Oncology Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

what is performance status

A

describes a patients fitness in relation to how well they will cope with treatment
0-5
0 fully active
5 deceased

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2
Q

Pancreatic cancer tumour marker

A

CA 19-9

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3
Q

Ovarian cancer tumour marker

A

Ca125

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4
Q

Breast cancer tumour marker

A

Ca15-3
Note tumour markers have low specificity

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5
Q

Features of bony metastases

A

Bone pain
Raised ALP
Hypercalcaemia
Pathological fractures

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6
Q

Management and of chemotherapy nausea and vomiting

A

Low risk; metaclopramide first line

High risk; 5-HT3 antagonists such as ondansetron

Higher risk, opioids, anxiety, over 50, type of chemotherapy

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7
Q

Signs of spinal cord compression

A
  • back pain
  • lower limb weakness
  • sensory changes
  • neurological signs; depending where compression occurs. If below L1 LMN signs (cauda equina) if above UMN signs
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8
Q

Investigation and management of spinal cord compression

A

Full spine MRI urgently

High dose oral dexamethasone

Urgent oncological review for radiotherapy or surgery

flat bed rest + analgesia

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9
Q

Spinal metastases presentation

A

Can precede spinal cord compression so important to detect

Unrelenting lumbar back pain
Any thoracic or cervical back pain
Nocturnal pain
Worse with sneezing/coughing
Associated tenderness

Needs MRI within a week if no neurological features

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10
Q

What is superior vena cava obstruction?
What cancer most associated with?
Other causes?

A

Oncological emergency caused by compression of the superior vena cava

Most commonly caused by lung cancer
Other causes;
- lymphoma, breast Ca and other malignancies
- aortic aneurysm
- mediastinal fibrosis
- goitre
- SVC thrombosis

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11
Q

Features of superior vena cava obstruction

A

Dyspnoea - most common symptom
Swelling of face, neck and arms
Headache
Visual disturbance
Pulseless jugular venous distention

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12
Q

Management superior vena cava obstruction

A

A-E approach

  • endovascular stent for symptom relief
  • certain malignancies may benefit from chemo or chemo-radiotherapy
  • glucocorticoids are often given (dex)

ask oncology team; depends on individual patient and malignancy

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13
Q

lung cancer presentation at GP pathway

A

urgent CXR if 2 of following age40+ or one + a smoker
- cough
- fatigue
- SoB
- chest pain
- weight loss
- appetite loss

if CXR suggests malignancy or is unclear then 2ww to specialist

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14
Q

what information do radiology need before doing a CT

A

previous contrast reaction?
renal function
diabetes - if on metformin may need to be stopped for scan

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15
Q

important tests at any 2ww specialist appointment

A

PMHx - fitness for surgery/chemo/radio

FBC
renal function
liver function
bone profile

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16
Q

lung cancer specific investigations

A

pulmonary function tests
bronchoscopy and biopsy
CT staging scan (mot cancers need)

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17
Q

main oncological emergencies

A

neutropenic sepsis

SVCO

hypercalcaemia

spinal cord compression

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18
Q

management neutropenic sepsis

A

A-E
plus
sepsis six; Abx, oxygen, fluids in, blood cultures, urine output, lactate out

investigate for cause
involve seniors

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19
Q

when does neutropenia most occur after chemotherapy

A

around 5-12 days after treatment

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20
Q

treatment of hypercalcaemia

A

IV fluid rehydration - monitor balance and electrolytes

bisphosphonate after rehydration

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20
Q

small cell lung cancer features

A

typically centrally located
rapidly growing
often smoking related
chemo/radiosensitive but rarely cured
short prognosis

21
Q

squamous cell lung cancer features

A

typically centrally located - early symptoms
smoking related
best survival rate

22
Q

adenocarcinoma of lung features

A

typically peripherally located
slowest growing
can be non-smokers
can respond well to systemic agents

may metastasise early due to location

23
Q

TNM staging lung cancer

A

T1 <3cm
T2 3-5cm
T3 5-7cm
T4 >7cm

N0-N3 (n2 and 3 mediastinal nodes, ipsi and contra)

M0
M1a, b and c
a extra nodule
b intra thoracic mets
c extra thoracic mets

24
brain mets presentation and investigation
headahces confusion MRI brain imaging of primary routine bloods - exclude hypercalcaemia, infections etc
25
immediate management of brain mets
dexamethasone (may add PPI too)
26
denosumab - action - indications - important side effects
RANK ligand inhibitor - works on bone remodelling prevention of skeletal related events in bone mets from advanced breast cancer or other solid tumours except prostate also licensed for osteoporosis high dose every 4 weeks in cancer important side effects; hypocalcaemia, osteonecrosis of the jaw
27
blood tests metastatic presentation
FBC U+Es LFTs bone profile
28
how are skeletal metastasis assessed
isotope bone scan
29
treatments available for metastatic breast cancer
depending on status of cancer but - endocrine therapy - chemotherapy - Herceptin therapy - bisphosphonate/denosumab
30
CDK4/6 inhibitors
increasingly used in breast cancer predominantly used alongside endocrine drugs in ER-positive HER2-negative cancers CDk4/6 are proteins that control cell growth and division
31
main important reaction to immunotherapy drugs
allergic reaction
32
how do most immunotherapy drugs act
as checkpoint inhibitors
33
side effects of immunotherapy management
immune related organ side effects; colon, lungs, liver, endocrine fatigue and skin changes also common typically occur weeks to months after treatment starts severe or persistent side effects can be managed with steroids and treatment may be stopped
34
investigation of a suspicious lymph node
USS and biopsy
35
how can immunotherapies cause toxicity
immune-mediated toxicities due to activation of the immune system to target cancer cells treated with corticosteroids to immunosuppressive
36
immunotherapy and PMHx of autoimmune conditions
can worsen existing autoimmune conditions by activating the immune system
37
grading of immunotherapy reactions
toxicity reactions/side effects are graded 1-5 1 no or mild symptoms 5 death
38
management of immunotherapy related diarrhoea
caused by an inflammatory colitis which can progress needs investigation with a sigmoidoscopy and needs high dose immunosuppression
39
BRAF inhibitors in melanoma
about 50% of melanomas are positive for BRAF V600 mutation (oncogene) so an option for treatment in BRAF inhibitors
40
what does the HPV vaccine cover?
protects against HPV 16 and 18 which are responsible of approximately 70% of cases of cervical cancer, and types 6 and 11 which are associated with genital warts
41
who is offered the HPV vaccine
girls and boys aged 12-13 in school catch up is available for anyone up to the age of 25 Men who have sex with men, trans women and trans men are eligible for catch up up until aged 45
42
when does cervical screening commence
people with a cervix are screened from age 25 up to age 49 get invitations every 3 years aged 50-64 every 5 years presuming HPV is negative
43
what happens if cervical smear sample is HPV positive
cytology is carried out on the sample to triage for colposcopy. If cytology is negative then screening will be repeated in 1 year if changes seen on cytology then invited for colposcopy
44
pelvic radiotherapy and fertility
likely to result in infertility consider preservation techniques can also cause sexual function problems
45
how may radiotherapy be delivered to the cervix
brachytherapy - a radioactive source inserted into the vagina/cervix delivers local radiotherapy
46
how is chemotherapy typically dosed
according to body surface area
47
What type of lymph node biopsy in suspected lymphoma
Excisional lymph node biopsy
48
What information does a patient need to be aware of when discussing a clinical trial
- what the trial is + details of the treatment and follow up - that they can withdraw at any time - entry is voluntary and refusal will not affect their care - the standard therapy that is available if they choose not to enter
49
How is neutropenic sepsis defined
Temperature >38 and neutrophil count of <0.5x10^9 per litre
50
what type of cancer can AFP be raised in
hepatocellular carcinoma