OMA Chapter 8 Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

What are the main things covered in OMA chapter 8?

A

Operating procedures

All to do with usability of aerodromes, operating minima, fuel policy, load sheets, tech log, ground handling instructions, flight procedures, all weather operations, ETOPS, non-commercial flights, oxygen requirements, EFB applications, punctuality policy

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2
Q

What does MSA stand for? How much obstacle clearance does it guarantee?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude

1000ft

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3
Q

What does TAA stand for? What is it?

A

Terminal Arrival Altitude

In RNAV approach, MSA may be replaced by TAA, which is based on one of the procedure fixes

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4
Q

What does MORA stand for?

A

Minimum off-route altitude

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5
Q

What are the extents of MORA obstacle clearance, both vertically and laterally?

A

1000ft clearance on terrain up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance on terrain above 5000ft
within 20nm of the route centreline

Note that the minimum MORA depicted on flight plans is 2000ft

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6
Q

What is MGA?

A

Minimum grid altitude

Round up to next 100ft, then increase by 1000ft below 6000ft,

or 2000ft above 6000ft

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7
Q

What is significant when the surface temperature is -10C or less?

A

Low altitude temperature corrections need to be made

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8
Q

Are low temperature corrections made to DA and MDA?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Which altitudes are corrected for cold temperatures?

A

Any altitudes relevant after the final approach fix on NPAs

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10
Q

What must you ensure after completing temperature corrections?

A

ATC are informed, as this helps vertical separation

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11
Q

Where should you consult in the manuals to ensure a vertical guidance mode can be used with temperature corrections, and what corrections to make?

A

OMA Chapter 8.1

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12
Q

Where is aerodrome elevation taken from?

A

The highest point of the landing area

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13
Q

When is an MDA/H used and when is a DA/H used?

A

MDA/H for 2d instrument approach
DA/H for 3d instrument approach

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14
Q

What does MDA/H stand for?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude/Height

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15
Q

What does DA/H stand for?

A

Decision Altitude/Height

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16
Q

What is the relevance of the alert height?

A

If a failure of one of the required redundant operational systems occurred below the alert height, it would be ignored and the approach continued. If the failure occurred above, the approach would be discontinued and a go around executed, unless reversion to a higher decision height is possible

17
Q

What is a CAT I Approach? What are the associated minima?

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200ft and an RVR not less than 550m

18
Q

What is a CAT II Approach? What are the associated minima?

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and an RVR not less than 300m

19
Q

What is a CAT IIIA Approach? What are the associated minima?

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100ft and an RVR not less than 200m

20
Q

What is a CAT IIIB Approach? What are the associated minima?

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100ft, or NO DH, and an RVR lower than 200m but not less than 75m

21
Q

What is the definition of ceiling?

A

Height above ground or water of the base of the lowest cloud layer below 20000ft covering more than half the sky

22
Q

What is the definition of cloud base?

A

The height of the base of the lowest observed or forecast cloud element in the vicinity of the aerodrome

23
Q

What is the minimum amount a runway needs to be covered in order to be classed as contaminated?

A

More than 25% of one third of the runway surface area

24
Q

What is the definition of deadheading?

A

Time spent in transportation on aircraft at the insistence of the AOC holder to or from a crew member’s home station

25
When considering MDA/H and DA/H, when do you use RA and when do you use baro?
RA for height, baro for altitude
26
When does final approach start and finish?
FAF (or end of last procedure turn if no FAF specified) Finshes at DA
27
What is final reserve fuel?
The amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes in standard conditions at holding speed1500ft above the aerodrome elevation, calculated at the estimated weight on arrival at the alternate (or destination, when no alternate is required)
28
What is the purpose of a fuel ERA aerodrome?
Reduces the required contingency fuel
29
What is the basic distinction between jamming and spoofing?
Jamming prevents GNSS signals, whereas spoofing is broadcasting fake signals to create incorrect data
30
What is MDA referenced to? What is MDH referenced to?
Mean sea level Aerodrome elevation, or threshold elevation if that is more than 7ft below aerodrome elevation
31
What is the definition of missed approach point?
That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed
32
When is 'night'?
The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight (or such other period between sunset and sunrise) Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon
33
What does RNP stand for?
Required Navigation Performance
34
What is a steep approach?
4.5 degree glide or more All approaches exceeding 4.5 degrees require specific operator approval
35
What is the TODA?
Take off run available, plus length of clearway available