The average cardiac output in a resting individual is
5L/min
34
Heart rate=
cardiac output/ stroke volume
35
Which statement accurately describes Starling's Law of the Heart?
Increased filling of the heart stretches the ventricular wall, causing cardiac muscle to contract more forcefully
36
Ventricular systole involves all of the following EXCEPT
atrial contraction
37
What does an ECG measure?
Electrical activity of the heart
38
A resting heartbeat above 100 beats per minute is known as?
Tachycardia
39
Atrial depolarization on an ECG is represented as
P wave
40
The 'Ectopic foci' that can cause premature beats (PACs, PVCs) are actually
Cardiac myocytes that take over as pacemaker cells
41
Bradycardia is a common side-effect of which agent?
beta blocker
42
Large lumens, low pressure, blood storage are features of which vessels?
veins
43
In atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter, the inefficient emptying of the blood from the atria makes what event more likely?
clot formation
44
Systolic blood pressure is generated by
Ventricular contraction
45
The most significant influence on vascular resistance is
vessel radius
46
Dilation of an arteriole to twice its radius will have what effect on blood flow
16-fold increase in flow
47
An L-type calcium channel blocker has what effect on blood vessels?
vasodilation
48
vascular compliance is
The increase in vessel volume compared to the increase in vessel pressure
49
Which blood vessels play a key role in regulating blood distribution and pressure because their diameters may be easily and rapidly adjusted?
arterioles
50
the slowest movement of blood occurs in
capillaries
51
The vessels that supply the neck and head on each side
carotid arteries
52
Relatively thick muscular walls and elastic properties refers to
large artery
53
What is the MAP of a person with a systolic/diastolic blood pressure reading of 100/60 mm Hg?
73 mmHg
54
An increase in sympathetic tone causes veins to
all of the above
55
The volume of blood flowing back to the heart through the systemic veins is known as
venous return
56
```
Given these blood vessels:
1. aorta
2. inferior vena cava
3. pulmonary arteries
4. pulmonary veins
Which vessels carry oxygen-rich blood?
```
1,4
57
The rate of blood flow in pulmonary circulation is _____ the rate of blood flow in systemic circulation.
equal to
58
To return blood back to the heart, _____ must exceed that of _____.
Venous pressure; Right atrial pressure
59
The flow of blood into an individual capillary is regulated by a/an
precapillary sphincter
60
The parasympathetic nervous system can influence MAP by altering
heart rate
61
In response to cold (decreased metabolism), an organ will do what to keep it's local blood flow constant?
Constrict precapillary sphincters
62
Baroreceptors are located in the _____.
aorta and carotid sinus
63
Loss of sympathetic tone at systemic arterioles results in
Decreased total peripheral resistance (TPR)
64
Loss of sympathetic tone at systemic veins results in
Decreased venous return
65
Which plasma protein circulates in the blood in an inactive state?
angiotensinogen
66
Long-term regulation of blood pressure is primarily accomplished by altering
blood volume
67
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted from the _____ when blood pressure _____.
Atria; rises
68
Angiotensin II raises blood pressure by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
Promoting water excretion by the kidney
69
A blood pressure of 140/80 is categorized as
Stage I Hypertension
70
Why is hypertension associated with higher myocardial oxygen demand?
The heart has to work harder to eject blood
71
When blood pressure rises, baroreceptors signal the brainstem to decrease sympathetic output, resulting in all of the following EXCEPT
Vasoconstriction
72
The crushing pain associated with angina pectoralis is an indication that
The heart is ischemic
73
In heart failure, the kidneys
Increase blood volume
74
The release of renin is directly stimulated by?
Decreased blood flow to kidneys
75
A sudden drop in blood pressure and loss of consciousness is known as
shock
76
What causes reabsorption of fluid at the venous end of an idealized capillary bed?
C. Low capillary hydrostatic pressure and high capillary colloidal osmotic pressure
77
The endothelium (lining of capillaries) is
Simple squamous epithelium
78
What type of substance would you NOT expect to find in urine?
mitochondria
79
What is the osmolarity of lymph?
300 mosmol/L
80
What happens to lymph?
It returns to the blood at subclavian veins
81
What type of capillaries form the glomerulus of the nephron?
fenestrated
82
the neural control of micturition, which efferent pathway is under-developed in infants?
somatic- from brain
83
What sort of receptors are most important in the contraction of the detrusor muscle?
muscarinic cholinergic
84
Urine flows from a kidney to the urinary bladder via a
ureter
85
What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?
vasa recta
86
In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from
The vascular lumen to the interstitium
87
Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?
Peritubular capillaries
88
What are the characteristics of inulin that make its clearance = GFR?
Freely filtered, not reabsorbed, not secreted
89
What structures are located on the apical surfaces of proximal convoluted tubule cells that increase the surface area available for reabsorption?
microvilli
90
In the nephron, ultrafiltration occurs at the _____ and reabsorption at the _____.
glomerulus; peritubular capillaries
91
How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?
Increased blood pressure and increased blood flow
92
The tubular transport maximum for glucose measures the maximum rate of glucose ____ by the renal tubules.
reabsorption
93
Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR even when MAP is very low?
constriction of the efferent arteriole
94
About how much fluid is filtered into the renal tubules each minute?
125 mL
95
Average creatinine clearance for a young adult male is _____.
125 ml/min
96
Where does most reabsorption occur?
proximal convoluted tubule
97
Substances with high clearances are actively
secreted
98
In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves "downhill" to allow glucose to move "uphill" across the apical membrane?
Na+
99
What is one direct consequence (not cause) of a high GFR?
electrolyte depletion
100
The formation of the medullary osmotic gradient requires counter-current multiplication by the
loop of henle
101
In the absence of ADH, what type of urine is formed?
hypotonic
102
During periods of dehydration, how much more concentrated than typical body fluids can human urine become?
4x
103
Where is the energy expended for counter current multiplication?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
104
Body osmolarity is approximately
300 mOsm
105
Diuretic agents _____ water loss by _____.
increase; decreasing salt reabsorption
106
Which transporter is blocked by loop diuretics?
Na+/K+/2Cl-
107
One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)
increase in glomerular filtration
108
The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by
vasopressin
109
Aldosterone causes increased
Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
110
Hypokalemia means
a low level of potassium in the blood
111
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, alkalinize the urine by
inhibiting the reabsorption of HCO3-
112
Carbon dioxide is also known as a respiratory _____, because it ____ blood pH.
acid; lowers
113
In respiration O2 is brought in and used and is given off.
co2
114
What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?
cilia
115
Which of the following is NOT a function of the air conduction passageways?
gas exchange
116
Respiratory acidosis may result from
hypoventilation
117
Dilation of the bronchioles to twice the radius will cause a
16 fold increase in air flow
118
Gas exchange between air and blood occurs in
alveoli
119
Constriction of the bronchioles is due to the actions of _____ at _____ receptors.
Acetylcholine; Muscarinic cholinergic
120
The cilia and mucus cells of respiratory epithelium serve to
Trap particulate matter in air
121
Bronchodilation can be produced by
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors
122
Tidal volume is
500 mL
123
Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of
water
124
The single most important muscle / muscle group for quiet (routine) inspiration:
diaphragm
125
In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because
alveolar walls have deteriorated
126
The function of surfactant is to
Increase alveolar expansion by reducing the surface tension of water
127
In quiet breathing (at rest), Inspiration is mediated by _____. Expiration is mediated by _____.
Muscle contraction; Recoil
128
When deflated, alveoli have relatively______, which aids in inspiration.
low surface tension
129
The sequence for the movement of O2 from the alveolus to blood is
Type I cell, basement membrane, endothelial cell
130
Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, acidification of the blood causes
Increased O2 delivery to the tissues
131
A ventilation/perfusion ratio of 0.8 means that
Airflow and blood flow at the alveoli are balanced
132
When blood passes through tissues with low temperatures (i.e. cold hands or feet), what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve?
Shift to the left - increased affinity for oxygen
133
A patient comes to you seeking treatment for difficulty breathing due to narrowed air passages (from chronic bronchitis). What agent are you most likely to recommend to help the patient with breathing?
Muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
134
Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because
the distance is increased
135
Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because
as HCO3-
136
Which of the following is most important for the routine regulation of respiration?
CO2 (pH) at central chemoreceptors
137
The inspiratory and expiratory control centers are located in the
medulla
138
If cardiac output increases to 15 L/min, to make a V/Q match, ventilation rate must
increase to 12 L/min
139
At high altitudes, airplane cabins must be pressurized in order to
Increase the O2 content of the air
140
Which neurotransmitter is responsible for stimulating the defecation reflex?
Acetylcholine
141
In the enteric nervous system, short (myenteric) reflexes are integrated in the _______.
gut wall
142
During swallowing, what structure blocks the larynx from the pharynx?
epiglottis
143
The myenteric and submucosal plexuses are part of the
enteric nervous system
144
The smell of that food is so good, "it makes my mouth water!" What glands are being activated?
Salivary glands
145
Which receptor on parietal cells does NOT stimulate HCl secretion?
Alpha 1 adrenergic
146
Which of the following is a side effect of anti-cholinergic drugs?
Difficulty in defecation
147
Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?
Secretin
148
When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?
cephalic
149
The major function of the large intestine is
absorption of water
150
The majority of absorption of digested materials occurs in the
small intestine
151
The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is
The Na+/K+ ATPase
152
Omeprazole (Prilosec) decreases acid secretion from parietal cells by
Blocking the proton pump
153
Protein digestion begins in the _____ and is completed in the _____.
Stomach; Small intestine
154
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the GI tract by what mechanism?
Secondary active transport
155
The feeding and satiety centers are located in the
Hypothalamus
156
Ghrelin _____. Leptin _____.
Promotes hunger; Promotes satiety
157
The hormone CCK stimulates the secretion of
Digestive enzymes by the pancreas
158
Decreased conjugation of bilirubin is one cause of
Jaundice
159
Which substances are least likely to be subject to a "first pass effect"?
lipids
160
What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?
conjugation
161
A drug is much more active when taken orally than when injected subcutaneously. What might explain this phenomenon?
The drug requires activation by the liver
162
What causes reabsorption of fluid at the venous end of an idealized capillary bed?
C. Low capillary hydrostatic pressure and high capillary colloidal osmotic pressure
163
The endothelium (lining of capillaries) is
Simple squamous epithelium
164
What type of substance would you NOT expect to find in urine?
mitochondria
165
What is the osmolarity of lymph?
300 mosmol/L
166
What happens to lymph?
It returns to the blood at subclavian veins
167
What type of capillaries form the glomerulus of the nephron?
fenestrated
168
the neural control of micturition, which efferent pathway is under-developed in infants?
somatic- from brain
169
What sort of receptors are most important in the contraction of the detrusor muscle?
muscarinic cholinergic
170
Urine flows from a kidney to the urinary bladder via a
ureter
171
What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?
vasa recta
172
In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from
The vascular lumen to the interstitium
173
Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?
Peritubular capillaries
174
What are the characteristics of inulin that make its clearance = GFR?
Freely filtered, not reabsorbed, not secreted
175
What structures are located on the apical surfaces of proximal convoluted tubule cells that increase the surface area available for reabsorption?
microvilli
176
In the nephron, ultrafiltration occurs at the _____ and reabsorption at the _____.
glomerulus; peritubular capillaries
177
How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?
Increased blood pressure and increased blood flow
178
The tubular transport maximum for glucose measures the maximum rate of glucose ____ by the renal tubules.
reabsorption
179
Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR even when MAP is very low?
constriction of the efferent arteriole
180
About how much fluid is filtered into the renal tubules each minute?
125 mL
181
Average creatinine clearance for a young adult male is _____.
125 ml/min
182
Where does most reabsorption occur?
proximal convoluted tubule
183
Substances with high clearances are actively
secreted
184
In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves "downhill" to allow glucose to move "uphill" across the apical membrane?
Na+
185
What is one direct consequence (not cause) of a high GFR?
electrolyte depletion
186
The formation of the medullary osmotic gradient requires counter-current multiplication by the
loop of henle
187
In the absence of ADH, what type of urine is formed?
hypotonic
188
During periods of dehydration, how much more concentrated than typical body fluids can human urine become?
4x
189
Where is the energy expended for counter current multiplication?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
190
Body osmolarity is approximately
300 mOsm
191
Diuretic agents _____ water loss by _____.
increase; decreasing salt reabsorption
192
Which transporter is blocked by loop diuretics?
Na+/K+/2Cl-
193
One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)
increase in glomerular filtration
194
The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by
vasopressin
195
Aldosterone causes increased
Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
196
Hypokalemia means
a low level of potassium in the blood
197
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, alkalinize the urine by
inhibiting the reabsorption of HCO3-
198
Carbon dioxide is also known as a respiratory _____, because it ____ blood pH.
acid; lowers
199
In respiration O2 is brought in and used and is given off.
co2
200
What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?
cilia
201
Which of the following is NOT a function of the air conduction passageways?
gas exchange
202
Respiratory acidosis may result from
hypoventilation
203
Dilation of the bronchioles to twice the radius will cause a
16 fold increase in air flow
204
Gas exchange between air and blood occurs in
alveoli
205
Constriction of the bronchioles is due to the actions of _____ at _____ receptors.
Acetylcholine; Muscarinic cholinergic
206
The cilia and mucus cells of respiratory epithelium serve to
Trap particulate matter in air
207
Bronchodilation can be produced by
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptors
208
Tidal volume is
500 mL
209
Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of
water
210
The single most important muscle / muscle group for quiet (routine) inspiration:
diaphragm
211
In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because
alveolar walls have deteriorated
212
The function of surfactant is to
Increase alveolar expansion by reducing the surface tension of water
213
In quiet breathing (at rest), Inspiration is mediated by _____. Expiration is mediated by _____.
Muscle contraction; Recoil
214
When deflated, alveoli have relatively______, which aids in inspiration.
low surface tension
215
The sequence for the movement of O2 from the alveolus to blood is
Type I cell, basement membrane, endothelial cell
216
Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, acidification of the blood causes
Increased O2 delivery to the tissues
217
A ventilation/perfusion ratio of 0.8 means that
Airflow and blood flow at the alveoli are balanced
218
When blood passes through tissues with low temperatures (i.e. cold hands or feet), what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve?
Shift to the left - increased affinity for oxygen
219
A patient comes to you seeking treatment for difficulty breathing due to narrowed air passages (from chronic bronchitis). What agent are you most likely to recommend to help the patient with breathing?
Muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
220
Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because
the distance is increased
221
Pneumonia is characterized by a build-up of fluid in the interstitium of the lungs. The fluid inhibits gas diffusion because
as HCO3-
222
Which of the following is most important for the routine regulation of respiration?
CO2 (pH) at central chemoreceptors
223
The inspiratory and expiratory control centers are located in the
medulla
224
If cardiac output increases to 15 L/min, to make a V/Q match, ventilation rate must
increase to 12 L/min
225
At high altitudes, airplane cabins must be pressurized in order to
Increase the O2 content of the air
226
Which neurotransmitter is responsible for stimulating the defecation reflex?
Acetylcholine
227
In the enteric nervous system, short (myenteric) reflexes are integrated in the _______.
gut wall
228
During swallowing, what structure blocks the larynx from the pharynx?
epiglottis
229
The myenteric and submucosal plexuses are part of the
enteric nervous system
230
The smell of that food is so good, "it makes my mouth water!" What glands are being activated?
Salivary glands
231
Which receptor on parietal cells does NOT stimulate HCl secretion?
Alpha 1 adrenergic
232
Which of the following is a side effect of anti-cholinergic drugs?
Difficulty in defecation
233
Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?
Secretin
234
When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?
cephalic
235
The major function of the large intestine is
absorption of water
236
The majority of absorption of digested materials occurs in the
small intestine
237
The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is
The Na+/K+ ATPase
238
Omeprazole (Prilosec) decreases acid secretion from parietal cells by
Blocking the proton pump
239
Protein digestion begins in the _____ and is completed in the _____.
Stomach; Small intestine
240
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the GI tract by what mechanism?
Secondary active transport
241
The feeding and satiety centers are located in the
Hypothalamus
242
Ghrelin _____. Leptin _____.
Promotes hunger; Promotes satiety
243
The hormone CCK stimulates the secretion of
Digestive enzymes by the pancreas
244
Decreased conjugation of bilirubin is one cause of
Jaundice
245
Which substances are least likely to be subject to a "first pass effect"?
lipids
246
What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?
conjugation
247
A drug is much more active when taken orally than when injected subcutaneously. What might explain this phenomenon?
The drug requires activation by the liver
